Question 1: Which of the following would it be if an insurance producer were to give an inexpensive calendar to everyone who bought a policy the previous year?
Correct Answer: A. Advertising and promotion.
Question 2: Which of the following situations require NO examination to obtain an insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: C. Someone who is applying to reinstate a lapsed insurance producer license within 12 months of its lapse.
Question 3: Which of the following are requirements of all group accident and health insurance policies?
Correct Answer: D. All of the above.
Question 4: Which of the following is a requirement when selling Medicare Supplement Insurance plans?
Correct Answer: D. All of the above.
Question 5: The Insurance Director does NOT have which of the following powers?
Correct Answer: C. Sentence insurance produces to prison or jail terms.
Question 6: Mr. Auddie Murphy is a licensed insurance producer. Mr. Murphy’s reserve unit is being called up for an extended period of active duty. Which of the following requirements does NOT apply to Mr. Murphy’s situation?
Correct Answer: D. He cannot appoint another qualified producer to service his customers while he is in the military.
Question 7: Which of the following acts does NOT require an insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: C. Doing strictly clerical work in an insurance office for an hourly wage.
Question 8: For which of the following can a person be charged with a Class B Misdemeanor?
Correct Answer: D. Rebating.
Question 9: Which of the following rules do NOT apply to Health Maintenance Organizations (HMO’s)?
Correct Answer: D. An HMO plan can be terminated due to the covered member has incurred bad health.
Question 10: Insurance commissions CANNOT be paid to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. A unlicensed office assistant for clerical work.
Question 11: Who can apply for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. An insurance company for an individual who is in the process of fulfilling the pre-license education requirements.
Question 12: Which of the following situations requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: A. Allowing more than 10% of all of an insurance producer’s accounts receivable to go over 90 days.
Question 13: No examination, pre-license education, continuing education or bond requirement applies to which type of license?
Correct Answer: C. Limited Lines Producer license.
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT required of Long-Term Care Insurance plans?
Correct Answer: D. There are no additional requirements to sell Long-Term Care Insurance plans other than having an accident/health insurance producer license.
Question 15: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for selling insurance without the appropriate insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: A. A Class B Misdemeanor for acting as an insurance producer without an license.
Question 16: An advertisement of an accident/health insurance policy can state which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. The true identity of the insurance company.
Question 17: Which of the following does NOT require an insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: D. An insurance producer’s salaried office assistant that assists the producer only with administrative duties.
Question 18: Which of the following describes “controlled business”?
Correct Answer: A. Selling insurance to yourself, your own spouse, your own business, or your employer’s business.
Question 19: Mr. Ryan James requires a special, high face amount life insurance policy. After diligently searching for an insurance company to write the policy, his insurance producer has been able to find only one insurance company that will issue the policy. The insurance company is NOT admitted in the state were the sale is to occur. Which of the following requirements apply?
Correct Answer: A. The policy must be sold through a Surplus Lines Producer.
Question 20: Which would it be if an insurance producer were to give an insurance customer back a 10% discount on the premium out of the insurance producer’s commissions?
Correct Answer: B. Rebating.
Question 21: Which of the following describes a foreign insurance company?
Correct Answer: D. An insurance company operating in a state other than the state were it obtained its original charter.
Question 22: Which of the following is an unfair method of competition for which an insurance producer can be ordered to cease and desist and fined NOT more than a $5,000?
Correct Answer: A. Misrepresenting the financial status of an insurance company.
Question 1: Which of the following situations require an insurance producer license, but NO examination to obtain it?
Correct Answer: C. A non-resident producer or a producer moving to Illinois from another state.
Question 2: Which of the following describes brokering?
Correct Answer: A. Selling insurance issued by a company for which the producer is NOT a regular representative and does not have an agency contract.
Question 3: Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: D. The State Insurance Director can issue subpoenas.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a form of illegal activity?
Correct Answer: D. Giving small gifts to people who have purchased policies in the past as a token of appreciation.
Question 5: Which of the following statements about premiums, commissions, service fees and late charges is true?
Correct Answer: C. An Insurance Producer can charge a late charge of 1-1/2% per month on an unpaid premium balance within the first 90 days.
Question 6: How is the fee for an Insurance Producer license paid?
Correct Answer: A. Two years paid by the producer to the Illinois Department of Insurance.
Question 7: What is the penalty for NOT carrying Workers Compensation Insurance?
Correct Answer: B. Employer loses all Common Law defenses.
Question 8: Which of the following is a penalty for acting WITHOUT the proper insurance license?
Correct Answer: B. Class A Misdemeanor for soliciting, negotiating, or selling insurance without proper licensing.
Question 9: Which of the following statements concerning the Workers Compensation Assigned Risk Pool is true?
Correct Answer: C. Its purpose is to assure the availability of Workers Compensation insurance to all employers
Question 10: Which of the following statements concerning the Automobile Insurance Plan is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. Participation in the Automobile Insurance Plan is voluntary on behalf of the insurance companies.
Question 11: Which of the following describes a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. An insurance agency.
Question 12: When is a license terminated?
Correct Answer: A. When the license renewal fee has not been paid.
Question 13: Which of the following would qualify as a form of misappropriation of premium monies?
Correct Answer: D. Not keeping records of the premium money.
Question 14: A Premium Fund Trust Account CANNOT be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: D. A stock brokerage account.
Question 15: Which of the following statements concerning an application for an Insurance Producer License is true?
Correct Answer: B. The individual applies and pays a two year fee to the Illinois Department of Insurance.
Question 16: When must the insurance company reduce premium rates?
Correct Answer: D. An insured over age 55 who has successfully completed an approved safe driving course.
Question 17: Which of the following situations require NO license (which of the following is an exemption from licensing)?
Correct Answer: D. Actuaries.
Question 18: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to obtain an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. 21 years of age.
Question 19: When an Insurance Producer collects premium monies, to whom is the producer responsible?
Correct Answer: D. To the insurance company.
Question 20: What must an insurance company do to have a Temporary Insurance Producer license qualified training program?
Correct Answer: B. Have at least 50% of its Temporary Insurance Producers pass the examination and obtain Insurance Producer licenses prior to the expiration of their Temporary Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 21: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to be a professional?
Correct Answer: A. High income.
Question 1: This is question 1
Correct Answer: A. Option 1
Question 2: This is question 2
Correct Answer: B. Option 2
Question 3: This is question 3
Correct Answer: C. Option 3
Question 1: Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
Correct Answer: D. As their earnings increase through the years, people tend to increase their spending rather than saving.
Question 2: In how many states is continuing education a requirement for maintaining an insurance license?
Correct Answer: D. All 50 states.
Question 3: As a field underwriter, what information is a life insurance producer NOT responsible for gathering about a prospect?
Correct Answer: B. Ethnic background.
Question 4: About what percentage of all families with children are one-parent families headed by women?
Correct Answer: D. 25%
Question 5: What is the additional amount of income a family receives for a year or so after an income earner’s death called?
Correct Answer: A. Adjustment period income.
Question 6: A plan to provide for a family’s financial needs if an income earner should die is guaranteed to be completed immediately at the income earner’s death if the funds are put into which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Life insurance.
Question 7: For which of the following reasons should a person NOT purchase an annuity?
Correct Answer: B. To provide funds for survivors of an insured who has died prematurely.
Question 8: What do public pensions include?
Correct Answer: A. Veteran’s benefits
Question 9: Marie, a public grade school teacher, wants to use a tax-sheltered annuity to provide money for her retirement. Which of the following statements pertaining to her annuity is FALSE?
Correct Answer: D. The contributions she will make to her tax-sheltered annuity will come from her after-tax earnings.
Question 10: What is the key to conducting a successful presentation interview?
Correct Answer: D. Memorizing and practicing what you are going to say and do during the interview.
Question 11: Bob is a long-time friend who was just promoted in an engineering firm. He is overweight and takes blood pressure medication, but his wife told you the doctor feels his blood pressure will return to normal after he loses weight. Which of the following should you do when considering Bob as a prospect?
Correct Answer: C. Call as soon as possible to set up an appointment with Bob and his wife to discuss their life insurance.
Question 12: What is the purpose of the approach?
Correct Answer: B. To acquire the prospect’s agreement to an interview.
Question 13: The prospect says, “What’s this about, insurance?” This question is which type of common objection?
Correct Answer: B. What’s the Idea?
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT something a producer should remember to do before beginning a visual presentation?
Correct Answer: C. Make sure the visual is turned so the producer – not the client – can read it.
Question 15: Which of the following is a feature to a life insurance policy, as opposed to a benefit?
Correct Answer: A. The policy has a level premium structure.
Question 16: Which of the following is NOT a major item of information requested on the life insurance application?
Correct Answer: B. Political affiliation
Question 17: In most jurisdictions, a life insurance policy may be backdated up to how many months?
Correct Answer: D. 6 months
Question 18: When may a producer give an applicant either a conditional receipt or a binding receipt (as the case requires)?
Correct Answer: C. If the first premium is paid at the time of the application.
Question 19: Which of the following about a universal life policy is NOT true?
Correct Answer: B. Policy may not allow partial withdrawals.
Question 20: A client desires an annuity in which the values fluctuate according to the investment performance of the underlying investment portfolio. What is this type of annuity called?
Correct Answer: A. A variable annuity.
Question 21: What are residual disability benefits related to?
Correct Answer: B. The insured’s earnings lost due to disability.
Question 22: Which of the following usually goes into effect automatically if the policyowner fails to exercise any other nonforfeiture option?
Correct Answer: B. Extended term option.
Question 23: A beneficiary of a life insurance policy is receiving an income that is comprised of both the policy principal and interest earnings, to be paid monthly for 15 years. Which settlement option has been used in this situation?
Correct Answer: B. Fixed period option.
Question 24: In the final analysis, who is responsible for a producer’s business management activities?
Correct Answer: D. The producer.
Question 25: How often should a producer plan to review a client’s insurance policies in light of his or her needs and future plans?
Correct Answer: B. At least once a year.
Question 1: An insured buy-sell agreement can do all of the following while the sole proprietor is still alive EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Provide immediate cash for the owner’s heirs.
Question 2: Current assets minus current liabilities equals:
Correct Answer: C. Working capital.
Question 3: In sole proprietorship cases, the decision maker the agent should seek out for an interview will be which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. The owner of the business.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of partnerships?
Correct Answer: C. Treated as a separate taxable entity.
Question 5: Which of the following is NOT a feature of S corporations?
Correct Answer: A. They may have more than one class of stock outstanding.
Question 6: Which of the following is the primary tax advantage of a Section 303 stock redemption?
Correct Answer: C. It allows a stock redemption to be treated as a capital transaction rather than as a dividend.
Question 7: Which of the following statements about the payment of insurance proceeds in a partnership cross-purchase plan is TRUE?
Correct Answer: D. The proceeds are received income tax-free by the beneficiary.
Question 8: In a group insurance plan, the initial period during which new employees are not entitled to coverage is called the:
Correct Answer: B. Probationary period.
Question 9: Which of the following is usually the most logical market for closely held stock?
Correct Answer: B. Other owners of the closely held stock.
Question 10: A limited liability company (LLC) is a hybrid entity that combines some of the characteristics of what other forms of business?
Correct Answer: C. Partnership and corporation.
Question 11: If an employer pays an employee a bonus to assist the employee in making split dollar premium payments, what is true in regard to the bonus?
Correct Answer: A. Deductible to the employer as a business expense if the employee’s total compensation is reasonable.
Question 12: Under the restricted access type of executive bonus plan, who generally owns the life insurance policy?
Correct Answer: A. A secular trust.
Question 13: What is a financial statement that shows what a company owns and what it owes on a particular day called?
Correct Answer: A. Balance sheet.
Question 14: A rabbi trust is a device that is used to what?
Correct Answer: B. Ensure that contributions to an employee’s deferred compensation are not accessible by management.
Question 15: All the following are typically characteristics of group plans EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Separate policies for each member of the group.
Question 16: Which of the following is a fixed asset?
Correct Answer: B. Land.
Question 17: Nonqualified plans, such as deferred compensation plans, are subject to which of the following ERISA requirements?
Correct Answer: D. Reporting and disclosure.
Question 18: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of sole proprietorships?
Correct Answer: C. Earnings are taxed twice.
Question 19: Which of the following is NOT typically an advantage of a limited liability company (LLC)?
Correct Answer: B. Inexpensive to form.
Question 20: The major difference between an S corporation and a C corporation is what?
Correct Answer: A. How company earnings are taxed.
Question 21: The major purpose of a split dollar plan is to what?
Correct Answer: A. Provide additional life insurance to a valued employee.
Question 22: Under the Affordable Care Act (ACA), children or dependents can be covered under an insured’s group health insurance policy until they reach what age?
Correct Answer: D. 26
Question 23: The longer the waiting period in a group disability policy, the_______ the premiums?
Correct Answer: B. Lower.
Question 24: Generally speaking, which statement applies to premiums paid for a policy used to fund a buy-sell agreement in a sole proprietorship?
Correct Answer: A. Cannot be deducted as a business expense.
Question 25: Which of the following applies to the death of a majority stockholder in a business?
Correct Answer: C. Can be just as threatening to the business as the death of a sole proprietor or partner is to his or her business.
Question 1: Where does Medicare Part B pay for a physician’s services?
Correct Answer: D. At the doctor’s office, in a hospital, or in the patient’s home.
Question 2: The Medigap “open enrollment” or “guaranteed issue” period for obtaining Medigap insurance lasts for how many months after an individual is both age 65 or older and has enrolled in Medicare part B?
Correct Answer: A. 6 months.
Question 3: Which of the following statements is true regarding the sale of duplicate Medigap coverage?
Correct Answer: C. It is prohibited.
Question 4: What must the patient first satisfy before Medicare Part B will pay for covered charges?
Correct Answer: B. The part B annual deductible.
Question 5: Which of the following may be covered under either Medicare Part A or Part B?
Correct Answer: D. Home health care.
Question 6: Where may Medigap policies be purchased?
Correct Answer: A. Private health insurers and health care organizations.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT eligible for Medicare?
Correct Answer: C. Anyone age 64 or younger not disabled and not with ESRD.
Question 8: Which of the following inpatient hospital services is NOT covered by Medicare Part A?
Correct Answer: A. Private duty nurses.
Question 9: Which of the following types of care is covered by Medicare Part A?
Correct Answer: C. Skilled nursing facility care.
Question 10: What is a general requirement to be eligible for Medicaid?
Correct Answer: D. A person must have an income that is low enough to qualify for public assistance.
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT generally covered by Medicare Part B?
Correct Answer: B. Inpatient hospital care.
Question 12: When will Medicare sometimes cover care provided by non-certified health providers?
Correct Answer: D. If the beneficiary requires urgently-needed medically-necessary emergency care in a foreign country.
Question 13: For how many days of inpatient hospital care will Medicare Part A pay at least part of the cost if a patient has not yet used any lifetime reserve days?
Correct Answer: C. 150 days
Question 14: Medicare Part B will generally pay for which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Medically-necessary house calls.
Question 15: Medicare Part B is financed in part by which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Enrollee monthly premiums.
Question 16: The patient must pay the full cost of SNF, (skilled nursing facility), care after how many days of such care?
Correct Answer: B. 100
Question 17: What is Medicare Part A generally financed by?
Correct Answer: C. A payroll tax.
Question 18: Which of the following is NOT included in the core benefits of Medigap Plan A?
Correct Answer: C. Part A deductible.
Question 19: What is the number of days of skilled nursing facility (SNF) care for which Medicare Part A will pay the full cost?
Correct Answer: B. 20 days
Question 20: Who is considered the “primary payer” for the covered health care costs of an individual over age 65 who continues to maintain his employer-sponsored group health coverage?
Correct Answer: C. The group health insurer.
Question 21: What does the “respite care” benefit under the hospice care provision in Medicare Part A cover?
Correct Answer: A. Temporary care in a hospice for a terminally ill patient who is normally cared for at home.
Question 22: Which of the following Medicare programs usually requires enrollees to pay a monthly premium?
Correct Answer: B. Medicare Part B.
Question 23: If both spouses are covered by Medicare, how many Medicare consumer cards do they need?
Correct Answer: C. 2
Question 24: What is the coinsurance percentage that a beneficiary generally must pay under Medicare Part B?
Correct Answer: C. 20%
Question 25: Which of the following basic types of health care does Medicare Part A NOT pay for?
Correct Answer: A. Surgeons’ fees.
Question 1: A person who wants to contest a decision made by a lower federal court must first appeal to which court?
Correct Answer: B. Circuit court.
Question 2: Which one of the following answer choices lists the hierarchy of a typical state court system?
Correct Answer: D. Highest appellate court, intermediate appellate court, court of original jurisdiction.
Question 3: Miguel suffers a loss because of Ying’s actions. However, because Miguel fails to take proper care following this incident to protect himself from further damage, Ying is NOT held liable for any additional damage. This ruling is based on the fact that Miguel is responsible for which one of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Avoidable consequences.
Question 4: What type of legal relationship arises when one-person transfers possession of personal property to another person, with the agreement that the property will be returned to the first party?
Correct Answer: A. Bailment.
Question 5: Name the federal statute that exempts the insurance industry from the Sherman Anti-Trust Act and makes insurance subject to state regulation?
Correct Answer: D. McCarran-Ferguson Act.
Question 6: Which one of the following is NOT one of the elements required to establish a charge of negligence?
Correct Answer: C. Deliberate attempt to cause harm.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid contract?
Correct Answer: D. The contract must be in writing.
Question 8: Daryl is held responsible for damages resulting from the negligent operation of an auto he owns by a member of his family. Which of the following examples are correct?
Correct Answer: A. The family purpose doctrine.
Question 9: What are the names of the two parties to an agency relationship?
Correct Answer: D. Agent and principal.
Question 10: Under a no-fault law, an accident victim’s damages are paid for by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. The victim’s own insurance company.
Question 11: As a condition of issuing a commercial property policy, an insurance company and a business owner agree that a security guard will always be on duty while the business is closed. The parties further agree that this condition will be met throughout the term of the policy and will be included in the written policy. This agreement is an example of which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. A promissory warranty.
Question 12: A legal agreement between two competent parties that promises a certain performance in exchange for a certain consideration is which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. A contract.
Question 13: Which of the following statements describes a contract of indemnity?
Correct Answer: B. After a loss, the insured will be restored to the approximate financial condition he or she was in before the loss.
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of fraud?
Correct Answer: B. The lie involves withholding, rather than misstating, a material fact.
Question 15: What the primary difference between fraud and misrepresentation?
Correct Answer: B. Fraud is always intentional; misrepresentation may be either unintentional or intentional.
Question 16: A claim handler tells an insured that a claim will be paid. When the insurance company later tries to deny this claim, it is prevented from doing so because of the claim handler’s statement. This is an example of which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Estoppel.
Question 17: When Sam Files a claim for a vandalism loss to his business, he fails to mention that the store’s security guard had been asleep at the time of loss. Sam’s claim could be invalid based on which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Concealment.
Question 18: A first party bad faith lawsuit is filed by which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. The insured against his or her insurer for bad faith handling of a first party claim.
Question 19: A third-party bad faith lawsuit is filed by which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. The insured against her insurer for bad faith handling in the defense or settlement of a third-party claim.
Question 20: Which one of the following is NOT included in the category of special damages?
Correct Answer: D. Pain and suffering.
Question 21: A defendant files a motion to prevent a case from going to trail based on her belief that there is no legal remedy provided for the complaint. This type of motion is called which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. A motion for summary judgment.
Question 22: A statute that provides that certain types of suits must be brought within a specified time of the occurrence to be valid under the law is which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. A statute of limitations.
Question 23: Which of the following lists all the criteria required for evidence to be admissible in court?
Correct Answer: B. Material, relevant, competent.
Question 24: An attorney presents a diagram of an auto accident scene as evidence. This is an example of what type of evidence.
Correct Answer: A. Physical/demonstrative.
Question 25: In an appeal, lawyers for both parties file written statements that present legal arguments on the issue on appeal. These statements are called which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Briefs.
Question 1: Which of the following is TRUE about medical expense reimbursement from a flexible spending account?
Correct Answer: C. They cannot be claimed an income tax deduction on the employee’s tax returns.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT subject to nondiscrimination rules?
Correct Answer: D. Group health plans underwritten by an insurance company.
Question 3: According to law, the amount of medical expenses that may be paid on a before-tax basis through a flexible spending account is which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Unlimited.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a true statement with regard to HMOs?
Correct Answer: B. It’s always wise to replace an existing traditional health plan with an HMO.
Question 5: Which of the following is TRUE about the corridor deductible in a group health plan?
Correct Answer: D. It is paid after basic medical expense coverage is exhausted and before supplemental major medical coverage begins.
Question 6: Which of the following types of group coverage generally preclude individual selection?
Correct Answer: B. Group life, health, and disability.
Question 7: Supplemental major medical coverage in a group health plan is designed to do which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Augment basic medical expenses for coverage that has run out.
Question 8: Which of the following is NOT a benefit of a Section 125 plan?
Correct Answer: B. An increase in Social Security benefits for all employees.
Question 9: Which of the following describes the main difference between an HMO and a PPO?
Correct Answer: B. How the fees are paid.
Question 10: Second surgical opinions, pre-admission testing and home or hospice health care are examples of which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Cost containment benefits.
Question 11: Which of the following groups would be eligible to take a tax deduction premiums paid to provide group life or health coverage on the groups’ members?
Correct Answer: A. Major shareholder-employees of C corporations.
Question 12: Which of the following do group life plans offer?
Correct Answer: B. Spouse and dependent coverage that is less than that of the plan participant.
Question 13: Who among the following would NOT be eligible for COBRA coverage?
Correct Answer: B. Naomi, who is entering the workforce for the first time at age 35.
Question 14: Which of the following is TRUE about group term life premiums for groups of 50 or more?
Correct Answer: B. They are recalculated annually.
Question 15: When can an insurance company change the premiums for a group long-term care policy that is issued on a guaranteed renewable basis?
Correct Answer: B. Only when the change applies to all insureds of the same class.
Question 16: COBRA extended coverage requirements applies to which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Group health and dental plans.
Question 17: Which of the following is TRUE about group long-term care policies?
Correct Answer: D. They are usually available at younger ages than individual policies.
Question 18: What does a benefit trigger in a group long-term care policy refer to?
Correct Answer: B. The status of the insured’s condition that will cause benefits to begin under the policy.
Question 19: Which of the following is TRUE about the government program Medicaid?
Correct Answer: C. It pays for long-term care in nursing homes, but only if the individual meets certain income and asset standards.
Question 20: In group plans, the cost of benefits exceeding $50,000 is taxable income to the plan participant for which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. For group term life coverage only.
Question 21: Salary continuation plans generally require all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. The employee must be disabled for a specific period of time for benefits to begin.
Question 22: In a group long-term care policy, what do the nonforfeiture values refer to?
Correct Answer: D. The return of premium benefit or reduced paid-up benefit.
Question 23: Which of the following require 100% participation by all eligible persons?
Correct Answer: D. Noncontributory group plans.
Question 24: Which of the following is NOT an advantage offered by Section 125 plans?
Correct Answer: B. A tax deduction for medical expenses paid out-of-pocket.
Question 25: Which of the following federal laws specifically deals with the status of pregnancy under group health insurance coverages?
Correct Answer: A. The Civil Rights Act.
Question 1: During the payout period, how are the annuitant’s payments from the company taxed?
Correct Answer: B. As income on the part of the payment that is not a return of the annuitant’s cost.
Question 2: Daniel and Karen are the annuitants of a joint-and-survivor annuity. What happens when either Daniel or Karen dies?
Correct Answer: D. The surviving annuitant will continue to receive payments for life.
Question 3: For a straight life annuity in the payout phase with no survivor benefit, how much is included in the owner-annuitant’s gross estate at death?
Correct Answer: A. Zero.
Question 4: Which of the following statements about annuities is true?
Correct Answer: A. Earnings within an annuity have a tax advantage over earnings within a bank CD.
Question 5: What is an annuity purchased with a single premium to begin providing income one payment interval in the future called?
Correct Answer: A. Immediate annuity.
Question 6: For a joint-and-survivor annuity for two unmarried people purchased entirely with the funds of the survivor, how much is included in the gross estate of the first to die?
Correct Answer: A. Zero.
Question 7: To compute the annuity exclusion ratio for income tax purposes, divide the investment in the contract by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. The expected return.
Question 8: Which of the following would an annuity NOT offer possible tax advantages to?
Correct Answer: D. An investor who wanted to shelter her commission earnings from income tax.
Question 9: Which of the following is true regarding premiums paid for a personal annuity contract?
Correct Answer: A. They are nondeductible.
Question 10: Which of the following instances would the 10% penalty tax on premature withdrawals apply to a contract purchased within the last 10 years?
Correct Answer: D. A withdrawal is made so that the contract owner, healthy and age 30, can put a down payment on a home.
Question 11: The rate of earnings on a variable annuity is which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Tied to the performance of securities in the insurer’s separate account.
Question 12: An individual who wants the potential for hedging against inflation for money used to purchase an annuity should choose which type of annuity?
Correct Answer: B. A variable annuity.
Question 13: Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of variable annuities?
Correct Answer: A. Guaranteed interest rate.
Question 14: Variable annuities are insurance products and are regulated by the state insurance departments. They are also subject to regulation as which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Securities.
Question 15: The nonrecurring sales charge that occurs in the first year of some deferred annuities is called what?
Correct Answer: C. A front-end load.
Question 16: The “flip side” of an annuity is sometimes called what?
Correct Answer: A. Life insurance.
Question 17: In most cases, the annuitant’s cost in the annuity contract is which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. It is not taxed.
Question 18: Which of the following is a purpose of the annuity?
Correct Answer: C. The distribution of a lifetime income.
Question 19: Which of the following enjoys tax deferral of the earnings on annuity cash values?
Correct Answer: B. Individuals.
Question 20: Which of the following payout options guarantees that the annuitant will have an income regardless of how long he lives?
Correct Answer: A. Life annuity payments.
Question 21: Which of the following is least popular today?
Correct Answer: B. Level-premium retirement annuity.
Question 22: Are Social Security retirement benefits ever taxed?
Correct Answer: C. They are partially taxed for recipients over certain levels of income.
Question 23: The type of annuity that guarantees a minimum rate of return is which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. The fixed annuity.
Question 24: Why are individuals who have received early retirement incentive packages often good annuity prospects?
Correct Answer: C. They need to plan ahead.
Question 25: Which of the following is true?
Correct Answer: C. Annuities do not go through probate when the owner dies.
Question 1: In the mind of the client, which of the following is NOT essential to the decision to purchase a life insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. The agent must disclose his or her commission.
Question 2: Which of the following do consumers consider to be the most important factor in their relationships with a financial adviser?
Correct Answer: B. The ability to trust the adviser and know that he or she is ethical.
Question 3: When might a life insurance agent be justified in taking an unethical action?
Correct Answer: D. Under no circumstances.
Question 4: Long-term success in the life insurance business depends most on which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Maintaining high standards of ethical behavior.
Question 5: What is the use of misrepresentation to replace policies issued by an insurer other than the one an agent represents called?
Correct Answer: A. Twisting.
Question 6: Which of the following is NOT an argument against commission disclosure?
Correct Answer: D. Consumers keep asking for commission disclosure.
Question 7: Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of using standardized disclosure materials?
Correct Answer: C. It increases the agent’s potential liability for errors and omissions.
Question 8: Which of the following is true if an agent makes a misrepresentation unintentionally?
Correct Answer: C. The agent has committed an illegal act that may be subject to severe penalties.
Question 9: In policy illustrations, how would the term “current experience” be defined?
Correct Answer: C. Differently by different companies.
Question 10: What does the phrase “The Illustration Is The Policy” mean?
Correct Answer: B. Consumers tend to rely on non-guaranteed values shown in a policy illustration as if they were guaranteed.
Question 11: Looking the other way when you see someone in your agency doing something illegal is considered to be which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Unethical, and possibly illegal.
Question 12: The NAIC Life Insurance Illustrations Model Regulation requires policy illustrations to be in what form?
Correct Answer: D. All the above.
Question 13: Which of the following statements concerning policy illustrations is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. Illustration actuary must submit annual certifications only to the state insurance commissioner.
Question 14: Of the following parties, which one holds a stake in the continuing success of the life insurance industry?
Correct Answer: D. Policyowners, beneficiaries, stockholders of stock companies, agents, general agents and managers, company officers and employees regulators, trade associations, and the general public.
Question 15: Which of the following applies to “caveat emptor”, the principle of commerce that states “let the buyer beware"?
Correct Answer: A. It should be replaced in life insurance sales with “cognosceat emptor” – let the buyer know.
Question 16: Basing the sale of a life insurance policy on the values shown in a policy illustration is defined as what?
Correct Answer: B. Ledger selling.
Question 17: Of the following categories of factors that affect life insurance policy performance, over which do companies have the most control?
Correct Answer: A. Expenses.
Question 18: Which of the following is NOT consistent with a needs-based sales approach?
Correct Answer: D. Quickly sizing up new prospects in terms of how much first-year premium they may be persuaded to pay for life insurance.
Question 19: Agents who are not licensed attorneys are engaging in the unauthorized practice of law if they do which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Apply general legal concepts to a client’s specific situation.
Question 20: What is the entity on whose behalf an agent acts known as?
Correct Answer: D. Principal.
Question 21: Who derives the most immediate economic benefit from a life insurance sale?
Correct Answer: C. The agent, because he or she earns a commission.
Question 22: Which statement is correct?
Correct Answer: A. Ignorance of the law is no excuse for violating the law.
Question 23: Agent John sells a policy without telling the client that the plan is life insurance. What is this considered?
Correct Answer: C. Both illegal and unethical.
Question 24: How should life insurance sales representatives refer to themselves?
Correct Answer: C. As agents.
Question 25: Which of the following is true with regard to predictions of future life insurance policy performance?
Correct Answer: A. It tends to be inaccurate because even if investment, expense, and mortality experience could be known, actual performance would vary because of the human factor.
Question 1: John plans to invest a lump sum of $10,000 at 5% for 10 years. To find out how much money he will have at the end of this period, John would use which of the following financial calculation techniques?
Correct Answer: A. Compounding.
Question 2: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding lump-sum distributions from employer qualified plans?
Correct Answer: B. Current tax consequences can be avoided if the entire amount is transferred directly to a rollover IRA.
Question 3: Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the taxation of Social Security benefits?
Correct Answer: C. A portion of Social Security benefits is taxable if a recipient’s provisional income exceeds a certain amount.
Question 4: The current yield in a bond is?
Correct Answer: C. the annual interest paid divided by the current price of the bond.
Question 5: To find a client’s net worth, what would the financial planner look at?
Correct Answer: B. A balance sheet.
Question 6: Which of the following statements about qualified defined benefit retirement plans is TRUE?
Correct Answer: B. The amount of a participant’s retirement benefit is determined by a definite formula.
Question 7: Wilma is earning 10% on a corporate bond. She is in a 28% tax bracket. What is her after-tax yield?
Correct Answer: D. 7.2%
Question 8: Intestacy refers to
Correct Answer: B. the state of dying without having made a valid will.
Question 9: The implementation phase of the financial planning process might include all the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C. setting realistic financial objectives.
Question 10: The final step in the financial planning process is
Correct Answer: A. updating and monitoring.
Question 11: Which of these statements about traditional IRAs is true?
Correct Answer: A. Contributions may be tax deductible.
Question 12: For individuals, interest is tax deductible on which of the following types of debt?
Correct Answer: D. Mortgage on the primary residence.
Question 13: The recommended amount for a personal emergency fund is
Correct Answer: B. 3 to 12 months’ living expenses.
Question 14: What is term life insurance characterized by?
Correct Answer: C. Coverage without cash value.
Question 15: The type of qualified retirement plan that is available only to employees of 501(c)(3) organizations and public school systems is
Correct Answer: A. a tax sheltered annuity (TSA).
Question 16: The provision in a medical expense policy that requires the insured to share in a percentage of incurred expenses is called
Correct Answer: C. Coinsurance.
Question 17: At full retirement age, a worker’s Social Security benefit is what percentage of his primary insurance amount (PIA)?
Correct Answer: D. 100%
Question 18: Which of the follow is a process solution (as opposed to a product solution) in financial planning?
Correct Answer: D. Buy-sell agreement.
Question 19: Finding the PV of a future sum, given specific rate of return and period of years, is called
Correct Answer: D. Discounting.
Question 20: Someone who invests in real estate or fine art runs the risk that the investment cannot be converted to cash quickly at current market value. What is this risk called?
Correct Answer: C. liquidity risk.
Question 21: Which of following is a key tax advantage of life insurance?
Correct Answer: A. Income tax exclusion of death benefits.
Question 22: All the following are plan qualification requirements for retirement plans EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C. employees must be required to make contributions to the plan.
Question 23: When can a single homeowner take the $250,000 exclusion of gain on the sale of a principal residence?
Correct Answer: D. No more than every two years.
Question 24: For persons born in 1960 or after, the retirement age under Social Security is
Correct Answer: B. 67
Question 25: All the following are generic estate planning EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C. purchasing tax shelters.
Question 1: Which of the following is the common factor in determining the suitability of a variable life, a variable universal life or a universal life policy for a given individual?
Correct Answer: C. The individual’s need for insurance.
Question 2: Which of the following is not regarded as a strategy for improving investment performance in a variable contract?
Correct Answer: D. Contributing 100 percent of the premium into the fixed interest subaccount.
Question 3: The client’s life expectancy on the annuity starting date is 20 years, his investment in the annuity contract is $25,000, and the monthly annuity payment is $265. Under the exclusion ratio, how much of each payment will be income tax-free?
Correct Answer: D. $104 until the investment in the contract is recovered.
Question 4: Policyowners A owns a conventional whole life policy, policyholder B owns a universal life policy, and policyholder C owns a variable life policy. All other factors being equal, who receives the most favorable tax treatment on the policy?
Correct Answer: D. All receive essentially equal tax treatment.
Question 5: Withdrawals from a deferred annuity before the annuitant’s age 59 ½ (other than for annuitization or a systematic withdrawal program) will not result in which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. A loss of earnings realized by the deferred annuity up to that moment.
Question 6: Which of the following is not an asset class that may be included in a variable contract’s asset allocation?
Correct Answer: D. Tax straddles.
Question 7: With respect to variable universal life insurance, which of the following best describes the difference between Options A and B?
Correct Answer: B. Option A is based on a decreasing term policy and emphasizes cash value growth, while Option B is based on a level term policy and emphasizes death benefit growth.
Question 8: Which of the following generally faces the greatest market risk?
Correct Answer: D. Aggressive stock account.
Question 9: Which of the following statements regarding annuities is not correct?
Correct Answer: C. They ideally are suited for meeting short-term financial needs.
Question 10: A universal life policy does not give the policyowner some degree of flexibility with which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. The underwriting standards.
Question 11: A client is receiving monthly benefit payments from a variable annuity contract that has a 4 percent AIR. In June, the separate account nets a return of 5 percent, and the July payment amount is $350. In July, which of the following must happen for the August payment amount to remain at $350?
Correct Answer: C. The separate account must net a return greater than 5 percent.
Question 12: Which of the following statements best describes the income tax treatment afforded annuities?
Correct Answer: B. Deferred annuities enjoy tax-deferred growth.
Question 13: What is the purpose of a variable contracts assumed interest rate (AIR)?
Correct Answer: C. To attempt to maintain stability by projecting the rate of return which, if realized, will maintain a level benefit.
Question 14: All other factors being equal, a short-term investment horizon generally suggests which investment option?
Correct Answer: D. A money market account.
Question 15: Which of the following is true regarding premiums for a variable life policy?
Correct Answer: A. It is usually fixed as to the premium amount.
Question 16: Variable life insurance and conventional whole life insurance do not share which of the following characteristic?
Correct Answer: B. A guaranteed cash value.
Question 17: During a variable annuity’s payout period, what would make the amount of each monthly payment vary?
Correct Answer: D. Changes in the annuity unit value.
Question 18: What is the most reliable source of unbiased information regarding a variable contract?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance sales representatives representations.
Question 19: Which of the following statements pertaining to universal variable life insurance is not correct?
Correct Answer: B. The insurance company assumes the investment risk.
Question 20: Which of the following statements is not correct about separate accounts?
Correct Answer: D. They are guaranteed by the insurer.
Question 21: Which of the following statements regarding modified endowment contracts (MECs) is correct?
Correct Answer: B. To avoid being classified as a MEC, a life insurance policy must satisfy the “7-pay test.”
Question 22: When determining the suitability of a variable contract for a particular client, what is the first step?
Correct Answer: A. Determine the client’s need for the insurance protection.
Question 23: A variable annuity has been annuitized and is now paying monthly benefits based on a 5 percent assumed interest rate (AIR). In the past month, the contract’s annuity unit has netted an increased 5 percent in value. What effect will this have on the monthly benefit?
Correct Answer: C. It will increase.
Question 24: Assume one of your clients is trying to determine how to allocate his premiums among the separate account options of his variable life policy. He is 64 years old with an average-to-low risk tolerance level, and his overriding objective is asset conservation. Which of the following would be the most appropriate recommendation for his premium allocation?
Correct Answer: B. 20 percent growth stock; 60 percent fixed interest; 20 percent bond.
Question 25: What does the term variable refer to?
Correct Answer: B. A life insurance or annuity contract’s investment performance.
Question 1: Which of the following make up the estate planning team?
Correct Answer: A. The life producer, the attorney, the accountant, and the trust officer.
Question 2: Which of the following would NOT be included in a decedent’s gross estate?
Correct Answer: B. Property placed in an irrevocable trust.
Question 3: How does a property interest owned by a tenant in common pass at death?
Correct Answer: D. It passes according to the deceased’s will.
Question 4: If an annuity ceases at the death of the annuitant, how much of it is included in the deceased’s gross estate?
Correct Answer: D. Nothing.
Question 5: What are assets included in the gross estate are generally valued at?
Correct Answer: C. Their fair market value.
Question 6: What must occur for a property transfer to be considered a valid gift?
Correct Answer: D. The property transfer is complete.
Question 7: Which of the following statements is TRUE about real estate owned by a decedent?
Correct Answer: A. Real estate owned by a decedent is subject to state death taxes in the state in which it is located.
Question 8: Property is generally valued either on the date of death or on the alternate valuation date, which is?
Correct Answer: B. Six months after the decedent's date of death.
Question 9: When is the estate tax return of a deceased generally due?
Correct Answer: C. Nine months after the date of death.
Question 10: What value is an existing paid-up life insurance policy as the subject of a gift?
Correct Answer: C. Replacement cost.
Question 11: Generally, which member of the estate planning team is most responsible for initiating the estate planning process and assimilating the date?
Correct Answer: C. The life producer.
Question 12: Who or what will do it for him if an estate owner fails to specify how his assets are to be disposed of at death?
Correct Answer: D. State intestacy laws.
Question 13: Always included in one's gross estate is Life Insurance if:
Correct Answer: D. The decedent insured possessed incidents of ownership in the policy.
Question 14: To avoid probate, which of the following is most likely?
Correct Answer: C. Life insurance proceeds paid to the designated beneficiary.
Question 15: What does escheat refer to?
Correct Answer: A. The state’s inheritance of property when there are no heirs.
Question 16: Which one of the following is true, with respect to estate planning, trusts are generally_________ than life insurance settlement options?
Correct Answer: C. More flexible.
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of having a will?
Correct Answer: C. Wills eliminate federal estate taxation on second generation transfers.
Question 18: The number of annual gift tax exclusions available to a donor is limited by what?
Correct Answer: B. The number of donees.
Question 19: Split-gifts are what?
Correct Answer: D. Those treated as having been made one-half by each spouse.
Question 20: James owned an annuity with a cash refund feature. The refund payable at his death was $100,000. He contributes $50,000 in premium payments, which represented 100% of the premiums paid. The amount included in James's estate is what?
Correct Answer: C. $100,000.
Question 21: Special use valuation under Section 2032A is used to:
Correct Answer: C. Value certain farms or closely-held business interests at their current use rather than their highest and best use.
Question 22: James has a general power of appointment over certain property which means he has the right to dispose of the property in favor of:
Correct Answer: A. Himself, his estate, his creditors, or his estate's creditors.
Question 23: What is the greatest advantage of an irrevocable trust?
Correct Answer: C. Its corpus should escape estate taxation in the grantor's estate.
Question 24: Margaret dies and leaves survivor benefits in her annuity to her husband, Louis. Those benefits could be purchased for $100,000, but Margaret had only paid $80,000 by the time she died. How much will be included in Margaret's gross estate as a result of the survivor benefits?
Correct Answer: A. $80,000.
Question 25: One's basis in property received as a gift is generally:
Correct Answer: A. The same as the donor's basis plus a gift tax adjustment.
Question 1: Which of the following statements regarding the senior market is FALSE?
Correct Answer: C. Their primary investment objective is accumulation.
Question 2: A client is setting up a trust and wants to make sure she is able to change the terms of the trust should the situation change. Which of the following types of trust would provide this option?
Correct Answer: A. Revocable trust.
Question 3: An individual is filing to begin receiving Social Security benefits and has decided to enroll in Medicare Part B. The individual is told that part of the premium will have to be paid to have to enroll in the program. The individual will be responsible of approximately what percentage of the premium?
Correct Answer: A. 25%
Question 4: A premature distribution from and IRA would be exempt from the premature distribution penalty under all of the following circumstance EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D. As a result of hardship.
Question 5: The administration of an estate s governed by state statues and probate courts. There are many steps involved in the process. What is the first step in the process?
Correct Answer: A. To appoint the personal representative.
Question 6: Jill reached the RMD applicable age in March of this year. By what date must she take her first distribution for her traditional IRA?
Correct Answer: C. April 1 of next year.
Question 7: Ted and Ariel, both are age 25, are looking to purchase life insurance. They are concerned about having the maximum available coverage but do not have a lot of money at the current time to pay in premiums. Which of the following types of life insurance policies would be most suitable for them to purchase at this time?
Correct Answer: B. Term life.
Question 8: An individual who wants to maintain a level standard of living after retirement should expect to cover what percentage of retirement income with personal savings and investments?
Correct Answer: C. 45%
Question 9: With respect to long-term care insurance plans, which of the following statement is FALSE?
Correct Answer: B. All plans must require prior hospitalization before benefits begin.
Question 10: Which of the following statements regarding retiring under Social Security is FALSE?
Correct Answer: D. In order to collect full Social Security retirement benefits, an individual must cease working.
Question 11: A customer is thinking about purchasing a corporate bond, and her investment objective is current income. The customer is concerned about taking a high degree of risk and had heard that some bonds issued by corporations are backed by collateral. Which of the following corporate bonds would be backed by collateral?
Correct Answer: B. Mortgage bond.
Question 12: Ten years ago, Merle invested $25,000 in a single-premium fixed annuity. Today, the value of the annuity account is $40,000. If this year, at age 52, Merle withdraws $10,000, how will that withdrawal be taxed?
Correct Answer: A. The $10,000 will be fully subject to ordinary income tax and premature distribution penalty of 10%.
Question 13: Joe, age 72, must take $5,000 as a required distribution from his IRA this year. What is the penalty if he takes $7,000 distribution instead?
Correct Answer: A. $0.
Question 14: All of the following are covered by Medicare Part A EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C. Surgeons’ fees.
Question 15: All of the following would bypass the probate process at an individual’s death EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D. Property passing to named heirs under the terms of the decedent’s will.
Question 16: Which of the following types of retirement plans does NOT require mandatory distributions?
Correct Answer: A. Roth IRA.
Question 17: Which of the following would be considered a fundamental and necessary tool for planning any and all dispositions?
Correct Answer: A. Will.
Question 18: All of the following statements regarding Medicare are true EXCEPT
Correct Answer: D. Medicare Part D covers hospital expenses.
Question 19: Which of the following types of retirement plans can include a provision for the distribution of funds due to hardship?
Correct Answer: C. 401(k)s.
Question 20: A highly compensated employee is looking to defer receipt of some salary until retirement. An advantage of this is that the employee will
Correct Answer: C. Be taxed on the benefits when the benefits are paid out.
Question 21: An employer is looking to set up a retirement plan for employees that will tell them the exact amount of money they will be receiving each month when they retire. What type of retirement plan is the employer looking to establish?
Correct Answer: B. Defined benefit.
Question 22: A customer wants to start an investment portfolio and is looking for an investment that will provide diversification. Which of the following investment products would a representative recommend to the client?
Correct Answer: B. Mutual funds.
Question 23: Which of the following defines the renewability provision for long-term care policies?
Correct Answer: D. The insurer must renew the policy each year but may raise premiums for entire classes of insureds.
Question 24: A small business is looking to establish a retirement plan for its employees. They have found that there is a type of retirement plan the business can establish that is suited for companies with 100 or fewer employees. What type of retirement plan have they found?
Correct Answer: B. SIMPLE
Question 25: Under which plan can an employer pick and choose which employees will participate?
Correct Answer: B. Deferred compensation plan.
Question 1: For a producer to offer Long Term Care Partnership insurance, the producer must complete how many hours of training on Long Term Care?
Correct Answer: A. 8 hours.
Question 2: When comparing older Americans to the general population, older Americans’ medicinal spending will be:
Correct Answer: B. Double the general population.
Question 3: Informal caregivers provide all the following except:
Correct Answer: C. Paid Services
Question 4: For those individuals living alone, adult day care provides:
Correct Answer: D. All the above
Question 5: Hospice Care is provided by all the following except:
Correct Answer: D. Spouse
Question 6: Respite care services would exclude:
Correct Answer: C. Cleaning of a rental property.
Question 7: At an adult day care center all the following may be provided except:
Correct Answer: B. Auto repair
Question 8: The fist step in the process of case management is:
Correct Answer: A. Evaluation of the patient
Question 9: Which of the following would not be an example of a formal caregiver?
Correct Answer: A. Spousal care
Question 10: In most communities, shared living arrangements are licensed by:
Correct Answer: B. Health or Social Service Agency
Question 11: Shared living arrangements would not include:
Correct Answer: C. Nursing home
Question 12: Assisted living arrangement would include which of the following services?
Correct Answer: D. All the above
Question 13: Skilled care would include:
Correct Answer: D. All the above
Question 14: How many hours of Long Term Care training must a producer complete to continue to sell Long Term Care Insurance when they renew their license?
Correct Answer: C. 4 Hours
Question 15: Long Term Care Partnership Insurance was established under:
Correct Answer: B. Deficit Reduction Act of 2005
Question 16: Under the Spousal Impoverishment Act, the spouse can keep the
Correct Answer: C. House valued at $500,000
Question 17: The majority of residents in nursing homes are:
Correct Answer: A. Over age 65
Question 18: The cost of assisted living facilities is generally:
Correct Answer: B. Less than a nursing home
Question 19: The Consumer Guide must be delivered at the time of:
Correct Answer: C. Either event
Question 20: Insured will be able to exchange an annuity to a Long Term Care policy tax free starting:
Correct Answer: D. January 1, 2010
Question 21: The service providing a break for the informal caregivers is called:
Correct Answer: D. Respite care
Question 22: Tax qualified policies require what level of disability?
Correct Answer: C. Expected to last 90 days or more
Question 23: Which medical condition results in the longest average nursing home stay?
Correct Answer: B. Alzheimer’s
Question 24: Long Term Care Partnership Insurance requires which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. All the above
Question 25: Producers that sell a Long Term Care insurance policy to a person on Medicaid, can be fined how much?
Correct Answer: B. $10,000
Question 1: Who can apply for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. An insurance company for an individual who is in the process of fulfilling the pre-license education requirements.
Question 2: Which of the following is an unfair method of competition for which an insurance producer can be ordered to cease and desist and fined NOT more than a $5,000?
Correct Answer: A. Misrepresenting the financial status of an insurance company.
Question 3: Mr. Auddie Murphy is a licensed insurance producer. Mr. Murphy’s reserve unit is being called up for an extended period of active duty. Which of the following requirements does NOT apply to Mr. Murphy’s situation?
Correct Answer: D. He cannot appoint another qualified producer to service his customers while he is in the military.
Question 4: Which of the following acts does NOT require an insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: C. Doing strictly clerical work in an insurance office for an hourly wage.
Question 5: No examination, pre-license education, continuing education or bond requirement applies to which type of license?
Correct Answer: C. Limited Lines Producer license.
Question 6: Insurance commissions CANNOT be paid to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. A unlicensed office assistant for clerical work.
Question 7: Which of the following describes “controlled business”?
Correct Answer: A. Selling insurance to yourself, your own spouse, your own business, or your employer’s business.
Question 8: Which of the following situations require NO examination to obtain an insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: C. Someone who is applying to reinstate a lapsed insurance producer license within 12 months of its lapse.
Question 9: An insurance customer is planning on cash surrendering a currently owned Whole Life insurance policy while at the same time buying a new Term Life insurance policy. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. This would be exempt from the Life Insurance Replacement Regulation.
Question 10: Mr. Ryan James requires a special, high face amount life insurance policy. After diligently searching for an insurance company to write the policy, his insurance producer has been able to find only one insurance company that will issue the policy. The insurance company is NOT admitted in the state were the sale is to occur. Which of the following requirements apply?
Correct Answer: A. The policy must be sold through a Surplus Lines Producer.
Question 11: Which of the following does NOT require an insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: D. An insurance producer’s salaried office assistant that assists the producer only with administrative duties.
Question 12: Which would it be if an insurance producer were to give an insurance customer back a 10% discount on the premium out of the insurance producer’s commissions?
Correct Answer: B. Rebating.
Question 13: The Insurance Director DOES NOT have which of the following powers?
Correct Answer: C. Sentence insurance produces to prison or jail terms.
Question 14: Which of the following describes a foreign insurance company?
Correct Answer: D. An insurance company operating in a state other than the state were it obtained its original charter.
Question 15: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for selling insurance without the appropriate insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: A. A Class B Misdemeanor for acting as an insurance producer without an license.
Question 16: Which of the following would it be if an insurance producer were to give an inexpensive calendar to everyone who bought a policy the previous year?
Correct Answer: A. Advertising and promotion.
Question 17: The ABC Life Insurance Company offers a life insurance policy where the insured can receive part of the benefits while still alive for long-term nursing care expenses. Which of the following statements does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: D. To sell policies with this provision, the insurance producer must also have a securities representative license.
Question 18: Which of the following situations requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: A. Allowing more than 10% of all of an insurance producer’s accounts receivable to go over 90 days.
Question 19: The Life Insurance Solicitation Regulation requires which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Each person buying a life insurance policy be furnished a “Buyer’s Guide” in a prescribed format.
Question 20: For which of the following can a person be charged with a Class B Misdemeanor?
Correct Answer: D. Rebating.
Question 1: An advertisement of an accident/health insurance policy can state which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. The true identity of the insurance company.
Question 2: Which of the following situations requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: A. Allowing more than 10% of all of an insurance producer’s accounts receivable to go over 90 days.
Question 3: The Life Insurance Solicitation Regulation requires which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Each person buying a life insurance policy be furnished a “Buyer’s Guide” in a prescribed format.
Question 4: Which of the following is a requirement when selling Medicare Supplement Insurance plans?
Correct Answer: D. All of the above.
Question 5: Which of the following acts does NOT require an insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: C. Doing strictly clerical work in an insurance office for an hourly wage.
Question 6: Which of the following are requirements of all group accident and health insurance policies?
Correct Answer: D. All of the above.
Question 7: Which of the following would it be if an insurance producer were to give an inexpensive calendar to everyone who bought a policy the previous year?
Correct Answer: A. Advertising and promotion.
Question 8: Which of the following is an unfair method of competition for which an insurance producer can be ordered to cease and desist and fined NOT more than a $5,000?
Correct Answer: A. Misrepresenting the financial status of an insurance company.
Question 9: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for selling insurance without the appropriate insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: A. A Class B Misdemeanor for acting as an insurance producer without an license.
Question 10: Mr. Auddie Murphy is a licensed insurance producer. Mr. Murphy’s reserve unit is being called up for an extended period of active duty. Which of the following requirements does NOT apply to Mr. Murphy’s situation?
Correct Answer: D. He CANNOT appoint another qualified producer to service his customers while he is in the military.
Question 11: Mr. Ryan James requires a special, high face amount life insurance policy. After diligently searching for an insurance company to write the policy, his insurance producer has been able to find only one insurance company that will issue the policy. The insurance company is NOT admitted in the state were the sale is to occur. Which of the following requirements apply?
Correct Answer: A. The policy must be sold through a Surplus Lines Producer.
Question 12: The ABC Life Insurance Company offers a life insurance policy where the insured can receive part of the benefits while still alive for long-term nursing care expenses. Which of the following statements does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: D. To sell policies with this provision, the insurance producer must also have a securities representative license.
Question 13: An insurance customer is planning on cash surrendering a currently owned Whole Life insurance policy while at the same time buying a new Term Life insurance policy. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. This would be exempt from the Life Insurance Replacement Regulation.
Question 14: Insurance commissions CANNOT be paid to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. A unlicensed office assistant for clerical work.
Question 15: Which of the following situations require NO examination to obtain an insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: C. Someone who is applying to reinstate a lapsed insurance producer license within 12 months of its lapse.
Question 16: Which of the following describes a foreign insurance company?
Correct Answer: D. An insurance company operating in a state other than the state were it obtained its original charter.
Question 17: No examination, pre-license education, continuing education or bond requirement applies to which type of license?
Correct Answer: C. Limited Lines Producer license.
Question 18: Who can apply for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. An insurance company for an individual who is in the process of fulfilling the pre-license education requirements.
Question 19: Which of the following describes “controlled business”?
Correct Answer: A. Selling insurance to yourself, your own spouse, your own business, or your employer’s business.
Question 20: Which of the following rules do NOT apply to Health Maintenance Organizations (HMO’s)?
Correct Answer: D. An HMO plan can be terminated due to the covered member has incurred bad health.
Question 21: Which would it be if an insurance producer were to give an insurance customer back a 10% discount on the premium out of the insurance producer’s commissions?
Correct Answer: B. Rebating.
Question 22: Which of the following is NOT required of Long-Term Care Insurance plans?
Correct Answer: D. There are NO additional requirements to sell Long-Term Care Insurance plans other than having an accident/health insurance producer license.
Question 23: The Insurance Director does NOT have which of the following powers?
Correct Answer: C. Sentence insurance produces to prison or jail terms.
Question 24: Which of the following does NOT require an insurance producer license?
Correct Answer: D. An insurance producer’s salaried office assistant that assists the producer only with administrative duties.
Question 25: For which of the following can a person be charged with a Class B Misdemeanor?
Correct Answer: D. Rebating.
Question 1: Accidental Death and Dismemberment insurance will cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Loss of a hand.
Question 2: Which is a requirement that certain percentages of eligible members must be included in order to avoid adverse selection?
Correct Answer: A. Participation requirement.
Question 3: Which of the following requires that the applicant be warned that there may be a Consumer Investigative report?
Correct Answer: A. Fair Credit Reporting Act.
Question 4: Which of the following provisions helps an insurance company avoid individuals that change jobs frequently and, therefore, would be more claim-prone?
Correct Answer: A. Probationary period.
Question 5: What is the purpose of a waiting (elimination) period?
Correct Answer: D. To determine how long a person must be disabled before his disability is considered to be “permanent.”
Question 6: Which of the following organizations issue contracts which provide an individual with all of the specified health services that he/she needs as long as he/she goes to a doctor, clinic or hospital (service provider) which participates in the plan?
Correct Answer: D. Health Maintenance Organization (HMO).
Question 7: Which of the following is a required policy provision stating that a policy is reinstated forty-five days from the date of a reinstatement application form?
Correct Answer: B. Reinstatement provision.
Question 8: Hospital Expense coverage covers all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Doctor charges for a medical condition that did not require hospital treatment.
Question 9: Which of the following statements concerning dental coverage is true?
Correct Answer: D. Dental insurance is most often issued on a group basis.
Question 10: Which of the following provisions prohibits an insurance company from nonrenewing a health insurance policy but does allow the insurance company to change rates by broad class?
Correct Answer: C. Guaranteed Renewable policy provision.
Question 11: Which of the following is a limited time period during which an individual can apply for group insurance benefits without evidence of insurability?
Correct Answer: B. Enrollment period.
Question 12: Which of the following coverages will provide benefits to pay installment loan payments that come due while a person is off work disabled?
Correct Answer: B. Credit Disability coverage.
Question 13: Which of the following describes a program that may be obtained by a school to cover the cost of student injuries?
Correct Answer: A. Blanket Accident and Health coverage.
Question 14: Which of the following statements concerning an Accident and Health insurance policy Cancellation provision is true?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company can cancel by giving the insured thirty days notice.
Question 15: Assuming that the premium was paid with the application, when does a health insurance policy go into effect?
Correct Answer: A. Upon completion of the application.
Question 16: Which of the following is a federal law which establishes health insurance standards and assures the portability of health insurance for individuals that have been covered by group insurance?
Correct Answer: A. HIPAA
Question 17: Medicare Part B covers which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Medical expenses
Question 18: Which of the following is a required policy provision stating that NO changes are valid unless on a rider signed by the officer of the insurance company?
Correct Answer: A. Entire Policy--Changes provision.
Question 19: Which of the following Disability Income policies is most liberal?
Correct Answer: A. A policy that defines total disability on an insured’s own occupation basis.
Question 20: Which of the following provisions allows the insured ten days from the date of receiving the policy to read it over, return it and receive a premium refund?
Correct Answer: A. Ten Day Free Look provision.
Question 21: Which of the following describes Major Medical coverage?
Correct Answer: A. It covers usual, reasonable and customary eligible hospital and medical expenses.
Question 22: Which of the following is a required policy provision requiring that the insurance company send claim forms to the insured within fifteen days of Notice of Loss?
Correct Answer: C. Claim Forms provision.
Question 23: An insurance company can contest (refuse to pay) a health insurance claim under all of the following circumstances EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. An unintentional mistake on the application discovered five years after the date of the application.
Question 24: An Individual Disability Income policy requires all of the following provisions EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Change of Occupation provision.
Question 25: What is the purpose of policyholder participation (coinsurance)?
Correct Answer: A. Discourage unnecessary medical treatment.
Question 26: Which of the following statements best describes Medicaid?
Correct Answer: D. It is a federally funded, state administered program.
Question 27: Which of the following describes a time period during which coverage is extended so as to avoid unintentional policy lapse?
Correct Answer: D. Grace period.
Question 28: Which of the following statements most accurately describes the underwriting practice called experience rating?
Correct Answer: A. Premiums are based primarily on previous years' claims experiences.
Question 29: Which of the following reports would be used to determine if the applicant has any particular moral or character risks?
Correct Answer: A. Inspection report.
Question 30: Which of the following is a non-profit organization, organized under state laws for the purpose of providing hospital services?
Correct Answer: A. Blue Cross.
Question 31: Under which of the following circumstances would a Long-Term Care (LTC) policy pay benefits?
Correct Answer: B. The insured is in a long-term care facility because he/she cannot perform Activities of Daily Living (ADL's).
Question 32: Your insured has Major Medical coverage. Her policy has a $500 deductible. After satisfying her deductible, the policy pays 80% of eligible expenses. The policy has a $10,000 stop loss. If this insured were to have $50,000 in eligible expenses, what would be the insured’s maximum out of pocket?
Correct Answer: D. $2500.
Question 33: Which of the following statements concerning Hospital Expense coverage is true?
Correct Answer: D. It pays hospital expenses.
Question 34: Which of the following is a source of information used in evaluating a health insurance application?
Correct Answer: A. Age of the insured.
Question 35: Which is NOT a common Accident/Health insurance premium mode?
Correct Answer: C. Credit card payment.
Question 36: Which of the following policy provisions are optional?
Correct Answer: A. Change of Occupation provision.
Question 37: Assuming that the premium is NOT paid with the application, when does a health insurance policy take effect?
Correct Answer: D. Date that the policy is delivered.
Question 38: Under which of the following situations would a person qualify for Social Security Disability (OASDI) benefits?
Correct Answer: A. The individual has over 40 quarters Social Security coverage.
Question 39: Which of the following describes a condition where the insurance company has insured too many unhealthy individuals compared to the young, healthy insureds?
Correct Answer: C. Adverse selection.
Question 40: Which of the following documents would indicate to an underwriter that a benefit being applied for is justified in relation to the applicant's income?
Correct Answer: B. Credit report.
Question 41: Which of the following organizations serves as a clearing house for medical information collected on insurance applicants?
Correct Answer: D. Medical Information Bureau (MIB) report.
Question 42: Which of the following does NOT describe Major Medical coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Full coverage on cosmetic and dental surgery.
Question 43: Which of the following describes a private insurance company health insurance policy?
Correct Answer: B. It covers risk-type expenses
Question 44: Which of the following statements describes Disability Income coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Most policies specify a maximum benefit period as well as a benefit amount.
Question 45: Which of the following is a required policy provision requiring that the insurance company pay claims NO less often than monthly?
Correct Answer: D. Time of Payment of Claims provision.
Question 46: Medicare Part A covers which of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Physician charges.
Question 47: Which of the following coverages will cover loss of income due to loss of a finger caused by accidental means?
Correct Answer: B. Disability Income coverage.
Question 48: Which of the following is a statistical table used to calculate health insurance rates.
Correct Answer: B. Morbidity actuarial tables.
Question 49: Which of the following is a federal law intended to protect the applicant with regard to information collected about him/her?
Correct Answer: C. Fair Credit Reporting Act.
Question 50: What do you call a policy that combines Hospital Expense Coverage and Major Medical Coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Comprehensive Medical Expense Coverage.
Question 1: Which of the following statements concerning an Other Insurance With Other Companies provision is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. It provides that if the insured has any insurance with any other insurance company, coverage under any policy containing the Insurance With Other Companies provision does not apply.
Question 2: All of the following are covered under an Accidental Death and Dismemberment policy EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Loss of hearing.
Question 3: Which of the following statements concerning the Misstatement of Age provision is true?
Correct Answer: D. This provision applies to the entire duration that the policy is in effect and is not limited to the two year incontestability period.
Question 4: Which of the following statements concerning the Change of Beneficiary provision is true?
Correct Answer: C. It is a mandatory provision.
Question 5: All of the following statements concerning an Accident and Health policy Insuring clause are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. An accidental means insuring clause covers all of the insured’s injury expenses.
Question 6: All of the following qualify for Group Accident and Health insurance EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Less than ten employees of two or more employers.
Question 7: Mr. Smith’s Accident and Health policy contains an Intoxicants and Narcotics provision. Which of the following statements concerning the provision is true?
Correct Answer: D. It is an optional uniform policy provision.
Question 8: Which of the following would be classified as a service organization?
Correct Answer: C. Blue Cross/Blue Shield.
Question 9: Which of the following is NOT an example of a government health insurance program?
Correct Answer: C. A Health Maintenance Organization (HMO).
Question 10: Ms. Anna has a clause in her Disability Income policy which provides that after she has been totally disabled for more than 6 months her premiums will be waived. Which of the following statements concerning that provision is true?
Correct Answer: D. It is called the Waiver of Premium provision.
Question 11: Which of the following statements concerning an Unpaid Premium provision is true?
Correct Answer: B. It allows the insurance company to deduct unpaid premiums from claims.
Question 12: Which of the following statements concerning Group Accident and Health insurance is true?
Correct Answer: B. A certificate is issued to each covered member.
Question 13: Mary Jones has Dental Expense coverage. Her policy will pay 80% of all her dental expenses after she has satisfied a $100 annual deductible. Which of the following statements concerning her Dental Expense coverage is true?
Correct Answer: A. She has blanket Dental Expense coverage.
Question 14: Which of the following statements concerning an Accident and Health policy Cancellation provision is true?
Correct Answer: D. If included in a policy, it allows the insurance company to cancel the policy in the middle of the policy term by giving 30 days notice.
Question 15: Mr. Jones owns an Accident and Health policy. He is dissatisfied with a claim settlement that he has received for a hospital bill. He desires to sue the insurance company. Which of the following statements concerning the length of time within which he must bring his law suit is true?
Correct Answer: B. He cannot bring a lawsuit more than three years after proof of loss has been given.
Question 16: Which of the following statements concerning insurance organizations is true?
Correct Answer: B. Service organizations provide health services to their covered members for services provided by a service provider that is in the service organization network.
Question 17: Which of the following statements about Disability Income coverage is true?
Correct Answer: B. Total disability benefits are usually issued in a stated benefit amount.
Question 18: All of the following statements concerning the conversion of a Group Accident and Health policy are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. In order for HIPAA to apply and for an individual to be guaranteed the right to convert, a person must have been employed six months.
Question 19: Which of the following statements concerning a policy which excludes injuries sustained in aircraft is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. It usually provides that injuries sustained while flying as a crew member on a commercial airline will be covered.
Question 20: Which of the following statements concerning Medicare is true?
Correct Answer: D. It is intended to be a base of protection upon which it is expected that an individual will add private insurance coverage.
Question 21: Which of the following describes an impairment rider?
Correct Answer: C. It excludes only those conditions which are specifically named.
Question 22: The period at the beginning of a disability policy during which NO benefits are payable is called which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. A Waiting (Elimination) period.
Question 23: All of the following are sources of insurability information EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Facility of Payment clause.
Question 24: Your customer has Major Medical coverage which has a $1000 deductible, 80% coinsurance clause and $20,000 stop loss. Which applies?
Correct Answer: C. $5000 maximum out-of-pocket.
Question 25: Which of the following is usually NOT included in Major Medical coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Coverage for cosmetic and dental surgery.
Question 26: Which of the following statement regarding Major Medical coverage is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. The copayment and the deductible are the same thing.
Question 27: Which of the following statements concerning representations and warranties is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. It is much more difficult for an insurance company to contest a claim (refuse to pay a claim) due to a warranted statement than a representation.
Question 28: What do you call a policy that combines both Major Medical coverage and Hospital Expense coverage?
Correct Answer: A. Comprehensive Medical Expense coverage.
Question 29: Which of the following benefits are seldom excluded?
Correct Answer: C. Accidental injuries.
Question 30: The Grace Period provision states which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. If premiums are payable weekly, the Grace Period must be at least 7 days.
Question 31: Who would buy Long-Term Care (LTC) insurance?
Correct Answer: B. Someone wanting indemnity (reimbursement) for long-term care expenses while confined to a long-term facility.
Question 32: What is the purpose of a private insurance company Accident and Health insurance policy?
Correct Answer: C. To transfer from the insured to the insurance company the risk of uncertain losses that the insured might have as a result of accident and sickness.
Question 33: Mr. Jones’s Disability Income policy has a 30 day Waiting (Elimination) period, provides up to two years of benefits and has a six month Recurrent Disability provision. Mr. Jones is off work for six months, returns back to work for seven months and then is unable to resume work as a result of the same symptom. Which of the following statements concerning Mr. Jones’s circumstances is true?
Correct Answer: D. Mr. Jones could collect a total of 29 months of benefits.
Question 34: Which of the following statements concerning the Consideration clause of an Accident and Health policy is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. It states that the insurance company will not be responsible for the validity of an assignment of a policy.
Question 35: All but one of the following are optional provisions, NOT required in all individual Accident and Health policies, but if an insurance company uses a provision of this type it must meet state law requirements. Which one is NOT an optional provision?
Correct Answer: A. Change of Beneficiary.
Question 36: Ms. Emily has a Pre-Existing Condition clause in her Disability Income policy. The provision states that any condition for which she has received medication or treatment within the six months preceding coverage will be considered to be a pre-existing condition. It states that the pre-existing conditions will be excluded for 180 days. Which of the following statements concerning her Pre-Existing Condition clause is true?
Correct Answer: B. At the end of the 180 day exclusion period all conditions including the pre-existing conditions will be covered.
Question 37: Which of the following statements about an Accident and Health insurance policy is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. Expense Accident and Health insurance policies are usually not coordinating.
Question 38: Mr. Rangey has in his Hospital Expense policy a provision which states that his insurance company does NOT have to renew the policy if they decide to quit writing insurance in the state in which Mr. Rangey is a resident. What type of renewability provision is this called?
Correct Answer: B. Conditionally Renewable.
Question 39: Which of the following statements concerning the Entire Policy - Changes provision is NOT true?
Correct Answer: B. It states that if the insured is to sue the insurance company he/she must file his/her suit within 60 days after notice of loss.
Question 40: Which of the following coverages are automatic without charge under Medicare?
Correct Answer: A. Hospital Insurance Plan - Part A.
Question 41: The Fair Credit Reporting Act requires that an insurance company do all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. The insurance company must let the applicant have a copy of all inspection and medical reports.
Question 42: Which of the following statements concerning the Accident and Health policy Claim Forms provision is true?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company must provide the insured with claim forms within 15 days after receiving notice of claim.
Question 43: All of the following statements concerning conditional receipts are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Conditional receipts are not binding.
Question 44: Which of the following statements concerning Blanket Accident and Health insurance is true?
Correct Answer: C. It is often issued to camps, sport teams and schools.
Question 45: Which of the following statements concerning Social Security Disability insurance benefits is true?
Correct Answer: A. To be eligible, an individual must have worked and contributed the required number of quarters to achieve disability insurance status.
Question 46: Which of the following statements about Medicare Supplementary Medical Insurance Plan (Part B) is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. It will cover custodial nursing care expenses.
Question 47: Which of the following statements is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. Optionally Renewable policies provide the insured the strongest guarantee of any policy that the policy will be renewed.
Question 48: A policy which is designed to pay installment payments that come due while an insured is disabled is called which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Credit Disability coverage.
Question 49: All of the following benefits can be included under Hospital Expense Coverage EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Dental Expense benefits.
Question 50: Which of the following statements concerning the time within which claims must be paid by the insurance company is true?
Correct Answer: B. An insurance company can pay claims no less frequently than monthly.
Question 1: Which of the following expenses are covered under Medicare Medical Insurance Plan (Part B)?
Correct Answer: B. Doctor office charges.
Question 2: Which of the following statements concerning a Relations of Earnings provision is true?
Correct Answer: A. It allows the insurance company to reduce Disability Income benefits down to either the insured’s income immediately prior to disability or the insured’s last two years income, which ever is greater.
Question 3: The Reinstatement provision of an Accident and Health insurance policy provides what?
Correct Answer: B. If a reinstatement application is required by the insurance company, the reinstatement becomes effective automatically 45 days after the date of the reinstatement application, unless the insurance company rejects or approves the reinstatement before then.
Question 4: Which of the following is a purpose of hospital/medical expense insurance?
Correct Answer: A. To protect insured’s against the financial risk of illness or injury expenses they cannot individually afford.
Question 5: A Major Medical policy has a $1000 deductible. It has a 80% coinsurance clause. It has a $2000 maximum out-of-pocket. How much is the stop loss?
Correct Answer: C. $5000.
Question 6: Which of the following statements concerning Franchise (Wholesale) Group Accident and Health insurance is true?
Correct Answer: D. It is a special type of group insurance that is used for groups that would not otherwise qualify for group insurance.
Question 7: All of the following statements concerning Medicaid are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Private insurance companies typically issue insurance policies which pick up the “gaps”, that is deductibles.
Question 8: Which of the following is NOT a cost savings available through Group Accident and Health insurance?
Correct Answer: C. Adverse selection.
Question 9: Which provision is sometimes used to effect payment of premium when loss occurs during the Grace Period?
Correct Answer: B. The Unpaid Premium provision.
Question 10: Which of the following statements concerning the Incontestability provision is true?
Correct Answer: C. It allows the insurance company to refuse to pay a claim due to a misstatement on an application during the first two years.
Question 11: Which of the following provisions is required in all individual Accident and Health insurance policies?
Correct Answer: C. Physical Examination and Autopsy provision.
Question 12: All of the following statements concerning the Other Insurance With The Same Company provision are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. It cannot be written so that the insured is allowed the option to pick which policy he/she wants to apply and receive a return of premium on the other policy.
Question 13: A Disability Income policy that is used to cover a business or professional person’s continuing business overhead expenses while disabled is called which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Business Overhead Expense coverage.
Question 14: Mr. Ryan bought a Disability Income policy from his insurance producer, Ms. Caitlin. Which of the following statements concerning the Guaranteed Insurability provision contained in that policy would apply?
Correct Answer: A. It guarantees Mr. Ryan the right to purchase additional amounts of insurance.
Question 15: The last time Mr. Ryan went to the hospital he was asked at his admission to sign a form assigning the benefits that he was entitled to under his Accident and Health policy to the hospital. Which of the following statements concerning the assignment of benefits would apply?
Correct Answer: B. The Assignment provision says that while the insurance company will pay benefits to an assignee, it will not be responsible for determining if the assignment is valid and legal.
Question 16: Which of the following statements concerning the 10 Day Free Look provision on an Accident and Health policy does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: D. Under the 10 Day Free Look provision, the insured can receive premiums back only if the insured has a substantial change in health status.
Question 17: An employment period which the insured must satisfy before the insured becomes eligible for coverage is which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. A Probationary period.
Question 18: Which of the following organizations would you usually expect to issue contracts allowing an individual to go only to a participating service provider to obtain specified types of services at any time when the insured person requires them?
Correct Answer: B. HMO’s
Question 19: Which of the following does NOT describe an Accident and Health insurance policy?
Correct Answer: C. Illegal purpose.
Question 20: All of the following are true about Medicare EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. There is no limit as to the length of time a person can stay in the hospital and be covered by Medicare.
Question 21: Which policy would be best for someone to buy if their goal was the fullest, most complete hospital/medical expense coverage for someone under age 65?
Correct Answer: C. Major Medical coverage.
Question 22: If an underwriter wants to make sure that the insured is of good character and that the amount of insurance being applied for is reasonable compared to the insured’s income and net worth, which of the following sources of information will the underwriter likely obtain?
Correct Answer: A. A credit report and an inspection report.
Question 23: All of the following are ALWAYS required to put an accident and health insurance policy into effect EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Delivery of the policy.
Question 24: Which of the following statements describes the Medical Information Bureau (MIB)?
Correct Answer: B. It is an organization to which the insurance company may send health information and receive back health information that the applicant has furnished to other insurance companies to which the applicant has applied in the past.
Question 25: Which of the following are covered by an Accidental Death and Dismemberment policy?
Correct Answer: A. Death or dismemberment resulting from an injury sustained in an accident within 100 days of the accident.
Question 26: Which of the following statements concerning an Accident and Health policy Pre-Existing Condition clause is true?
Correct Answer: B. Including a Pre-Existing Condition clause in an insurance policy helps the insurance company manage and control adverse selection.
Question 27: Which of the following describes an Enrollment Period?
Correct Answer: C. A period of time, often 30 days, during which new eligible members may be admitted to the group usually without evidence of insurability.
Question 28: Which of the following concerning hospital expense coverage is NOT true?
Correct Answer: B. It cannot be combined with Major Medical coverage to create Comprehensive Medical Expense coverage.
Question 29: All of the following clauses are required in all individual Accident and Health policies EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. A Relation of Earnings provision.
Question 30: Mr. Ryan is applying for a Disability Income policy. He has submitted an application and a medical questionnaire. Upon reviewing this, the underwriter has determined that he wants more information. What will probably be the next form of information that the underwriter will want?
Correct Answer: A. A Paramedical exam.
Question 31: Which of the following statements concerning Disability Income insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. Disability Income coverage requires the insured to be confined to a hospital.
Question 32: Which of the following statements concerning an Accident and Health insurance policy Proof of Loss requirement applies?
Correct Answer: A. The insurance company can require the insured to give the insurance company proof of loss within 90 days of Notice of Claim.
Question 33: Which of the following organizations usually issue risk indemnity (reimbursement) insurance policies?
Correct Answer: A. Private insurance companies.
Question 34: Which of the following would be classified as a warranted statement?
Correct Answer: B. An answer on a Dangerous Recreational questionnaire upon which the insurance company may assess an extra premium charge.
Question 35: Mr. Smith is insured under an Accident and Health insurance policy. He sustained gun shot wounds while he was attempting to rob a grocery store. Which of the following statements concerning his coverage applies?
Correct Answer: B. He will not be covered if his policy contains an Illegal Occupations provision.
Question 36: Which of the following describes Usual, Reasonable and Customary charges?
Correct Answer: D. Most policies cover only expenses that do not exceed what the insurance company has determined to be reasonable and customary for the region in which the insured receives service.
Question 37: Which of the following statements regarding an insurance company’s function in an Accident and Health insurance risk indemnity policy is true?
Correct Answer: A. By collecting premiums from thousands of people, the majority of which are not going to have large losses, the insurance company is able to pay claims to those few individuals who do incur large claims.
Question 38: An Accident and Health insurance policy could best be described as which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Contract of indemnity.
Question 39: If an application is filled out, but the initial premium is NOT paid with the application, all of the following requirements must be met EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. The insured must take another physical examination, if one was originally required with the application.
Question 40: Exclusions found in some Accident and Health policy include all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. An insuring agreement.
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT covered under an Accidental Death and Dismemberment policy?
Correct Answer: A. Loss of a finger.
Question 42: Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: B. In order for an injury to result from accidental means both the injury and the cause of the injury must be unintended.
Question 43: All of the following concerning Health Savings Accounts (HSA’s) are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Contributions to Health Savings Accounts (HSA’s) are usually subject to tax.
Question 44: All of the following statements concerning the Grace Period found in an Accident and Health policy are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: B. The Grace Period on a weekly premium policy cannot be any less than 30 days.
Question 45: Which of the following statements concerning a Noncancelable and Guaranteed Renewable policy is true?
Correct Answer: D. The premiums are determined when the policy is issued and can never be changed.
Question 46: Which would be an expense reimbursement policy that would typically have a coordination of benefits provision?
Correct Answer: B. Major Medical coverage.
Question 47: Mr. Smith owns a Disability Income policy. His policy has a Change of Occupation provision. Which of the following statements concerning that provision is true?
Correct Answer: B. If Mr. Smith changes his occupation to a more hazardous one, the insurance company can reduce benefits.
Question 48: Disability Income benefits can be paid in any of the following ways EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Once the insured has satisfied the Waiting (Elimination) Period requirement, benefits are payable until the end of the policy benefit period regardless of whether the insured is able to return to work or not.
Question 49: Which of the following statements concerning an Accident and Health policy Notice of Claim provision is true?
Correct Answer: B. It provides that notice of a claim must be given within 20 days of the loss.
Question 50: All of the following statements concerning Group Accident and Health insurance are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. HIPAA does not apply to termination of coverage.
Question 1: Mr. Ryan James called up the agent that he has been doing business with for years, Mr. Wally Jordan, and told him about a new building that he had recently purchased. He requested that Mr. Jordan arrange proper insurance coverages. Mr. Jordan assured him that he would and told him he would send him a bill for the coverages. Which of the following describes these circumstances?
Correct Answer: C. Oral Binder.
Question 2: Physical Damage coverage covers a newly acquired or replacement auto if reported within how many days?
Correct Answer: C. 30 days.
Question 3: Which of the following is NOT a party to a bond?
Correct Answer: A. Robber.
Question 4: Employer's Non-Ownership Liability coverage covers which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. An employer's liability caused by an employee driving his or her personal car on company business.
Question 5: Which of the following is excluded under Auto Liability coverage?
Correct Answer: B. Liability caused to an employee.
Question 6: Which of the following is covered under Transportation Expense (Rental Reimbursement) Coverage?
Correct Answer: B. Rental expenses the insured incurs because the insured is unable to drive due to damage covered under physical damage coverage.
Question 7: Which of the following is found on the declarations page?
Correct Answer: D. A policy effective date.
Question 8: Ms. Caitlin has a two-door sedan which she personally owns which she uses mostly for business. Which type of auto policy does it qualify for?
Correct Answer: A. Personal auto policy.
Question 9: Liability coverage will pay for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Damage to a third party auto.
Question 10: All of the following are covered by a personal auto policy EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Injuries sustained by the insured’s employee while riding in the insured auto.
Question 11: All of the following are always excluded under a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: B. Products and Completed Operations Liability.
Question 12: Which of the following describes risk?
Correct Answer: A. The degree of exposure to loss caused by covered peril.
Question 13: Which of the following is a purpose of insurance?
Correct Answer: B. To transfer to insurance companies pure risk where there is no opportunity for the insured to profit.
Question 14: Which of the following statements describes an accident?
Correct Answer: C. A sudden, unforeseen, unintended event.
Question 15: Which of the following is NOT covered under Premises Burglary coverage?
Correct Answer: A. Robbery of money.
Question 16: Ms. E. Ace has a 25/50/20 Auto Liability policy. She is involved in an accident with Mr. W. Jordan. Mr. W. Jordan made a claim against the insured, E. Ace. Ms. Ace's insurance company decided to defend against the claim in court. A $10,000 judgment was awarded Mr. Jordan. The insurance company incurred $4,000 attorney's fees and court costs. Which of the following statements are true?
Correct Answer: B. The insurance company's maximum liability is $14,000 in this circumstance.
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT a necessary element (requirement) to make a liability claim against someone else?
Correct Answer: D. Insurable interest.
Question 18: Which of the following is covered by Auto Liability coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Liability caused by an employee while driving the insured auto on business.
Question 19: Which of the following statements describes the legal requirement that a contract be consistent with public policy?
Correct Answer: B. Legal subject.
Question 20: Autos are usually insured for which of the following values?
Correct Answer: B. Actual cash value.
Question 21: Collision or Upset coverage covers which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Damage caused by collision with a fixed object.
Question 22: Products and Completed Operations (Products Liability) coverage EXCLUDES which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Damage to the product itself.
Question 23: Which of the following describes a mysterious disappearance?
Correct Answer: D. An overcoat and hat are found missing from a coat rack.
Question 24: Auto Comprehensive (All-Risk) coverage covers all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Upset.
Question 25: Auto Medical Payments coverage covers which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Medical expenses resulting from injuries the insured sustained while driving his/her own car.
Question 26: Contractual Liability coverage can be written to cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Liability the insured has assumed under the hold harmless clause contained in a business contract.
Question 27: Which of the following is NOT excluded under a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy?
Correct Answer: A. Liability arising out of a new hazard that occurred during the policy term, but was not reported to the insurance company.
Question 28: Which of the following describes theft coverage?
Correct Answer: A. It covers more than burglary coverage.
Question 29: Which of the following statements about Coverage C - Medical Payments of a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy is NOT true?
Correct Answer: B. The injured person must prove that the insured is legally liable.
Question 30: Which of the following describes insurable interest and indemnity?
Correct Answer: A. Being in a position where you can stand to lose money should damage occur.
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT covered under Coverage A - Bodily Injury and Property Damage of a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy?
Correct Answer: C. Personal and Advertising Injury Liability.
Question 32: Mr. Wally Jordan is injured because of an accident caused by a defective stove burner. The stove was sold to him by Everyday Appliance Store. It was manufactured by Hot Times Stove Manufacturing Company. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: D. He would have a products liability claim against both the store and the manufacturer.
Question 33: Ms. Ciara has a Hot Rod Mutual Insurance Company auto insurance policy. On November 1, she traded her 63 Ford in on a 77 Chevy. On November 3 she had an accident. On November 5 she reported the accident and the purchase of her new auto. Which of the following statements are true?
Correct Answer: D. Her new Chevy is automatically covered as a replacement auto.
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT a Supplemental payment found in most auto policies?
Correct Answer: C. The insured's medical expenses incurred in an auto accident.
Question 35: Which of the following describes Operations Liability coverage found under Coverage A of a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy?
Correct Answer: C. Liability arising from an operation or activity being performed by the insured or an employee.
Question 36: Which of the following is NOT covered under Coverage B - Personal and Advertising Injury Liability coverage of a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy?
Correct Answer: D. Liability caused by advertising the wrong quality or price of a good.
Question 37: Which of the following qualifies as a burglary?
Correct Answer: D. Someone breaks into a store building.
Question 38: Who would buy Commercial Excess-Umbrella Liability coverage?
Correct Answer: C. A business that has particularly high risk of being sued in large amounts.
Question 39: Which of the following describes a performance bond?
Correct Answer: D. It guarantees that a contractor will complete a job on time, according to specifications and without liens for materials or labor.
Question 40: Which of the following describes liability which one person such as an employer has for the actions of another such as an employee?
Correct Answer: A. Vicarious liability.
Question 41: Which is a coverage that is NOT automatically covered under Robbery and Safe Burglary coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Theft.
Question 42: Which of the following statements concerning the Auto Liability coverage is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. It covers individuals other than members of the insured’s household while driving the insured auto whether they have permission or not.
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT covered under Auto Liability coverage?
Correct Answer: C. A friend's trailer being towed behind the friend's auto while the insured is a passenger.
Question 44: Which of the following is covered under Coverage A - Bodily Injury and Property Damage Liability coverage of a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy?
Correct Answer: D. Liability arising from the ownership, use or occupancy of premises including all of the above.
Question 45: Which of the following describes negligence?
Correct Answer: C. Failing to take reasonable precautions for an individual under the circumstances.
Question 46: Ms. Jules was involved in an auto accident. She has a policy that has Liability limits of 25/50/20. The injured party, Ms. Tori, sued Ms. Jules for $25,000. Her insurance company decided to defend against the claim. They incurred $6,000 in attorney's fees, court costs and bail bond costs and lost. How much will the insurance company pay all total under both the Liability limits and Supplemental payments?
Correct Answer: A. $31,000.
Question 47: Physical Damage coverage covers which of the following autos?
Correct Answer: D. Damage to a non-owned auto not regularly driven by the insured which occurred while the auto was driven by an insured.
Question 48: Which of the following is covered under a Commercial Excess-Umbrella Liability policy?
Correct Answer: D. Claims which exceed primary coverage limits.
Question 49: Mr. Harold Lloyd bought an Employee Dishonesty policy for his business. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: C. Once a dishonesty is discovered, coverage is cancelled for that employee.
Question 50: Which of the following is a federal law which protects the applicant in information collected about him/her?
Correct Answer: C. Fair Credit Reporting Act.
Question 1: Under which of the following situations will an insured probably be considered to NOT have a liability to a claimant?
Correct Answer: B. The insured recklessly drives his/her car at an excessive rate of speed just barely missing the claimant, causing the claimant to become very upset and distressed.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a party to a bond?
Correct Answer: C. Fiduciary.
Question 3: Which of the following is or are formalized by the insured filling out the application and paying his initial premium and the insurance company issuing either a receipt or policy?
Correct Answer: B. Offer and Acceptance.
Question 4: Our insured, Mr. Jordan, borrowed Mr. Ryan's brand new Corvette Stingray. Mr. Ryan was fully covered by Indemnity Insurance Company. Which of the following statements concerning Mr. Jordan's circumstances is true?
Correct Answer: C. Mr. Ryan's policy will pay first, Mr. Jordan's as excess.
Question 5: When would Owners and Contractors Protective Liability coverage be appropriate?
Correct Answer: D. A building owner and/or contractor to protect against liability caused by injuries an independent contractor causes a claimant.
Question 6: An insured has a liability policy with a limit of $50,000. If a loss of $15,000 occurs, the insurance company is NOT obligated to pay more than $15,000 because of the principle of?
Correct Answer: D. Indemnity.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT an example of Supplemental Payments?
Correct Answer: D. Cost of repairing the insured auto.
Question 8: All of the following are excluded under a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Liability assumed under a lease agreement.
Question 9: Which of the following would NOT qualify as a theft?
Correct Answer: C. Something disappeared.
Question 10: Ms. Emma Ace has a claims made Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy. Which of the following statements applies?
Correct Answer: C. The occurrence must occur while the policy is in effect.
Question 11: Which of the following statements concerning Uninsured Motorists coverage is true?
Correct Answer: A. It will make a payment to the insured, the insured's spouse or a resident member of the insured's household, if they are injured by either a hit-and-run motorist or a uninsured motorist anywhere at anytime.
Question 12: Which are limits of liability?
Correct Answer: B. It is the greatest amount which the insurance company will pay under one coverage as is expressed in the declarations page of the policy.
Question 13: Which of the following coverages would you use primarily to cover property other than money and securities?
Correct Answer: C. Premises Theft and Robbery Outside the Premises coverage.
Question 14: Which of the following would be classified as a burglary?
Correct Answer: C. Someone breaking a window to get into a store building.
Question 15: Which of the following describes the probability or likelihood that a loss caused by covered peril will occur?
Correct Answer: B. Risk.
Question 16: Which of the following statements concerning insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. Pooling of risk is a few people paying money in so that money can be paid out to many more than who paid in.
Question 17: Ms. Emily, driving her car at an excessive rate of speed, runs a stop sign barely missing Ms. Julie, causing Ms. Julie to become very upset and distressed. Ms. Julie cannot make a liability claim because which of the necessary elements of liability is missing?
Correct Answer: B. Damages.
Question 18: Which of the following statements concerning Towing and Labor coverage is true?
Correct Answer: D. It covers labor costs of repairing the auto at the roadside, but no repair costs incurred at a garage.
Question 19: The insured is involved in an auto accident where both the insured and the driver of the other car are injured. Assuming all requirements are satisfied, which of the following coverages will pay for the insured's medical expenses?
Correct Answer: A. Medical Payments Coverage.
Question 20: Which of the following statements describes Theft, Disappearance and Destruction coverage?
Correct Answer: C. It covers loss of money and securities outside the premises while in the custody of a messenger or armored car.
Question 21: The Acme Corporation does NOT own any automobiles but does have its employees occasionally drive their own autos on company business. Which of the following coverages are appropriate in the Acme Corporation's circumstances?
Correct Answer: B. Employers Nonownership Legal Liability coverage.
Question 22: Mr. Ryan James has a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy. At the end of the policy year he has received a premium notice for the previous year. What would be the best explanation?
Correct Answer: B. Under the CGL policy, sometimes a deposit premium is charged at the beginning of the policy term, an audit is done at end of the policy term and an additional premium can be charged.
Question 23: Which of the following is covered under Comprehensive (All Risk) Physical Damage Auto coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Glass breakage.
Question 24: Which of the following is excluded under Comprehensive (All Risk) Auto Physical Damage coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Upset damage.
Question 25: Which of the following statements accurately describes the concept of actual cash value coverage?
Correct Answer: A. The purpose of actual cash value coverage is to restore to the insured to the same economic value that he/she had in the property immediately before loss.
Question 26: Commercial General Liability (CGL) coverage does NOT cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Liquor Liability.
Question 27: Which of the following describes a cause of loss which can be insured against?
Correct Answer: A. Peril.
Question 28: Which of the following is NOT a necessary element to all legal contracts including insurance policies?
Correct Answer: C. Producer’s Commissions.
Question 29: Ms. J. Jordan has a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy. Which of the following will it NOT cover?
Correct Answer: C. Liability caused by discharge of pollutants.
Question 30: Which of the following statements concerning the Supplemental Payments under Auto Liability coverage is true?
Correct Answer: D. Defense costs are covered under Supplemental Payments.
Question 31: All of the following are automatically covered under an Auto Liability policy EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Anyone other than a resident member of the named insured's household using the insured auto without an insured's permission.
Question 32: Which of the following would NOT be covered under Contractual Liability coverage?
Correct Answer: B. Liability incurred as a result of breach of contract.
Question 33: A bid bond does which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Guarantees that a contractor will enter into a contract to do work if awarded the job.
Question 34: What are typical limits for Medical Payment coverage?
Correct Answer: C. $5,000 per person, not to exceed $25,000 in aggregate.
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT considered to be a personal auto?
Correct Answer: C. A delivery truck.
Question 36: Mr. Ryan backed his car up in the parking lot into Ms. Julie's car. In which of the following situations would Mr. Ryan be considered to be negligent?
Correct Answer: D. Mr. Ryan failed to back his car up with all the care and caution that a reasonable person would under the circumstances.
Question 37: Which of the following are excluded under Comprehensive (All Risk) Physical Damage coverage?
Correct Answer: A. Collision or upset.
Question 38: Which of the following would NOT be covered under the Auto Liability coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Someone driving the insured vehicle without permission.
Question 39: The insured is involved in an auto accident in which both the insured and the driver of the other auto incur injuries. Assuming all requirements are satisfied, which of the following coverages will pay for the injuries to the other driver?
Correct Answer: B. Bodily Injury Liability Coverage.
Question 40: Which of the following is covered under Premises Burglary coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Loss caused by burglary.
Question 41: Which of the following types of auto is NOT automatically covered for liability under a personal auto policy?
Correct Answer: D. An auto owned by the insured's employer regularly provided for the insured's use.
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a claim to be covered under Products and Completed Operations coverage?
Correct Answer: A. The accident must occur on the insured premises.
Question 43: Commercial Excess/Umbrella Liability coverage would apply in which of the following cases?
Correct Answer: A. It is needed by businesses which run the risk for any reason of having claims made against them in extraordinarily high amounts.
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT an occurrence?
Correct Answer: C. A claims-made policy.
Question 45: Which of the following statements concerning Employee Dishonesty coverage is true?
Correct Answer: D. The loss must occur while the bond is in effect and it must be discovered while the bond is in effect or during the discovery period.
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT an accident?
Correct Answer: C. One person hitting another with his fist on purpose.
Question 47: All of the following are necessary elements to constitute a legal contract EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Declaration page.
Question 48: Which of the following would be classified as a robbery?
Correct Answer: A. A stick-up.
Question 49: Personal and Advertising Injury Liability coverage will cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Mistakenly making a slanderous statement about a competitor.
Question 50: All of the following are covered under Robbery and Safe Burglary coverage EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Shoplifting.
Question 1: Which of the following describes policy conditions?
Correct Answer: C. Policy requirements.
Question 2: Which of the following describes a continuous, repeated exposure to conditions which result in injuries or damages?
Correct Answer: B. Occurrence.
Question 3: Coverage C - Medical Payments of a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy does which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Covers medical bills resulting from accidents occurring on the insured premises resulting from the insured's operation.
Question 4: Which of the following statements concerning Uninsured Motorist coverage is true?
Correct Answer: C. It pays for medical bills, lost wages, permanent injuries and all other sums for which the at-fault driver would have been responsible for had the at-fault driver had insurance.
Question 5: A Surety Bond does which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Guarantees a promise of faithful performance or payment.
Question 6: Which of the following statements describes the legal concept of indemnity?
Correct Answer: A. It is the legal concept of one party standing in the place of another, such as an insurance company making good for an insured.
Question 7: Which of the following are covered under Supplementary Payments of a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy?
Correct Answer: C. Defense cost.
Question 8: Which of the following describes shoplifting?
Correct Answer: C. Theft.
Question 9: Which of the following expenses would typically be covered by an auto policy Medical Payments coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Ambulance bills incurred by a passenger of the insured vehicle.
Question 10: Which is an example of negligence?
Correct Answer: C. The individual fails to do something he/she should have.
Question 11: What is a deductible?
Correct Answer: C. An initial amount of loss which the insured must pay before the insurance company begins to indemnify.
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT a party to a bond?
Correct Answer: D. Indemnity.
Question 13: Which of the following would be considered covered automobiles under Auto Liability coverage?
Correct Answer: C. A rental car being driven while the insured auto is being repaired.
Question 14: Which of the following would describe loss caused by order of civil authority?
Correct Answer: C. A moral hazard.
Question 15: Which of the following describes proximate cause?
Correct Answer: D. An act directly causing damage to someone else’s property.
Question 16: Which of the following is a form of insured contract (incidental contract) NOT covered under the Comprehensive General Liability (CGL) policy?
Correct Answer: C. Breach of contract liability.
Question 17: Who is covered under Medical Payments coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Passenger while entering, riding in or alighting from the insured auto.
Question 18: Who would buy an Employee Dishonesty policy?
Correct Answer: B. An employer who has employees who handle money for him/her.
Question 19: Which of the following describes someone breaking into a store building to steal merchandise?
Correct Answer: A. Burglary.
Question 20: Which of the following describes a sudden, unforeseen, unintended event?
Correct Answer: A. Accident.
Question 21: Ryan James rents a carpet cleaner from Worldwide Rental Company. There is a defect in the carpet cleaner which causes Mr. James to be injured. The accident occurred at Mr. James' home. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. This would be classified as off premises liability covered under Worldwide Rental Company's Comprehensive General Liability (CGL) policy.
Question 22: Which of the following describes insurable interest?
Correct Answer: A. Being in a position where you would lose money should loss occur.
Question 23: Which of the following are covered under Comprehensive (All Risk) Physical Damage coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Some transportation costs after the insured auto has been stolen for 48 hours.
Question 24: Which of the following can be written to cover loss by robbery of a custodian or messenger or loss caused by safe burglary?
Correct Answer: C. Robbery and Safe Burglary coverage.
Question 25: Which of the following would use Owners and Contractors Protective Liability coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Either a building owner or contractor on a building where construction work is being done.
Question 26: Entertainment Enterprises Inc. is concerned that someone could get hurt at a concert that they promote. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. Commercial Excess/Umbrella Liability coverage would cover claims that exceed their primary coverage limits.
Question 27: Which of the following statements describes Supplemental Payments?
Correct Answer: C. Insured person’s defense cost.
Question 28: Which of the following statements describes a hazard?
Correct Answer: C. A pothole in a business parking lot in which a customer can trip, fall and become injured.
Question 29: Ms. Julie has a Personal Auto policy with limits of 100/300/50. What does this mean?
Correct Answer: D. The policy will pay up to a maximum of $350,000 for injuries caused to several people and also property damage.
Question 30: Which of the following describes the clause in which the insurance company agrees to indemnify the insured?
Correct Answer: B. Insuring agreement.
Question 31: Which of the following statements concerning Physical Damage Collision or Upset coverage is true?
Correct Answer: D. It covers damage caused by another vehicle colliding with the insured vehicle.
Question 32: Which of the following is covered by a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy?
Correct Answer: D. Liability assumed under a hold harmless lease agreement.
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT covered under a Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy?
Correct Answer: A. Liability for breach of contract.
Question 34: An insured who has an automobile policy with Collision coverage can recover for damages caused to his/her car in which of the following cases?
Correct Answer: B. The insured accidentally backed one of his two cars into the other.
Question 35: Which of the following provides automatic coverage on a recently purchased third automobile when an insured already owns two autos which are insured by the same insurance company?
Correct Answer: A. Newly Acquired Auto coverage.
Question 36: Which of the following is a peril?
Correct Answer: B. Theft.
Question 37: Which of the following describes the part of the policy in which appears the name of the insured, all other parties at interest, a description of the property to be insured and the limits of liability?
Correct Answer: A. Declarations page.
Question 38: Mr. Edwardo is covered under a Crash Mutual Auto Liability policy with limits of 25/50/20. Mr. Edwardo's precocious son, Sean, decides to use Mr. Edwardo's covered family auto, a Jaguar XJ6, without bothering to seek Mr. Edwardo's permission. While he was out driving his father's car, Sean hit Emily Ace, the town lawyer. Ms. Ace made a claim against both Sean and Mr. Edwardo for $25,000 for personal injuries and an additional $15,000 claim for damage to her car. Which of the following statements concerning the Edwardo's circumstance is true?
Correct Answer: A. Sean will be automatically covered for up to $25,000 for bodily injuries to Ms. Ace and up to $20,000 for damage to Ms. Ace's property since Sean is a resident member of the Edwardo household.
Question 39: Which of the following covers money and securities both inside and outside the insured premises without any extra endorsements added?
Correct Answer: D. Theft, Disappearance and Destruction coverage.
Question 40: Which of the following describes a Scheduled Employee Dishonesty policy?
Correct Answer: A. The loss must be caused by an identified employee.
Question 41: Which of the following describes a stick-up?
Correct Answer: B. Robbery.
Question 42: How is legal liability determined?
Correct Answer: A. It is often determined on the basis of what it is anticipated that a court would find if the claim were to go to a court hearing.
Question 43: If the Commercial General Liability (CGL) policy is written on a claim made basis which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: C. The occurrence must occur while the policy is in effect plus the claim must be made while the policy is in effect or within the claim reporting period following termination.
Question 44: Which of the following provides automatic coverage when the insured trades a covered auto in for a new car and reports it 35 days after the end of the policy?
Correct Answer: D. No coverage.
Question 45: For which of the following types of liability may a claimant make a claim against an insured under an auto policy?
Correct Answer: A. Bodily injury and property damage only.
Question 46: Products liability coverage which is included under a CGL policy covers the extra high level of liability that a manufacturer or seller of a product has to make the product safe. Which of the following describes that principle of insurance?
Correct Answer: D. Strict liability.
Question 47: Which of the following covers loss of property other than money and securities caused by theft inside the premises and robbery outside the premises?
Correct Answer: B. Premises Theft and Robbery Outside the Premises coverage.
Question 48: Which of the following would usually be covered under auto Medical Payments coverage?
Correct Answer: C. All hospital and medical expenses incurred by a child of the insured incurred within one year of an accident in which the child was knocked off of a bicycle by a car.
Question 49: Which of the following statements concerning Physical Damage coverage is true?
Correct Answer: D. First party coverage.
Question 50: Physical Damage coverage does NOT automatically apply to which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Another auto owned by the insured upon which the insured has other valid and collectible insurance.
Question 1: Which of the following statements concerning a temporary insurance agreement is or are true?
Correct Answer: D. It is replaced at a later date with a permanent policy with no evidence of insurability.
Question 2: Which of the following statements concerning a group insurance policy participation requirement is true'?
Correct Answer: C. Its purpose is to avoid adverse selection.
Question 3: Which of the following is NOT a nonforfeiture option?
Correct Answer: B. Dividends.
Question 4: Which of the following would an underwriter consider in evaluating an application?
Correct Answer: D. Parents' serious illnesses.
Question 5: The Fair Credit Reporting Act protects which of the following applicant's rights?
Correct Answer: B. Right to be notified that there could be an inspection.
Question 6: Ms. Celia stated on her life insurance application form that she was 28 years old. Her actual age was 30.Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: B. The insurance company is allowed to reduce benefits to what it would normally pay for a person of the insured's actual age.
Question 7: Which of the following statements concerning group insurance is true'?
Correct Answer: B. Each covered person is issued a certificate.
Question 8: Which policy will have the highest premium rate?
Correct Answer: D. Endowment Insurance.
Question 9: Which of the following is a type of plan that would typically be entered into between partners?
Correct Answer: B. Buy-Sell Agreement.
Question 10: The Guaranteed Insurability provision allows which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. The insured may purchase additional amounts of insurance at specified intervals with no evidence of insurability.
Question 11: Which of the following would NOT be a consideration in evaluating an application for life insurance?
Correct Answer: A. Family size.
Question 12: If the policy owner is someone other than insured, which of the following requirements DOES NOT apply?
Correct Answer: C. The insured must be over age 18.
Question 13: Mr. John purchased a life insurance policy November I. He committed suicide November 15 of the same year. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: B. The face amount benefit is not payable.
Question 14: Which of the following describes a Buy-Sell agreement?
Correct Answer: B. It is a business agreement that provides for the surviving partner/stockholder of a business to buy out another at his/her death.
Question 15: Which of the following statements concerning a Tax-Sheltered Annuity (TSA) plan is true?
Correct Answer: C. Only employees of non-profit education, religious or medical organizations are eligible.
Question 16: Assuming the insured does NOT pay the premium with the application, when does a life insurance policy take effect?
Correct Answer: B. Upon delivery.
Question 17: How may an annuity plan NOT be purchased?
Correct Answer: C. Without cash contributions.
Question 18: Which of the following would NOT be a reason for purchasing Whole Life insurance?
Correct Answer: D. It provides the greatest amount of insurance possible at the lowest premium rate possible.
Question 19: Which of the following annuity options would yield payments in a fixed amount each month until principal and interest are depleted?
Correct Answer: A. Fixed amount.
Question 20: Which policy requires premium payments for the longest period of time?
Correct Answer: A. Whole Life insurance.
Question 21: Which of the following plans is a Whole Life insurance policy with a Decreasing Term rider with benefits used to provide a family income?
Correct Answer: B. Family Income plan.
Question 22: When does a life insurance policy take effect assuming that the insured paid the premium with the application?
Correct Answer: A. Upon completion of the application including the required physical exam.
Question 23: A life insurance policy has an Aviation Exclusion. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: B. The insured will be covered while flying as a fare-paying passenger on United Airlines.
Question 24: Mr. Joshua owns a Whole Life insurance policy. He wishes to borrow against it. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: A. He must pay the interest rate indicated in the policy or it will be added to the policy loan.
Question 25: Which of the following statements concerning an Individual Retirement Account (IRA) is true?
Correct Answer: B. Any wage earner is eligible.
Question 26: Which of the following statements concerning an IRA plan is true?
Correct Answer: B. Any wage earner qualifies.
Question 27: Which of the following statements concerning Nonforfeiture options is true?
Correct Answer: B. If the Paid Up Insurance option is chosen, no further premium payments are necessary.
Question 28: Which of the following statements concerning dividends is true?
Correct Answer: B. The owner has the right to choose the dividend option.
Question 29: Which is NOT a right of ownership in a life insurance policy?
Correct Answer: A. Change irrevocable beneficiaries at will.
Question 30: Who CANNOT be an owner of a life insurance policy?
Correct Answer: A. A disinterested third party that has no financial interest in the insured's life.
Question 31: Why is it important to have a large group of individuals insured?
Correct Answer: A. According to the law of large numbers, the larger the group the more accurate actuarial statistical assumptions will become.
Question 32: Which of the following is a characteristic of Term insurance?
Correct Answer: C. Insurance protection for a limited policy term
Question 33: Which of the following describes a group of individuals who do NOT qualify for group insurance, who each individually apply for insurance and who each have a policy issued to them, but the program is administered by a sponsor'?
Correct Answer: D. Franchise (Wholesale) Group insurance.
Question 34: Which of the following plans provides cash accumulation which varies according to a specified economic index and is intended to combat inflation?
Correct Answer: A. Variable annuity.
Question 35: Which of the following statements concerning Social Security Death (Survivor) benefits is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. Benefits will be paid to dependent children through age 22.
Question 36: In which of the following ways could an insurance company rate up a policy?
Correct Answer: C. Charge a temporary surcharge.
Question 37: Which of the following statements describes the Ten-Day Free Look provision?
Correct Answer: C. It gives the insured ten days from date of delivery to return the policy without premium charge for any reason.
Question 38: Which policy will have the highest cash value build up?
Correct Answer: D. Endowment Insurance.
Question 39: Which of the following provisions will waive premium payments on a juvenile policy if the premium payor dies before the insured child's age 25?
Correct Answer: A. Death of Payor benefit.
Question 40: Which of the following statements concerning the Individual Retirement Account (IRA) plan is true?
Correct Answer: D. They can be set up through life insurance company annuity plans.
Question 41: Which of the following is a purpose of naming a contingent beneficiary?
Correct Answer: A. To avoid having life insurance death benefits paid to the primary beneficiary's estate.
Question 42: Which of the following objectives would a key employee life insurance plan accomplish?
Correct Answer: A. Provide a business operating cash at the death of a key executive.
Question 43: Which of the following groups are eligible for group life insurance?
Correct Answer: C. Ten or more debtors of a creditor.
Question 44: Which of the following statements concerning the Tax-Sheltered Annuity (TSA) plan is true?
Correct Answer: B. It can be established through a life insurance company annuity plan or mutual funds.
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT a cost savings typically associated with group insurance'?
Correct Answer: A. Adverse selection.
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT a common reason for buying Term insurance?
Correct Answer: C. Nonforfeiture options
Question 47: Who must have insurable interest?
Correct Answer: B. The beneficiary if he/she is the policy owner.
Question 48: Which clause states the method of premium payment?
Correct Answer: D. Premium Payment clause.
Question 49: Mary Smith is considering buying life insurance. Which of the following is NOT a reason why she would want to purchase life insurance?
Correct Answer: D. To cover living expenses while disabled.
Question 50: Which of the following is a financial interest which the policy owner must possess at the time that a life insurance policy is purchased?
Correct Answer: C. Insurable interest.
Question 1: All of the following statements concerning a life insurance policy Entire Contract provision are trueEXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. It states that the insured will not be covered for suicide during the first two years of the policy.
Question 2: Which of the following statements concerning common life insurance policy provisions is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. The policy owner has the right to surrender the policy and select a nonforfeiture option if the policy is a cash value policy.
Question 3: All of the following statements concerning life insurance Settlement Options are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. The automatic settlement option, if the policy owner fails to select one, is lump sum.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a tax advantage of a life insurance policy?
Correct Answer: A. There is no income tax on benefits paid at the insured's death.
Question 5: Which of the following statements concerning life insurance policy loans is true?
Correct Answer: A. If the insured dies with an outstanding loan, the amount of the outstanding loan will be deducted from the proceeds of the policy.
Question 6: Which of the following is a Dividend Option?
Correct Answer: A. Life Annuity.
Question 7: The amount of payment from a life annuity is based on all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. The annuitant's health.
Question 8: Which of the following statements concerning the underwriting of a life insurance policy applies?
Correct Answer: A. Paramedical examinations are always required.
Question 9: When does a life insurance policy take effect?
Correct Answer: A. Only after the underwriter has reviewed and approved the application.
Question 10: Mr. Harold Lloyd purchased a life insurance policy from High Risk Mutual Insurance Company. Mr. Lloyd inadvertently misstated his age. Instead of accurately reporting that his age was 42, he reported an age of 41. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. Under the Misstatement of Age provision benefits would be reduced to the amount which the insurance company would have offered to a person of the insured's actual age for the premium rate which has been paid.
Question 11: Mr. O'Casey has a IO-year Family Income rider attached to his Straight Whole Life insurance policy. Which of the following statements about his policy is true?
Correct Answer: A. Whenever Mr. O'Casey dies, no matter what his age is at his death, his beneficiary will receive benefits from the rider for ten years from the date of death.
Question 12: All of the following groups are eligible for group insurance EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Ten or more members of an association which was formed for some other purpose other than to obtain coverage on the lives of its members.
Question 13: All of the following statements are true concerning the Premium Payment clause EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. It states the premium mode, that is the frequency with which the premium will be paid.
Question 14: All of the following statements concerning Accidental Death benefits are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. They are paid only if the insured dies as a result of injuries sustained in an accident.
Question 15: Which of the following is NOT a use for life insurance?
Correct Answer: A. Protect a family against loss of income should an income earner die prematurely.
Question 16: Which of the following concerning a Whole (Straight) Life insurance policy is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. It provides a level amount of coverage until the insured's age I00 maturity.
Question 17: Which of the following concerning Term Life insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. Insurance coverage stops at the end of the policy term.
Question 18: All of the following statements concerning a life insurance Policy Change provision are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. It states the insured's right to convert the policy to another policy with a higher premium rate without evidence of insurability.
Question 19: Which of the following concerning life insurance is true?
Correct Answer: A. The policy owner must have an insurable interest at the time that the insured dies.
Question 20: Agent Emily Caitlin has just convinced Mr. Ryan James of his need for a $50,000 life insurance policy. Ms. Caitlin informed Mr. James that he would need a physical examination. He replied that he did not want to make his initial premium payment until such time as she delivered the policy. Under this circumstance, when does the policy take effect?
Correct Answer: A. Upon delivery, with no other requirements applying.
Question 21: All of the following statements concerning life insurance Policy Loan provisions are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. It is found in only permanent life insurance policies, that is cash value life insurance policies.
Question 22: Mr. Harold Lloyd has had a Endowment at Age 65 Life insurance policy since he was age 30. The policy has a face amount of$50,000. Mr. Lloyd is now age 64 and the cash value in his policy is $49,000. Which of the following statements concerning Mr. Lloyd and his Endowment at Age 65 policy is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. If he were to die right now, the policy would pay $50,000 to the beneficiary.
Question 23: Which of the following statements concerning a Limited-Pay Whole Life insurance policy is true?
Correct Answer: A. Premiums can be increased or decreased within limitations specified in the policy.
Question 24: Which of the following statements concerning life insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. It can be used to pay off debts that the insured still has outstanding at death such as mortgages, personal loans, credit obligations and business loans.
Question 25: Ms. Anna failed to make her $500 annual premium payment on her Straight Whole Life insurance policy when it came due on January I two years ago. She has not made that premium payment since she has had a series of financial emergencies. Her circumstances, however, have changed to where she is now able to resume that policy. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: A. Most policies will allow for the reinstatement of the policy within three years.
Question 26: Which of the following statements concerning the Waiver of Premium rider is true?
Correct Answer: A. There will be no increase in cash values while premiums are being waived.
Question 27: Which of the following are true about a Family Life insurance policy and/or a Family Maintenance Life insurance policy?
Correct Answer: A. The Family Maintenance Plan provides life insurance coverage on more than one life.
Question 28: Which of the following statements concerning an IRA Plan is true?
Correct Answer: A. It is an employer sponsored program.
Question 29: All of the following are Dividend Options EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Cash.
Question 30: Which of the following statements concerning a life insurance policy assignment is true?
Correct Answer: A. The policy owner has the right to assign one or more rights in a policy to someone else.
Question 31: Which of the following is NOT a life insurance policy Nonforfeiture Option?
Correct Answer: A. Cash.
Question 32: Mr. Humphrey Bogardt has purchased a life insurance policy. Mr. Bogardt intentionally failed to disclose on the application that he has had Hodgkin's Disease. Which of the following statements concerning Mr. Bogardt's circumstances is true?
Correct Answer: A. Once the policy has been in effect for 180 days, the policy is incontestable, meaning the insurance company cannot deny the claim on the basis of the concealment on the application.
Question 33: All of the following statements concerning a Modified Whole Life insurance policy are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. The Modified Whole Life insurance policy has complementing cash values and pure insurance protection with cash values equaling the face amount at maturity which is always age 100.
Question 34: Which of the following statements concerning Decreasing Term Life insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. It provides decreasing pure life insurance protection starting at an initial face amount and gradually decreases over the period of its term so that at the end of the policy term it provides no protection.
Question 35: Which of the following statements concerning Social Security Survivor benefits is true?
Correct Answer: A. Social Security will pay a lump sum benefit at a currently or fully insured individual's death if there is a qualifying survivor.
Question 36: Which of the following statements about beneficiary designations is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. The owner of the policy has the right to select a beneficiary unless an irrevocable beneficiary has been named.
Question 37: Which of the following statements concerning group life insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. If a previously covered member dies within the 31 day conversion period before making the conversion it will be presumed that he/she intended to exercise his/her conversion right and the benefits, minus premium due, will be paid.
Question 38: All of the following statements about the differences between an Endowment policy and a Straight Whole Life insurance policy are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Cash values equal the face amount at maturity in both policies.
Question 39: Mr. Ryan is contemplating a life insurance purchase. He is considering the relative merits of purchasing either a Straight Whole Life insurance policy, an Adjustable Life insurance policy, a Limited Pay Whole Life policy or a Universal Life insurance policy. Which of the following statements concerning the comparison of these four policies is true?
Correct Answer: A. The Straight Whole Life insurance policy will provide the most flexibility.
Question 40: Which of the following statements describes Key Employee insurance?
Correct Answer: A. It provides for continuation of a business that is highly dependent upon one or a few key employees.
Question 41: Which of the following statements concerning a buy-sell agreement is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. It can be funded by each partner or stockholder in a business buying life insurance policies on all of the other partners or stockholders.
Question 42: Which of the following statements concerning the Guaranteed Insurability rider is true?
Correct Answer: A. It provides the insured the option to purchase additional insurance.
Question 43: All of the following statements concerning the Fair Credit Reporting Act are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. If an insurance company either rates up or denies coverage on the basis of an inspection report, the insurance company must advise the insured that the rating or rejection was based on an inspection report.
Question 44: All of the following statements concerning life insurance policy provisions are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Premium payments may be made to either an agent of an insurance company or an insurance company office.
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT an annuity option?
Correct Answer: A. Fixed Amount (Amount Certain).
Question 1: Which of the following describes a life insurance policy owner?
Correct Answer: C. The policy owner must be in a position of insurable interest only at the time the policy is purchased.
Question 2: Which of the following statements concerning a 20 Year Endowment policy is true?
Correct Answer: C. If the insured dies prior to maturity, the policy will pay the face amount.
Question 3: Which of the following statements concerning Group Life insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. If employees are to pay part of the premiums as in a contributory plan, then at least 50% of all eligible members must participate.
Question 4: Mr. Elbroko has an Adjustable Life insurance policy. Mr. Elbroko is currently in a state of temporary financial emergency. He needs $1,000. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: C. He could borrow against the policy.
Question 5: All of the following statements about an Endowment policy are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. The policy matures at the insured's age 100.
Question 6: Which of the following is NEVER excluded in a life insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. Accidental Death.
Question 7: All of the following about tax sheltered retirement (pension) plans are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: B. Contributions cannot be tax deducted.
Question 8: Which of the following statements concerning Credit Life insurance is true?
Correct Answer: A. Credit Life insurance is Decreasing Term Life insurance used to pay the unpaid balance of an installment loan.
Question 9: All of the following statements concerning the uses of life insurance are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. The cash values in a life insurance policy are never used to accumulate savings.
Question 10: Mr. Green is married and has two children, Harold and Billy. The beneficiary designation on Mr. Green's life insurance policy reads, "Proceeds to be paid to Mrs. Green, wife of the insured, unless she precedes Mr. Green in death or dies as a result of the same accident, in which case benefits will be paid to Harold and Billy Green in like shares." Which of the following statements concerning Mr. Green's beneficiary designation is true?
Correct Answer: D. Mrs. Green is the primary beneficiary, Harold and Billy are contingent beneficiaries.
Question 11: Miss Suzie's policy has a Grace Period in it. Which of the following statements concerning Miss Suzie's Grace Period is true?
Correct Answer: B. If the insured dies within the Grace Period without having made the premium payment, the entire face amount of the policy will be paid minus the premium that was due.
Question 12: Which of the following statements concerning the maximum contributions to an Individual Retirement Account (IRA) or Tax Shelter Annuity(TSA) is true?
Correct Answer: D. Under both plans there are tax penalties for withdrawal prior to age 59 1/2.
Question 13: Which of the following statements concerning a life insurance policy Settlement Option is true?
Correct Answer: C. The policy owner has the right to select the Settlement Option while the insured is still alive and, if the policy owner does not choose a Settlement Option while the insured is alive, the beneficiary can choose a Settlement Option at the insured's death.
Question 14: All of the following statements about Group Life insurance are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. If a covered member who has been covered for 5 years becomes ineligible for coverage because of discontinuation of the plan, he or she may convert to an individual policy within 45 days of termination of the group plan.
Question 15: Which of the following statements concerning a Whole (Straight) Life insurance policy is true?
Correct Answer: C. The insurance company assumes that it will earn interest on the cash values which is applied to the cost of the pure insurance protection.
Question 16: Which of the following statements concerning a life insurance policy application is true?
Correct Answer: A. If the amount of insurance being applied for is great enough, the underwriter may require a paramedical examination as part of the application.
Question 17: Which of the following describes a Family Maintenance Life insurance plan?
Correct Answer: B. It combines a Whole Life insurance policy with a Level Term rider.
Question 18: Which of the following statements are true of Whole (Straight) Life, Limited Pay Whole Life, Modified Whole Life and Adjustable Life insurance?
Correct Answer: C. All four mature at age 100.
Question 19: Which of the following statements concerning the reinstatement of a life insurance policy is true?
Correct Answer: C. A new suicide and incontestability period will apply.
Question 20: All of the following statements concerning Guaranteed Insurability riders are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. The insured must provide evidence of insurability at each option date, and if he or she is not in good health, the policy will be rated.
Question 21: Which of the following is NOT a life insurance underwriting factor?
Correct Answer: C. Nationality of applicant.
Question 22: All of the following statements concerning a life insurance Automatic Premium Loan provision are trueEXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. There is always an extra premium charge when the Automatic Premium Loan provision is included in the life insurance policy.
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT true of a lapsed Whole Life policy with an Accidental Death benefit?
Correct Answer: D. The policy cannot be reinstated.
Question 24: Which of the following is NOT a Settlement Option which the beneficiary of a policy can select?
Correct Answer: D. Paid up life insurance.
Question 25: All of the following statements are true about a Variable Annuity EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. The insured is credited with a fixed amount when he or she contributes into the plan along with a variable interest rate while the insurance company is holding the money waiting for the insured to elect a pay out option.
Question 26: A life insurance policy Insuring Agreement accomplishes which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. It states the insurance company's promise to pay to the insured's beneficiary at the insured's death.
Question 27: Which of the following statements concerning Dividend Options is true?
Correct Answer: B. The owner has the right to select the dividend option and to receive the dividends.
Question 28: Which of the following statements concerning a life insurance policy's provisions is NOT true?
Correct Answer: B. The Misstatement of Age provision states that if the insured intentionally misstates his/her age, benefits are not payable.
Question 29: Which of the following statements about a noncontributory Group Life insurance policy covering 200 lives is true?
Correct Answer: C. Everyone who has met the eligibility requirements must be included in the plan.
Question 30: Which of the following statements about Servicemens Group Life Insurance (SGLI) and Veterans Group Life Insurance (VGLI) is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. Veterans Group Life Insurance is a 10 year group term insurance program which may be converted to individual permanent coverage at standard rates without evidence of insurability within that 10 year period.
Question 31: Mr. Green owns a $25,000 20-Pay Whole Life insurance policy. Mr. Green has owned the policy for about 5 years. The policy has a cash value of$2,000. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: C. It has $23,000 of pure insurance protection.
Question 32: All of the following requirements must be met in order for a policy to take effect EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: B. An unconditional receipt must be issued.
Question 33: Which of the following statements concerning Term Life insurance is true?
Correct Answer: A. Level Term Life insurance provides a level amount of pure insurance protection for a specified period of time.
Question 34: When must a life insurance policy premium be paid?
Correct Answer: B. In advance of the period which is to be covered.
Question 35: Mr. Harold Debonnaire is owner, founder and president of the Debonnaire Products Company. Mr. Debonnaire is concerned because he realizes that his entire business centers around him. The other executives and managers consult with him very frequently on most of the management details of the company. Mr. Debonnaire is afraid that if he were to die the business would incur a substantial loss of profits until someone was able to replace him. Which of the following statements about Mr. Debonnaire's situation is true?
Correct Answer: A. Key Employee insurance is a special life insurance program for Mr. Debonnaire's situation.
Question 36: Which of the following describes Joint Life insurance?
Correct Answer: D. Benefits are paid at the first death of two insured people.
Question 37: Which of the following federal laws pertains to inspection reports?
Correct Answer: D. The Fair Credit Reporting Act.
Question 38: All of the following statements concerning policy changes are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Most life insurance policies permit a change to an insurance plan costing a lower premium.
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT a life insurance policy Nonforfeiture Option?
Correct Answer: B. Dividends.
Question 40: All of the following statements about life insurance policy ownership are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. The policy owner cannot be the same as the insured person.
Question 41: All of the following statements concerning the rating of a life insurance policy are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Interest is not a factor in calculating premium rates.
Question 42: Which of the following statements concerning an inspection report is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. It is always done by the insurance company itself.
Question 43: Mr. Jordan is contemplating the purchase of a Term Life insurance policy. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: D. Term Life insurance provides no cash values for the policy owner to borrow against.
Question 44: Greg Jones purchased a Juvenile Whole Life insurance policy on the life of his son, Greg Jones, Jr., Age 4. Greg Jones, Sr., is to be the premium payor and owner of the policy. Mr. Jones, Sr., is concerned that if he were to die, Greg Jones, Jr., may NOT be able to keep up his premium payments. Which of the following statements concerning Mr. Jones' situation is true?
Correct Answer: C. If Mr. Jones purchases a Death of Payor benefit on his son's policy, premiums would be waived at Mr. Jones' death until the child attains age 25.
Question 45: Which of the following statements concerning a Suicide Clause is true?
Correct Answer: A. It provides that if the insured dies as a result of suicide within the first two years, the insurance company will be required to return the premiums that have been paid.
Question 46: Which of the following describes a Family Income Life insurance plan?
Correct Answer: A. It is a Whole Life insurance policy with a Decreasing Term rider.
Question 47: Ownership of a life insurance policy is important for all of the following reasons EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. The owner has the right to determine who is to be the beneficiary only if the beneficiary has an insurable interest.
Question 48: Which of the following is not a common use for life insurance benefits?
Correct Answer: B. Pay household expenses while the insured is still alive.
Question 49: Which of the following statements concerning a Family Life insurance program is NOT true?
Correct Answer: B. It usually provides a reduced amount of Whole Life insurance coverage on the spouse.
Question 50: Which of the following statements concerning a life insurance conditional receipt is true?
Correct Answer: B. The coverage put into effect by a conditional receipt is of exactly the same form and amount as that provided by the policy which ultimately will replace the conditional receipt.
Question 1: Which of the following express requirements that must be met?
Correct Answer: A. Conditions.
Question 2: What is a purpose of the deductible clause?
Correct Answer: B. To reduce the insurance company's administrative expenses for small claims which the insured can afford him/her self.
Question 3: In order to calculate the amount that an insurance company should pay on a coinsured policy, the insured needs to know all EXCEPT which of the following facts?
Correct Answer: C. The replacement cost of the building on the date the policy was purchased.
Question 4: Which of the following policies are NOT classified as being named peril policies?
Correct Answer: D. Special cause of loss form.
Question 5: Under a property insurance policy a mortgagee is given all of the following rights EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: B. To cancel the policy.
Question 6: Which of the following would be covered under a Homeowners Condominium Unit Owners (HO 6) policy?
Correct Answer: D. Personal property owned by a condominium owner.
Question 7: Which of the following describes a Personal Article floater?
Correct Answer: A. It contains a schedule.
Question 8: Which of the following statements does NOT describe replacement cost coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Fair Market Value.
Question 9: Which of the following statements describes a Special Cause of Loss form?
Correct Answer: B. It is all - risk (open peril) coverage.
Question 10: Which of the following statements concerning package policies is true?
Correct Answer: B. They automatically protect various types of property all in one policy.
Question 11: All of the following statements describe a Building and Personal Property policy EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: B. It automatically covers all broad form perils.
Question 12: Mr. R. James has recently purchased a house which he has converted into three apartments. He does NOT intend to live in any of the apartments himself. Which of the following policies would be appropriate for him?
Correct Answer: A. A Dwelling policy.
Question 13: Any possible cause of loss which can be insured against is called which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Peril.
Question 14: Which of the following are NOT covered by the National Flood Insurance program?
Correct Answer: D. Damage caused by subsidence caused by an unknown cause.
Question 15: A property insurance policy Liberalization Clause does which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Provides that if the insurance company changes its policies so as to provide broader coverage at no greater premium rate, the insured's policy will automatically be considered to be changed to provide the broader better coverage.
Question 16: Which of the following clauses allows the insurance company to cancel coverage after the insured property has been left vacant 60 consecutive days?
Correct Answer: A. Vacancy and Unoccupancy clause.
Question 17: Which of the following clauses entitles the insurance company to the insured's rights to make a claim against a third party to get part of the loss back?
Correct Answer: C. Subrogation clause.
Question 18: Which of the following does NOT qualify as a dwelling building?
Correct Answer: C. A sixplex.
Question 19: A Basic Cause of Loss form does NOT cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Water damage.
Question 20: Which of the following describes actual cash value?
Correct Answer: A. Replacement cost minus depreciation.
Question 21: All of the following are requirements that a legal contract must meet EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: D. Exclusions.
Question 22: Which of the following provides all-risk coverage on buildings, broad form named peril coverage on personal property?
Correct Answer: C. Homeowners Special form (HO 3).
Question 23: Which of the following describes the concept of insurance?
Correct Answer: A. A social device for the transfer of risk through the accumulation of funds.
Question 24: Which of the following is optional and additional under the Dwelling Building and Contents Basic, Broad and Special policies?
Correct Answer: C. Personal property coverage.
Question 25: Which of the following perils are covered under the Special Cause of Loss form?
Correct Answer: C. Discharge from a plumbing or heating pipe.
Question 26: Which of the following is NOT a duty of the insured in a property insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. Give the mortgagee notice of loss.
Question 27: Which of the following would be used by the insured who rents his home?
Correct Answer: D. Homeowners Contents Broad form ( HO 4).
Question 28: Which of the following concerning the Business Owners Policy (BOP) is NOT true?
Correct Answer: B. It is used for large businesses.
Question 29: Which are items that the insurance company will pay for in addition to the policy limits on a Homeowner policy?
Correct Answer: D. Additional coverages.
Question 30: Which of the following statements concerning a Broad Cause of Loss form is true?
Correct Answer: B. It will cover damage caused by a tree limb falling on a roof.
Question 31: Which of the following provides broad form named peril coverage on buildings, outbuildings and personal property?
Correct Answer: B. Homeowners Broad form (HO 2).
Question 32: Which of the following describes pure risk?
Correct Answer: D. A risk which can be insured against where there is only opportunity to lose should loss occur, no opportunity for gain.
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT a peril covered under a Broad Cause of Loss form?
Correct Answer: A. Termite damage.
Question 34: Which of the following is a federal law that protects an applicant with regard to information collected by the insurance company from outside sources?
Correct Answer: A. Fair Credit Reporting Act.
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT an automatic extension included in a Building and Personal Property policy?
Correct Answer: D. Building coverage.
Question 36: Which of the following is the legal concept of the insurance company reimbursing the insured for a covered loss only to the extent of the loss?
Correct Answer: D. Indemnity.
Question 37: Ms. Emily Caitlin has a home with an $80,000 fair market value. The replacement cost of her home is $120,000. She has a $72,000 Homeowners 3 policy with an 80% coinsurance clause and a $100 deductible. If she were to incur a $20,000 fire loss, how much would the insurance company be required to pay?
Correct Answer: A. $14,900.
Question 38: Frayed wiring is which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. A hazard.
Question 39: Which of the following statements concerning a property insurance policy coinsurance clause is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. If the insured is properly insured to value at the time that the policy is purchased, total losses will be fully covered.
Question 40: Which of the following describes Farmowners Package Policies?
Correct Answer: C. It is a package policy that packages together both property insurance and casualty insurance risks that would apply to farms.
Question 41: Which of the following are usually NOT insured for actual cash value?
Correct Answer: A. Buildings.
Question 42: Which of the following is a type of property which is mostly indirect value which is excluded under most property insurance policies?
Correct Answer: C. Valuable papers and bookkeeping records.
Question 43: Which of the following is applicable in a situation where there is concurrent insurance?
Correct Answer: A. Pro rata liability clause.
Question 44: Mr. Ryan James has an all risk property insurance policy. Which of the following statements best describes it?
Correct Answer: A. It covers all risk or perils except those specifically excluded.
Question 45: Which of the following statements concerning an Extra Expense form is true?
Correct Answer: D. It covers the cost of an insured subcontracting some of his/her normal work to another firm while the insured building is untenable as a result of a covered peril.
Question 46: Which of the following statements describes insurable interest?
Correct Answer: C. An insurance company is not required to reimburse an insured for a loss if the insured does not possess insurable interest at the time loss.
Question 47: Which of the following endorsements cover loss of earnings of a business while it is shut down to remodel and restock because of a covered peril?
Correct Answer: D. Business Income endorsement.
Question 48: Which of the following are parts of an insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. Declarations page.
Question 49: The Ryan James residence has a $100,000 replacement cost. It is insured by a $50,000 Homeowner 3 policy which has an 80% coinsurance clause and a $100 deductible. In the event of a total loss to the house, how much will the insurance company pay?
Correct Answer: A. $50,000.
Question 50: Which of the following is NOT a peril covered under a Basic Cause of Loss form?
Correct Answer: B. Weight of ice, snow and sleet.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT a requirement of the National Flood Insurance program?
Correct Answer: A. The property being proposed for insurance must be on a body of water.
Question 2: Which of the following policies would Ms. Emma Ace use to insure the condominium that she just recently purchased?
Correct Answer: C. Homeowners (H. O.) 6.
Question 3: All of the following are requirements that always apply at time of loss EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: D. Under all policies the insurance company must always replace the damaged property with a new, like item.
Question 4: A fire burned a hole in the ceiling of a hotel room. There was charring around the hole and smoke damage throughout the room. The cost of repairing and restoring the hotel room would be classified as which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Direct loss.
Question 5: What is insurance?
Correct Answer: A. It is a social device for the transfer of risk through the accumulation of funds.
Question 6: Which of the following is a peril covered under most fire (property) insurance policies?
Correct Answer: D. Damage caused by a hostile fire.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT found in the policy exclusions of a property insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. The policy takes effect at 12:01 a.m.
Question 8: If a fire policy has a Vacancy and Unoccupancy clause but does NOT have a Vacancy and Unoccupancy Permit added, the insurance company can take which of the following actions?
Correct Answer: B. Terminate coverage after the building has been vacant 60 consecutive days.
Question 9: The E. Ace Company warehouse building has a replacement cost of $100,000. It is insured under a $90,000 property insurance policy which has an 80% coinsurance clause and a $200 deductible. There is $10,000 damage to the building. How much should the insurance company pay?
Correct Answer: B. $ 9,800
Question 10: Mr. R. J. Ryan has a property insurance policy on his building. He would like to verify the effective date and limits of liability on his policy. In what part of the policy should he find those items?
Correct Answer: A. Declarations page.
Question 11: After a fire loss the insured may be required to do which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Separate the damaged property from the undamaged property and allow the insurance company to inspect the undamaged property as well as the insured's books and records.
Question 12: A policy which will protect the insured against all perils except those specifically excluded in the policy is called which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Special (all risk) coverage.
Question 13: Which of the following types of property would qualify for coverage under a Building and Personal Property form?
Correct Answer: A. An office building.
Question 14: Mr. Ryan has a $50,000 Homeowner 3 policy. Mr. Ryan has a total loss in which his building, his detached garage and all the contents are completely destroyed and Mr. Ryan and his family are required to live at a temporary rented apartment for three months. You can assume that Mr. Ryan is fully insured to value. Assume no deductible applies. Which of the following statements concerning Mr. Ryan's coverage for this loss is or are true?
Correct Answer: B. Mr. Ryan's contents and additional living expenses will be covered for up to $40,000, in addition to the $50,000 limits on the building.
Question 15: Vandalism and Malicious Mischief (V, M and M) coverage excludes which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Vandalism coverage after the premises have been left vacant 30 consecutive days.
Question 16: The Basic Cause of Loss form will cover all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Damage caused by weight of ice, snow and sleet.
Question 17: Where would an insured go in his/her policy to find requirements that must be met at time of loss?
Correct Answer: C. Policy conditions.
Question 18: Which of the following is an example of a peril?
Correct Answer: C. Windstorm.
Question 19: Which of the following statements concerning an insurance risk is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. It cannot be estimated by actuarial tables.
Question 20: Which of the following describes the Extra Expense endorsement?
Correct Answer: D. It protects an insured against the extra expense of continuing to do business during a restoration period.
Question 21: Which of the following statements concerning Section 1 coverage limits under a Homeowner policy is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. Additional living expenses (Coverage D) are always covered for 10% of Coverage A.
Question 22: Ms. Emily is applying for insurance on her residence. It is a modern, well built residence located in an urban area. She should consider all of the following EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: B. Personal property is usually insured for replacement cost without additional premium.
Question 23: In which of the following situations does an insurable interest exist?
Correct Answer: A. A person who owns a house.
Question 24: Which of the following is NOT a requirement of a legal contract?
Correct Answer: B. Covered perils.
Question 25: A Homeowner policy can be used for which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. An owner occupied single family dwelling.
Question 26: Ms. Julia applied for a property insurance policy on her office building. The insurance company hired an outside firm to check out the building, verifying its value, use and to see how it was maintained. Which of the following does apply?
Correct Answer: C. If she is rated up or denied due to an inspection report, she must be advised that the rating or rejection was based on an inspection and she has to be given the name and address of the inspection reporting organization.
Question 27: At the time that an insurance company pays a claim it is reimbursing the insured for a loss he/she has sustained. What is this concept called?
Correct Answer: B. Indemnity.
Question 28: The Business Owners Policy (BOP) and Commercial Package Policy (CPP) can cover all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Damage to the building owner’s personal dwelling.
Question 29: Which of the following coverages would NOT apply to a Dwelling Building and Contents Basic form?
Correct Answer: B. Coverage B – Other Structures coverage - 10% of Coverage A optional, additional.
Question 30: Our insured, Mr. Humphrey Bogart, has a next door neighbor by the name of Mr. Broderick Crawford. One night Mr. Crawford was having a party. He was in his back yard talking to his friends, having a good time while barbecuing. Mr. Crawford was having such a good time that he did not notice the fire in his barbecue grill had exceeded the barbecue grill and was igniting the house. Neither did he notice that the fire was beginning to spread at a very rapid rate. When Mr. Crawford became aware of the fire he panicked and did not take immediate remedial action, waiting several minutes before alerting the fire department and did not think to warn his neighbor, Mr. Bogart, that the fire had spread to his property. Mr. Bogart has several thousand dollars damage to his property. Which of the following would be the best course of action for Mr. Bogart to pursue?
Correct Answer: D. Mr. Bogart can make a claim against his own Homeowner insurance policy and let his insurance company subrogate against Mr. Crawford.
Question 31: Which of the following are covered under Section 1 of the Homeowners policy?
Correct Answer: D. Damage caused by a non-listed peril caused while the insured property was being removed from the insured premises to avoid damage caused by covered peril.
Question 32: Mr. Ryan had a chair destroyed by fire. Mr. Ryan's Homeowners policy covered personal property for actual cash value. The chair which had a useful life of ten years was two years old. The original cost of the chair was $75, but it would have cost $100 to buy a new chair like it at the time it was destroyed. Assuming his deductible has already been satisfied, how much should the insurance company pay for the chair?
Correct Answer: B. $80
Question 33: All of the following coverages apply to both the Dwelling Building and Contents Broad and Special form policies EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Coverage D –Rental Value - Automatic, additional coverage.
Question 34: Which of the following will cover damage caused by scorching where there is NOT a fire?
Correct Answer: C. Special (all risk) cause of loss form.
Question 35: Which of the following is classified as a mortgagee?
Correct Answer: B. Lender.
Question 36: Which of the following will cover smoke damage where there is NOT a hostile fire?
Correct Answer: B. Broad cause of loss form.
Question 37: Which of the following is a peril covered by the broad cause of loss form but NOT the basic cause of loss form?
Correct Answer: A. Damage caused by accidental discharge from a plumbing system.
Question 38: Ms. E. A. Ace has had fire damage to her building. The insurance company has paid her claim. Which of the following statements describes the insurance company's subrogation rights?
Correct Answer: B. The insurance company acquires the insured's rights to take legal action against third parties to recover its losses.
Question 39: Which of the following properties could be covered under a Dwelling Building and Contents Broad form?
Correct Answer: A. A single family rental property.
Question 40: Which of the following describes the insurance principle of the law of large numbers?
Correct Answer: B. The more people an insurance company insures the more precise the insurance company can be in calculating their premiums.
Question 41: Which of the following covers the least number of perils commonly insured under property insurance policies?
Correct Answer: A. Basic cause of loss form.
Question 42: Ms. J.J. Jordan owns a home with a replacement value of $60,000. Its fair market value is $40,000. The house originally cost $25,000 to build. It is insured under a Homeowners policy with an 80% coinsurance clause, a face amount of $32,000 and a $500 deductible. There is $24,000 damage to the house. How much should the insurance company pay?
Correct Answer: D. $15,500
Question 43: The Arbitration (Appraisal) clause of a fire insurance policy does NOT state which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. The insured must accept the settlement offered by the insurance company.
Question 44: Which of the following are covered under Homeowners Coverage E - Liability coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Liability rising out of a 10 h.p. motor boat.
Question 45: Which of the following describes the limits of liability of a property insurance policy?
Correct Answer: B. Amount carried.
Question 46: Which of the following statements describe Homeowner insurance coverage on jewelry?
Correct Answer: D. The Personal Article floater protects jewelry all risk worldwide.
Question 47: Which of the following does NOT describe the Liberalization clause of a fire insurance policy?
Correct Answer: B. It provides for an increase in premiums.
Question 48: Which of the following policies should Mr. Sean Jordan use to insure the new apartment that he just rented?
Correct Answer: B. Homeowners (H. O.) 4.
Question 49: Which of the following coverages is an additional coverage under the Building and Personal Property form?
Correct Answer: C. Personal property of the insured.
Question 50: All of the following is true concerning a property insurance coinsurance clause EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: A. Loss adjustment is based on the value of the building at the time policy is purchased.
Question 1: Which of the following is covered under Homeowner Liability coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Bodily injuries and property damage.
Question 2: A Homeowner policy additional coverages covers all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Damage to the dwelling building.
Question 3: Which of the following would apply when the insurance company pays the cost of building a new building when a ten year old one is totally destroyed?
Correct Answer: C. Replacement cost.
Question 4: Our insured, Mr. S. Jordan, carries a fire insurance policy with the face amount of $100,000. The policy has a 80% coinsurance clause. On the date of loss the replacement value of the building is $160,000. If there were to be total loss to the building, what is the maximum amount that the insured will be able to collect?
Correct Answer: B. $100,000.
Question 5: An insured purchased a new building ten years ago for $50,000. It would cost $100,000 to rebuild the building new today. The building has depreciated at a rate of $2,000 per year. The building's present actual cash value is how much?
Correct Answer: B. $80,000.
Question 6: Which of the following is a purpose of the coinsurance clause?
Correct Answer: B. Encourage the insured to fully insure property to value.
Question 7: Negligence would occur under which of the following circumstances?
Correct Answer: C. An insured fails to do what a reasonable and prudent person would do and another person is injured.
Question 8: A scheduled Personal Article floater added to a Homeowner policy can provide all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Blanket coverage.
Question 9: Which of the following would be found in a property insurance policy's conditions?
Correct Answer: D. The insured's responsibilities.
Question 10: Extra Expense coverage covers which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. The additional cost of continuing business after a loss.
Question 11: An insurance policy appraisal (arbitration) clause determines which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Amount of damage.
Question 12: A Building and Personal Property policy automatically includes which of the following extensions of coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Newly acquired property.
Question 13: A Building and Personal Property policy can cover all of the following types of property EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Growing crops.
Question 14: A pair of antique vases are insured under a Homeowner Personal Article floater for $2,000. One of the vases is destroyed by a airplane sonic boom. The remaining vase is worth $200. Assuming that there is no deductible that applies, how much will the insurance company pay?
Correct Answer: C. $1,800.
Question 15: What is one of the purposes of an insurance policy deductible?
Correct Answer: C. Eliminate small claims.
Question 16: Ms. J. J. Jordan has furs and jewelry which have a replacement value in excess of $50,000. Which of the following coverages should she have?
Correct Answer: B. Any Homeowner policy with a Personal Articles floater added.
Question 17: Ms. Emma Ace owned a house that was valued at $50,000. The house was totally destroyed. She had it insured for $60,000. What concept of insurance would be violated if the insurance company paid her $60,000?
Correct Answer: A. Indemnity.
Question 18: Ms. J. J. Jordan has a Dwelling Building and Contents Broad form policy. Coverage D - Rental Value has a limit of $10,000. Which of the following statements apply to Coverage D - Rental Value?
Correct Answer: D. Optional Additional.
Question 19: A Homeowner (H.O.) 2 policy Coverage C - Personal Property coverage sets special limits on all of the following items EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: B. Furniture.
Question 20: Mr. and Mrs. R. James have a home which is insured under a Homeowner (H.O.) 3 policy with Coverage A - Building in the amount of $100,000. Which of the following losses would be covered under the policy?
Correct Answer: C. Mr. James' golf clubs are destroyed by a fire in his garage.
Question 21: Which of the following must the insured do after suffering a property loss?
Correct Answer: B. Take steps to prevent further loss.
Question 22: A Boat (Pleasure Craft) endorsement to a Homeowner policy would pay for which of the following losses?
Correct Answer: A. A boat motor is stolen.
Question 23: The J. Ryan Office Supply Corporation carries a $100,000 insurance policy on a storage building. There is a $50,000 mortgage on the building indicated on the policy declaration page. An explosion destroys the entire building. What is the maximum that the mortgagee can recover?
Correct Answer: C. $50,000
Question 24: Exclusions exist in insurance policies for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer: C. To eliminate coverage for uninsurable perils.
Question 25: All of the following make a property insurance policy a contract of indemnity EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Liberalization clause.
Question 26: An insurance company is obligated to do which of the following under the terms of a property insurance policy?
Correct Answer: A. Pay covered losses.
Question 27: Subrogation would apply after which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. An insured collects from his/her insurance company for damage caused by a third party.
Question 28: Homeowner policy Personal Liability coverage will cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. The insured causes bodily injuries to another golfer on a golf course by accidentally hitting him/her with a misdirected golf shot.
Question 29: An application for Homeowner insurance is denied because of a consumer report. Under the provisions of the Fair Credit Reporting Act, the applicant does NOT have which of the following rights?
Correct Answer: D. To require the insurance company to send a copy of the report to the insured.
Question 30: Mr. S. Jordan insures his television repair shop under a Building and Personal Property policy with Coverage A limits of $100,000, and Coverage B - Personal Property limits of $50,000. A fire causes $10,000 damage to the building and $20,000 damage to personal property. Mr. Jordan has to pay $1,000 for the removal of the fire debris in addition to the damage. His policy has a $100 deductible. How much should the insurance company pay assuming Mr. Jordan is fully insured to value?
Correct Answer: B. $30,900.
Question 31: Which of the following describes an insured's loss when replacement cost is reduced by depreciation?
Correct Answer: B. Actual cash value.
Question 32: The National Flood Insurance Program will NOT cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Landslide damage caused by something other than inundation by water.
Question 33: A newspaper has a fire in its pressroom. There is damage to the press. Which of the following coverages will cover the extra cost of hiring an outside firm to print the newspaper for them while the press is being fixed?
Correct Answer: B. Extra Expense coverage.
Question 34: Under a property insurance policy coinsurance clause, the adjustment (settlement) is equal to which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Amount carried divided by amount required times loss.
Question 35: Which of the following best describes the concept of risk?
Correct Answer: B. Uncertainty of loss.
Question 36: Ms. Emma Ace has her home insured under a Homeowner (H.O.) 3 policy with Coverage A in the amount of $100,000. Her property is insured to value. If she has a $15,000 fire loss to her detached garage, assuming no deductible applies, how much will the insurance company pay?
Correct Answer: C. $10,000.
Question 37: Homeowners policies EXCLUDE which of the following under Section I?
Correct Answer: D. Nuclear reaction.
Question 38: Insurable interest must exist at what time?
Correct Answer: D. At the time of loss.
Question 39: The plumbing in Ms. J. J. Jordan's home broke and the ceilings were damaged by water. The damage will be covered under all of the following Homeowners policies EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Homeowners (H.O.) 1 policy.
Question 40: Which of the following provides that the insured must be given a privacy notice and notice that he/she can refuse to have confidential information disseminated to others?
Correct Answer: D. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act/Privacy act.
Question 41: Without additional premium, which of the following is used to determine the amount of loss to personal property under a Building and Personal Property policy?
Correct Answer: B. Actual cash value.
Question 42: Which of the following would require a change in a Homeowner policy?
Correct Answer: C. A change of mailing address.
Question 43: A dead tree limb hanging over a roof of a house represents which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Hazard.
Question 44: Which of the following would automatically be covered under a Homeowner (H.O.) 3 policy?
Correct Answer: D. A driveway damaged by a falling object.
Question 45: Mr. R. James is fully insured to value under a Homeowner policy which has an 80% coinsurance requirement. Assuming no deductible applies, if he were to suffer a partial loss to his building, the insurance company would pay which of the following percentages?
Correct Answer: C. 100%.
Question 46: The Declarations page of a property insurance policy would tell the insured which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Effective date and expiration date of policy.
Question 47: A Homeowner (H.O.) 2 policy is issued with $100,000 coverage on the building. What amount of coverage automatically applies to additional living expenses if the insured residence is damaged by covered peril?
Correct Answer: C. $30,000.
Question 48: Which of the following types of property would NOT be covered under Coverage A - Building coverage under a Building and Personal Property policy?
Correct Answer: C. A window air conditioner.
Question 49: Which of the following does NOT describe both the Commercial Package Policy (CPP) and the Business Owners Policy (BOP)?
Correct Answer: D. Both automatically cover damage caused by nuclear contamination.
Question 50: Which of the following statements concerning Homeowner Medical Payments coverage is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. It protects the insured and all members of his/her household if injured anywhere on the insured premises.
Question 1: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: C. It is issued to the individual's resident address.
Question 2: According to the state Insurance regulations, an insurance company can contest a health insurance claim only due to fraud after the policy has been in effect how long?
Correct Answer: B. 2 years.
Question 3: Which of the following acts does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: B. Being a Public Adjuster.
Question 4: Which of the following must participate in the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: D. All Illinois admitted companies.
Question 5: All of the following are penalties that could apply for failure to properly maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: D. Class X Felony.
Question 6: A Premium Fund Trust Account can be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: B. An Illinois bank account.
Question 7: Which of the following is a requirement of the Advertising of Accident and Sickness Insurance regulation?
Correct Answer: D. Special awards such a "safe drivers' award" cannot be used in connection with accident and health policies.
Question 8: Which of the following are NOT required to be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. Employers who administer their own employee benefit programs.
Question 9: Which of the following constitutes misappropriation of premium money?
Correct Answer: D. Failing to keep proper records on premium monies.
Question 10: Which is the penalty for an insurance company NOT giving the State Insurance Director proper notice of termination of a license when required?
Correct Answer: B. Civil penalty to the insurance company of up to $1000 per violation.
Question 11: All of the following describe controlled business EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. All of the insurance a person sells is to customers other than family, employees or a personally owned business.
Question 12: Which of the following statements concerning Medicare Supplement insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. Private Medicare Supplement insurance policies do NOT require state Department of Insurance approval.
Question 13: A Premium Fund Trust Account DOES NOT require which of the following records?
Correct Answer: C. Petty cash disbursements.
Question 14: Which of the following describe a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: C. It allows an individual new to insurance sales to go out, start making sales and start earning commissions prior to having passed the written examination.
Question 15: When can an insurance company, Insurance Producer or Business Entity be financially examined by the State Department of Insurance?
Correct Answer: B. All insurance companies must submit annual financial statements to every State Department of Insurance where they are licensed.
Question 16: Which of the following describes brokering?
Correct Answer: A. An Insurance Producer arranges coverage for a client through an insurance company with which the producer does not have an agency contract.
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT a procedure which must be followed by the state Insurance Director when suspending or revoking a producer license?
Correct Answer: C. If a hearing is requested, the Insurance Director must give the insurance producer at least 45 days written notice of the hearing.
Question 18: Who would qualify for an Illinois Non-Resident producer license?
Correct Answer: C. An individual who resides in Kentucky and is licensed as an insurance producer in Kentucky who wants to sell insurance in Illinois.
Question 19: The State Minimum Standards rule does which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Details policy provisions which all individual Accident/Health policies must include.
Question 20: To whom does a producer owe a fiduciary responsibility?
Correct Answer: B. The insurance company.
Question 21: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. The Insurance Producer must report the felony conviction to the State Insurance Director.
Question 22: Mr. R. Bear, an Insurance Producer, has been caught giving a rebate to a client, Ms. E. Caitlin. All of the following penalties apply EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Penalties can be assessed only to the insurance producer, not to the customer.
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer education requirement?
Correct Answer: A. 25 hours of Pre-License Education.
Question 24: Which of the following describes a stock insurance company?
Correct Answer: C. A company owned by stockholders.
Question 25: What is the title of the state official primarily in charge of regulating insurance companies, Insurance Producers and Registered Firms?
Correct Answer: A. Director of Insurance.
Question 26: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to qualify as a professional?
Correct Answer: D. High income.
Question 27: When must a change of address be reported?
Correct Answer: B. A change of address must be reported within 30 days.
Question 28: Which of the following does NOT describe brokerage?
Correct Answer: C. Selling stocks, bonds and real estate in addition to insurance.
Question 29: The State Insurance Director has decided to examine an Insurance Producer. All of the following are procedures that must be followed EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. If the state Department of Insurance examiner writes a report to the Director a copy does not have to be sent to the person examined.
Question 30: Which of the following must be disclosed in an Accident and Health insurance policy advertisement?
Correct Answer: A. Whether the insurance company can refuse to renew, cancel or terminate the policy.
Question 31: Who applies for a Business Entity license?
Correct Answer: B. An authorized member.
Question 32: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer license qualification?
Correct Answer: D. The producer must sell only controlled business.
Question 33: What is the Insurance Producer Administrative fund?
Correct Answer: D. It is a fund that the State Department of Insurance maintains for license fees received.
Question 34: Mr. Ryan James is an insurance company underwriter who is NOT involved in solicitation or negotiation of policies. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: A. He is not required to be licensed.
Question 35: To whom may a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license be issued?
Correct Answer: D. The widow of a deceased Insurance Producer who has never taken the state examinations.
Question 36: All of the following are considered to be a form of advertisement by the Advertising of Accident and Sickness Insurance Regulation EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Rebating.
Question 37: Which of the following statements concerning the advertisement of Accident and Health insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. If the person who is making a testimonial is being paid or has a financial interest in the insurance company it does NOT have to be disclosed.
Question 38: Which of the following does NOT have a fiduciary responsibility to the insurance company in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. Insured.
Question 39: To whom may commissions NOT be paid?
Correct Answer: A. An employee of a Business Entity who did not hold a license for the class of insurance at the time the policy was sold.
Question 40: Which of the following describes altruism?
Correct Answer: D. Unselfishness.
Question 41: Which of the following is a Limited Lines Producer license requirement?
Correct Answer: B. The person must be trustworthy, competent and of good business reputation.
Question 42: In which of the following circumstances would an insurance company be required to report the circumstances concerning the termination of a producer's agency contract?
Correct Answer: D. The producer was caught misappropriating premium monies from customers.
Question 43: What is the fee for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. $ 50 one time.
Question 1: An insurance company terminated a producer's agency contract because the producer was caught misappropriating premium monies. The insurance company failed to report this to the State Insurance Director. What penalties may apply?
Correct Answer: B. A civil penalty to the insurance company.
Question 2: Which of the following is a Limited Lines Producer license requirement?
Correct Answer: B. The person must be trustworthy, competent and of good business reputation.
Question 3: Which of the following was originally chartered in the state in which it is doing business?
Correct Answer: A. Domestic companies.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a procedure which must be followed by the State Insurance Director when suspending or revoking a producer license?
Correct Answer: C. If a hearing is requested, it can be held anywhere in the state of Illinois.
Question 5: When can commissions be paid to a person who is NOT currently licensed?
Correct Answer: B. If the person was properly licensed at the time the policy was sold.
Question 6: What is the title of the state official primarily in charge of regulating insurance companies, Insurance Producers and Business Entities?
Correct Answer: A. Director of Insurance.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to qualify as a professional?
Correct Answer: D. High income.
Question 8: What is the fee for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. $ 50 one time.
Question 9: What is the license fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. $ 150 per two years.
Question 10: Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. A producer sells insurance on the life of a friend.
Question 11: The State Minimum Standards rule applies to what type of policies?
Correct Answer: B. All individual Health insurance policies.
Question 12: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: A. A person with an Insurance Producer license can sell for only one insurance company.
Question 13: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer license qualification?
Correct Answer: D. The producer must sell only controlled business.
Question 14: All of the following statements concerning the sale of Medicare Supplement insurance are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. The Insurance Producer does not have a responsibility to determine the appropriateness of the policy in light of the applicant's other coverages.
Question 15: When must a Premium Fund Trust Account be maintained?
Correct Answer: C. Whenever a producer is going to hold monies for 15 days.
Question 16: In which situations must an Insurance Producer be disclosed in a policy?
Correct Answer: A. All policies.
Question 17: Mr. R. Bear, an Insurance Producer, has been caught giving a rebate to a client, Ms. E. Caitlin. Which of the following penalties does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: C. Mr. R. Bear can be fined up to $5000 and/or be sentenced to 5 years in prison.
Question 18: A Premium Fund Trust Account can be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: B. An Illinois bank account.
Question 19: Which of the following is NOT an Unfair Method of Competition for which a person can be fined a maximum civil penalty of $5000?
Correct Answer: A. Misappropriating premium moneys.
Question 20: Which of the following is a license requirement?
Correct Answer: D. Application from the individual applicant.
Question 21: Who has a fiduciary responsibility to the insurance company in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: D. A Business Entity who has submitted an insurance application to an insurance company which the insurance company accepted.
Question 22: When is an insurance company considered to have a qualified training program?
Correct Answer: A. When at least 50% of its Temporary Insurance Producers obtain Insurance Producer licenses prior to the expiration of their Temporary Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 23: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: C. It is issued to the individual's resident address.
Question 24: Which is a penalty for acting as an Insurance Producer without a proper license?
Correct Answer: A. Class A Misdemeanor.
Question 25: Which of the following is a penalty for an Unfair Method of Competition such as overstating the financial status of an insurance company?
Correct Answer: C. Fine of not less than $100, but not more than $5000.
Question 26: Which of the following statements concerning the Department of Insurance Advertisement of Accident and Sickness Insurance regulation is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. It can be stated the insured may profit from being disabled.
Question 27: Ms. J. Jordan, an Insurance Producer, has been caught violating the controlled business requirement. Which of the statements is true?
Correct Answer: C. That means she did not sell as much insurance to others as what she sold to herself, her spouse, her own business or her employer.
Question 28: Which of the following statements describes a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: B. It is an organization that sells and services insurance.
Question 29: To whom may a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license be issued?
Correct Answer: D. The widow of a deceased Insurance Producer who has never taken the state examinations.
Question 30: Which of the following must be disclosed in an Accident/Health insurance advertisement?
Correct Answer: A. The name of the insurance company.
Question 31: Which of the following is an objective of the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: A. Prevent insureds from losing benefits when insurance companies become insolvent.
Question 32: Mr. S. Jordan, an Insurance Producer, has been caught making an intentional, material misstatement on an application for his Insurance Producer license. Which of the following penalties does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: A. Up to one year in jail.
Question 33: According to the state Insurance regulations, an insurance company can contest a health insurance claim only due to fraud after the policy has been in effect how long?
Correct Answer: B. 2 years.
Question 34: Who would qualify for an Illinois Non-Resident producer license?
Correct Answer: C. An individual who resides in Kentucky and is licensed as an insurance producer in Kentucky who wants to sell insurance in Illinois.
Question 35: Which of the following is not a record required by a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Paid invoices for office expenses.
Question 36: Which of the following can be considered to be pre-existing conditions under the State Department of Insurance rules?
Correct Answer: A. Something that occurred before the inception date of the policy and continued to manifest itself up to the inception of the policy.
Question 37: To sell insurance, which of the following must have a license, but does NOT have to take a written examination?
Correct Answer: D. Limited Lines Producers.
Question 38: Which of the following have to be licensed as an insurance producer?
Correct Answer: C. People who quote rates and negotiate coverages.
Question 39: How often can the State Insurance Director financially examine an Insurance Producer?
Correct Answer: D. At random.
Question 40: Which of the following acts does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: B. Being a Public Adjuster.
Question 41: Which of the following must be disclosed in an Accident and Health insurance policy advertisement?
Correct Answer: A. Whether the insurance company can refuse to renew, cancel or terminate the policy.
Question 42: Which of the following describes a Limited Lines Producer?
Correct Answer: D. An individual who can sell only certain limited types of insurance.
Question 1: Which of the following acts requires an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. Actively selling insurance.
Question 2: Which of the following is a legal Accident/Health insurance advertising practice?
Correct Answer: C. Stating that the initial premium is reduced, but will increase later.
Question 3: They are not required to take the Illinois examination if their resident state requires examination of Illinois producers.
Correct Answer: C. A company owned by stockholders.
Question 4: Which of the following describes altruism?
Correct Answer: D. Unselfishness.
Question 5: Who applies for a Business Entity license?
Correct Answer: B. An authorized member.
Question 6: What is a penalty for NOT being properly licensed as an insurance producer?
Correct Answer: D. Class A misdemeanor for selling one policy without a proper license.
Question 7: Which of the following is a Temporary Insurance Producer license requirement?
Correct Answer: C. The applicant must be in the process of fulfilling the Pre-License Education requirement.
Question 8: An Insurance Producer has died. Which statement applies?
Correct Answer: A. A Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license may be obtained by a surviving spouse without examination.
Question 9: When can an insurance company, Insurance Producer or Business Entity be financially examined by the State Department of Insurance?
Correct Answer: B. All insurance companies must submit annual financial statements to every State Department of Insurance where they are licensed.
Question 10: A Premium Fund Trust Account may be maintained in any of the following types of accounts EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. A New York bank account.
Question 11: Failure to maintain proper records on premium monies can result in all of the following penalties EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Revocation of license for 5 years.
Question 12: What insurance companies must participate in the Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: D. All admitted insurance companies.
Question 13: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. The Insurance Producer must report the felony conviction to the State Insurance Director.
Question 14: Which of the following is ALWAYS an Insurance Producer license requirement?
Correct Answer: A. $215 per two-year Illinois Insurance Department fee.
Question 15: What is the penalty for rebating?
Correct Answer: B. Class B Misdemeanor.
Question 16: State law allows an insurance company to contest a claim because of a misstatement on an Accident and Health insurance application after two years only for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer: A. Fraud.
Question 17: All of the following are penalties that can be applied to misappropriation of premium money EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. 20 years prison.
Question 18: Which of the following does NOT describe controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. All of the insurance a person sells is to cold prospects the producer does not know.
Question 19: All of the following are considered to be a form of advertisement by the Advertising of Accident and Sickness Insurance Regulation EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Rebates.
Question 20: Commissions can be paid to whom?
Correct Answer: A. A licensed Insurance Producer who solicits or binds an insurance policy.
Question 21: Which of the following statements concerning the advertisement of Accident and Health insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. If the person who is making a testimonial is being paid or has a financial interest in the insurance company it does not have to be disclosed.
Question 22: What is the license fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. $150 per two years.
Question 23: Which of the following statements concerning Medicare Supplement insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. Private Medicare Supplement insurance policies do not require state Department of Insurance approval.
Question 24: Which of the following does NOT have a fiduciary responsibility to the insurance company in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. Insured.
Question 25: Which of the following situations could be considered by State Department of Insurance rules to be a pre-existing condition?
Correct Answer: D. Mr. Sean had fainting spells and excruciating pain about two weeks before he took out his policy, but he did not seek medical attention.
Question 26: Which of following statements apply to Non-Resident Insurance Producers?
Correct Answer: B. Their policies do not have to be countersigned by a resident Producer.
Question 27: Who can terminate an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. The individual person.
Question 28: Which of the following does NOT describe brokerage?
Correct Answer: C. Selling stocks, bonds and real estate in addition to insurance.
Question 29: When must money be deposited to a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: B. When holding monies 15 days or more.
Question 30: In which of the following circumstances would an insurance company be required to report the circumstances concerning the termination of a producer's agency contract?
Correct Answer: D. The producer was caught misappropriating premium monies from customers.
Question 31: All of the following are requirements for an Insurance Producer license EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. At least age 21.
Question 32: A Premium Fund Trust Account requires all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Policyholder’s personal information.
Question 33: Which of the following are NOT required to be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. Employers who administer their own employee benefit programs.
Question 34: Which of the following is required to take an examination?
Correct Answer: C. Someone who was licensed in another state but terminated his/her license more than two years ago.
Question 35: When is a Premium Finance Company license required?
Correct Answer: C. An Insurance Producer has allowed more than 10% of his/her accounts receivable to go over 90 days.
Question 36: In which of the following cases may the Insurance Producer bond be waived?
Correct Answer: A. The individual intends to broker no insurance.
Question 37: Which of the following is an example of a rebate?
Correct Answer: D. An Insurance Producer offers a prospect a $100 discount if the prospect will buy.
Question 38: Which of the following statements concerning a stated value noncoordinating health insurance policy is true?
Correct Answer: D. It pays a stated (fixed) benefit independent of the insured’s actual hospital /medical bills.
Question 39: Which of the following is a requirement that applies after an examination has been made?
Correct Answer: B. If an Insurance Producer receives a report from the State Insurance Director alleging substantive violations of State Insurance Laws, he or she has 14 days to demand a hearing.
Question 40: Which of the following statements concerning suspension and revocation of license is true?
Correct Answer: D. When a license is revoked, the individual can apply for a license again after three years.
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for violating an order issued by the State Insurance Director as a result of an examination or hearing?
Correct Answer: C. Up to 1 year in jail.
Question 42: Which of the following describes a Limited Lines Producer license?
Correct Answer: B. Applicant must be competent, trustworthy and of good business reputation.
Question 43: What is the Insurance Producer Administrative fund?
Correct Answer: D. It is a fund that the State Department of Insurance maintains for license fees received.
Question 1: All of the following are penalties that could apply for failure to properly maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Revocation of license.
Question 2: Which of the following statements about revocation of a producer license is true?
Correct Answer: A. At the end of the revocation period the producer automatically gets his or her license back.
Question 3: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of altruism?
Correct Answer: A. Unselfishness.
Question 4: The State Insurance Director has decided to examine an Insurance Producer. Which of the following is NOT a procedure that must be followed?
Correct Answer: A. All persons being examined as well as their officers, directors and employees must provide the State Insurance Director or his/her examiners convenient and free access at all reasonable hours to their offices, records and documents.
Question 5: When collecting and accounting for premium moneys to whom does a producer owe a fiduciary responsibility?
Correct Answer: A. The insured.
Question 6: Which of the following describes brokering?
Correct Answer: A. An Insurance Producer arranges coverage for a client through an insurance company with which the producer does not have an agency contract.
Question 7: Which of the following statements concerning the advertisement of Accident and Sickness insurance policies is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. Limited disease policies must conspicuously state the limited nature of the policy.
Question 8: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer education requirement?
Correct Answer: A. 25 hours of Pre-License Education.
Question 9: Which of the following is a requirement of the Advertising of Accident and Sickness Insurance regulation?
Correct Answer: A. Statements that applicants will receive substantial advantages not available at a later date when, in fact, they will be available at later dates.
Question 10: What is the license fee for a Limited Lines Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. $75 per year.
Question 11: An Insurance Producer has entered the military. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. The Director of Insurance will not waive license renewal application, fee or continuing education requirements.
Question 12: All of the following constitute misappropriation of premium money EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Pay office salaries out of premiums collected.
Question 13: Which of the following is a requirement for a Non-Resident Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. All applicants must pass an Illinois written examination.
Question 14: Which of the following statements describes a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: A. Its purpose is to keep monies being held for insurance companies separate from personal or business monies.
Question 15: To whom may commissions NOT be paid?
Correct Answer: A. An employee of a Business Entity who did not hold a license for the class of insurance at the time the policy was sold.
Question 16: Mr. Ryan James is an insurance company underwriter who is NOT involved in solicitation or negotiation of policies. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: A. He is not required to be licensed.
Question 17: Which of the following is an example of an illegal rebate?
Correct Answer: A. Taking a client out to lunch so that you will have an opportunity to make a sales presentation.
Question 18: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer bond is true?
Correct Answer: A. Only applicants for an Insurance Producer license covering all lines of insurance must file a bond.
Question 19: Mr. S. Jordan was completely cured from asthma 5 years prior to purchasing a health insurance policy. Which of the following measures can the insurance company NOT take?
Correct Answer: A. Classify the asthma as a pre-existing condition under a Pre-Existing condition clause.
Question 20: Which of the following is an Insurance Producer examination requirement?
Correct Answer: A. An individual must pass the examination for at least one class of insurance to be licensed in all classes of insurance.
Question 21: Which of the following must participate in the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: A. All Illinois domestic companies.
Question 22: Which of the following statements concerning termination of an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: A. It can be revoked if the Continuing Education requirement is not satisfied
Question 23: All of the following statements concerning licensing are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. A Temporary Insurance Producer license in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service is issued for a period of 180 days and may be renewed for an additional term.
Question 24: Which of the following is a disbursement that may be made from a Premium Trust Account?
Correct Answer: A. Office rent.
Question 25: The State Insurance Director has which of the following powers?
Correct Answer: A. Approve all premium rates.
Question 26: Which of the following situations would require a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: A. An Insurance Producer charges premiums and bills on account collecting all monies within 90 days.
Question 27: When must a change of address be reported?
Correct Answer: A. An Insurance Producer must report only a change of business address.
Question 28: Mr. Strong Hitter, a famous Redbird player, has agreed to appear on television on behalf of Fast Pay Mutual Insurance Company. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: A. Any testimonial statements he makes must be genuine and represent his current opinion.
Question 29: All of the following describe an Insurance Producer EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. An individual who sells insurance.
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT a type of insurance that can be sold by a Limited Lines Producer?
Correct Answer: A. Whole Life insurance.
Question 31: A policy CANNOT be called a Medicare Supplement policy unless which of the following requirements are met?
Correct Answer: A. It must be a Plan A.
Question 1: An auto was damaged by a hit and run driver. Which coverage applies?
Correct Answer: C. Uninsured Motorist Property Damage.
Question 2: Which of the following does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. Working as a receptionist in an insurance company home office.
Question 3: An Insurance Producer surrendered her license in order to assume a public office. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: C. She can later become re-licensed without re-examination.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT an Unfair Method of Competition which carries with it a fine of up to $5,000?
Correct Answer: C. Selling additional policies to established customers.
Question 5: All of the following statements concerning the State Workers Compensation Act are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. There is no penalty for not carrying Workers Compensation Insurance or having a self-insurance plan.
Question 6: An insurance company can pay renewal commissions to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. An individual not currently licensed, but who was licensed at the time that the policy was sold.
Question 7: An employee has been injured in a work related accident. The employer does NOT have Workers Compensation insurance. Which of the following penalties applies?
Correct Answer: A. The employer loses all Common Law defenses.
Question 8: Which of the following statements concerning the Insurance Producer written examination is true?
Correct Answer: B. An application and fees must be submitted.
Question 9: When is an Insurance Producer bond required?
Correct Answer: B. When an Insurance Producer intends to broker insurance.
Question 10: Which of the following is a purpose of the Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Both to establish bookkeeping requirements and to keep moneys from being commingled.
Question 11: Which of the following do NOT have to be licensed?
Correct Answer: D. Salaried Business Entity employees who are not paid a commission and who are engaged only in clerical duties.
Question 12: The Insurance Director has held a hearing concerning an Insurance Producer's violation of the State Insurance Code. Which of the following does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: C. The Insurance Producer is not bound (obligated) by the State Insurance Director order.
Question 13: Mr. R. James, an Insurance Producer, has entered the military. Which of the following statements concerning his Insurance Producer license applies?
Correct Answer: B. He may obtain waiver of license renewal while he is in the military if he does not intend to sell insurance while in the military.
Question 14: Which of the following requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: C. Charging premiums on account for more than 90 days without charging interest.
Question 15: Which of the following statements best describes a stock insurance company?
Correct Answer: A. Owned by its stockholders.
Question 16: Which of the following qualifies for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. An individual whose appointing insurance company has made application, is enrolled in a qualified training program and who is in the process of fulfilling the Pre-License Education requirements.
Question 17: What is the penalty for selling insurance without the proper license and misappropriating premiums?
Correct Answer: B. A class 4 Felony.
Question 18: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: A. The felony conviction must be reported within 30 days of judgment being entered.
Question 19: What is a penalty for NOT maintaining premium monies in a proper manner?
Correct Answer: D. A license can be revoked.
Question 20: An individual may satisfy the State Financial Responsibility requirement how?
Correct Answer: A. By posting evidence of an insurance policy covering either the driver or the automobile in effect at the time of the accident.
Question 21: All of the following are qualities needed to be professional EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: A. Large numbers of clients.
Question 22: An Insurance Producer CANNOT do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Sell the insured any product the producer wants to without regard to the insured's best interest.
Question 23: Which of the following describes the Insurance Producer Administrative Fund?
Correct Answer: D. It is a fund in which all license fees are deposited by the State Department of Insurance.
Question 24: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for misappropriating premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty of not more than $500.
Question 25: Which of the following is a rebate?
Correct Answer: D. An Insurance Producer giving a client a $100 discount on a Homeowner policy.
Question 26: The State Insurance Director can financially examine which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. All domestic insurance companies periodically.
Question 27: How many days notice is required when canceling an insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. 10 days notice for nonpayment of premiums.
Question 28: Payments CANNOT be made out of a Premium Fund Trust Account for which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Office salaries
Question 29: Which of the following statements concerning Auto Insurance limits of liability is true?
Correct Answer: A. Minimum Liability coverage limits are $25,000/$50,000/$20,000.
Question 30: Which of the following statements concerning a Limited Lines Producer is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. The individual applicant must apply and pay the required fees.
Question 31: What is a fiduciary duty?
Correct Answer: C. It is an obligation of special or extra care.
Question 32: A Limited Lines Producer license can be terminated by whom?
Correct Answer: C. Either the insurance company, the state Insurance Director or the individual Limited Lines Producer.
Question 33: Which of the following statements concerning license suspension and revocation is true?
Correct Answer: D. A license can be revoked due to misappropriation of premiums.
Question 34: To whom is an Insurance Producer responsible while holding premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. The insurance company.
Question 35: What is the State of Illinois fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: B. $150 per two years.
Question 36: A change of address must be reported when?
Correct Answer: C. 30 days.
Question 37: An insurance company has terminated a Limited Lines Producer because he was caught accepting insurance business from someone who was NOT licensed. The insurance company failed to report the circumstances to the State Insurance Director. Which of the following penalties applies?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company is subject to a civil penalty or suspension or revocation of its license.
Question 38: Insurance Producers S. Jordan and R. James have jointly sold an insurance policy to Ms. E. Caitlin. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. Both of their names must be disclosed on the policy.
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT contained on an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. Name of insurance company.
Question 40: Which of the following statements concerning a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license is true?
Correct Answer: A. It allows the sale of insurance only as the Insurance Director allows.
Question 41: An auto policy can be cancelled or nonrenewed for what reason?
Correct Answer: A. Cancelled due to misrepresentation in the application.
Question 42: What is an Illinois Pre-License Education requirement?
Correct Answer: A. 20 hours of instruction for each class of insurance.
Question 43: The State Workers Compensation Commission does all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Supervises the Workers Compensation Assigned Risk Pool.
Question 1: Which of the following is true concerning a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. It is the same as an insurance agency.
Question 2: A Worker's Compensation insurance policy will NOT cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Medical expenses, lost wages, and permanent disability benefits for which an employer becomes responsible as a result of a work accident.
Question 3: What is it called when an individual applying for a non-resident insurance license is NOT required to take an examination because his or her resident state does NOT require an examination of individuals from other states wishing to become Non-Resident Producers?
Correct Answer: A. Reciprocity.
Question 4: Which of the following does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. Receive commissions.
Question 5: Which of the following penalties for Unfair Methods of Competition apply?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty of not more than $500 for misstating the financial status of an insurance company.
Question 6: What is the fee for an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. $215 per two years paid by the producer.
Question 7: Who does Uninsured Motorists and Underinsured Motorists coverages protect?
Correct Answer: A. The insured only.
Question 8: A Premium Fund Trust Account can be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: A. Checking account in an Illinois bank.
Question 9: Which types of insurance can a Limited Lines Producer NOT sell?
Correct Answer: A. Homeowners insurance.
Question 10: An Insurance Producer agency contract was terminated by an insurance company because the producer was caught misappropriating premiums. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: A. The insurance company has no obligation to report this to the State Department of Insurance.
Question 11: An Insurance Producer has been caught misappropriating premium monies. The State Insurance Director has issued an order revoking her license. Which of the following procedures must be followed?
Correct Answer: A. The Insurance Director must send that person a written notice of revocation at least 60 days prior to its effective date.
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT a qualification to obtain coverage through the Automobile Insurance Plan?
Correct Answer: A. Have been rejected for auto insurance.
Question 13: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for violating an order issued by the State Insurance Director?
Correct Answer: A. License suspension.
Question 14: What is the State of Illinois fee for a Limited Lines Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. $50 per year paid by the insurance company.
Question 15: Which must an insurance company do when canceling or nonrenewing an auto policy?
Correct Answer: A. Always calculate the return premium on a short rate basis.
Question 16: Which of the following is NOT a qualification for an Insurance Producer's license?
Correct Answer: A. Payment of fees.
Question 17: Mr. R. James, an Insurance Producer, has an agreement with Crash Mutual Automobile Insurance Company. The agreement authorizes Mr. James to sell and service policies issued by Crash Mutual. What would you call that agreement?
Correct Answer: A. An agency agreement.
Question 18: Which of the following statements concerning the Workers Compensation Assigned Risk Pool is true?
Correct Answer: A. It is supervised by the State Attorney General.
Question 19: Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity for which a license can be suspended?
Correct Answer: A. Willfully violating any State Insurance Law.
Question 20: Which of the following statements concerning premium monies is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. When an insurance company accepts an application submitted by an Insurance Producer and issues a policy, the insurance company automatically authorizes the Insurance Producer to collect the premiums for it.
Question 21: Which of the following must be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. The next of kin of a deceased Insurance Producer who wishes to maintain the deceased producer's business.
Question 22: Which of the following are NOT required to carry Workers Compensation insurance?
Correct Answer: A. Employers of clerical employees.
Question 23: What percentage of Temporary Insurance Producers must pass their exams and obtain Insurance Producer licenses in order for an insurance company to have a qualified training program?
Correct Answer: A. 25% each six-month period.
Question 24: Which of the following is NOT an example of controlled business?
Correct Answer: A. Selling insurance primarily to oneself.
Question 25: When must an insurance company allow a rate reduction on an auto policy?
Correct Answer: A. An auto equipped with a CB radio.
Question 26: There is a State Insurance Law which sets forth the amount of time in which various types of claims must be paid. What is it called?
Correct Answer: A. State Financial Responsibility Law.
Question 1: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and/or nonrenewal of an Auto Insurance policy is true?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company must notify the insured of his or her right to appeal the cancellation or nonrenewal to the State Insurance Director.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for improperly maintaining a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Class B Misdemeanor.
Question 3: What is the penalty for acting as an Insurance Producer without a license?
Correct Answer: D. Class A Misdemeanor for acting as an Insurance Producer without proper licensing.
Question 4: An Insurance Producer has all of the following duties to an insured EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: D. Make sure the insured is always getting the lowest premium rate possible.
Question 5: Ms. J. Jordan, an Insurance Producer, was elected to a public office. Election to that office required her to surrender her Insurance Producer license in order to avoid any possibility of a conflict in interest. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. Ms. Jordan will not have to retake the examination to get her license within four years.
Question 6: Which of the following statements concerning financial examinations is true?
Correct Answer: B. All insurance companies must submit detailed financial statements to all State Department of Insurances where they are licensed every year.
Question 7: What is controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. Selling insurance only to yourself, your spouse, the business you are employed by, or your own business.
Question 8: Which of the following describes a stock insurance company?
Correct Answer: A. Owned by stockholders.
Question 9: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for misappropriating premium monies?
Correct Answer: C. Continuing Education.
Question 10: Which of the following would be an example of rebating?
Correct Answer: A. Paying someone a referral fee only if the referral buys.
Question 11: What is the license fee for a Limited Insurance Representative license?
Correct Answer: B. $50 per year paid by the insurance company.
Question 12: Which of the following statements concerning the State Workers Compensation Commission is true?
Correct Answer: C. All insurance and self-insurance plans must be filed with it.
Question 13: Which of the following describes Underinsured Motorists coverage?
Correct Answer: C. It covers the difference between the at-fault driver's liability limits and the insured's Underinsured Motorist limits.
Question 14: Which of the following do NOT have to be disclosed in an insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. Underwriters.
Question 15: If an insurance company becomes insolvent, which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. An assessment may be made against the members of the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund to pay claims.
Question 16: When can commissions be paid?
Correct Answer: D. To someone who was properly licensed for the line of insurance sold at the time the sale was made.
Question 17: Which of the following is a special state fund in which all license and examination fees are deposited by the State Insurance Director?
Correct Answer: B. Insurance Producer Administrative Fund.
Question 18: Which of the following statements concerning a change of address is true?
Correct Answer: C. All changes of address must be reported within 30 days.
Question 19: Which of the following applies when an Insurance Producer enters the military?
Correct Answer: B. If the individual is not going to sell any insurance while in the military, he or she may file for a waiver from license fees while in the military.
Question 20: How may an individual obtain coverage through the Automobile Insurance Plan?
Correct Answer: D. Apply directly him or herself.
Question 21: When an Insurance Producer accepts premium money, the producer has an obligation of special or extra responsibility. What is that called?
Correct Answer: A. A fiduciary responsibility.
Question 22: In which of the following situations is a license required, but NO examination (which of the following is an exemption from examination)?
Correct Answer: B. Applicants for Non-Resident Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 23: Which of the following is an Unfair Method of Competition carrying with it a fine of not more than $5,000?
Correct Answer: C. Misrepresenting the financial status of an insurance company.
Question 24: A Workers Compensation policy will NOT cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Common Law liability to someone other than an employee.
Question 25: All of the following are qualities needed to be professional EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: A. Large number of clients.
Question 26: Which of the following requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: D. Allowing a client more than 90 days to pay his premiums without charging him interest or any late charges.
Question 27: Which of the following statements concerning Business Entities is true?
Correct Answer: C. A Business Entity is a person or organization who employees individuals to act as Insurance Producers.
Question 28: Which of the following parties do NOT have a special responsibility in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: B. The insured.
Question 29: Which of the following statements describes an Insurance Producer?
Correct Answer: D. An individual who sells, solicits or negotiates coverage on property located in Illinois.
Question 30: Which of the following is a qualification for a Limited Lines Producer license?
Correct Answer: B. Trustworthy, competent and of good business reputation.
Question 31: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and/or nonrenewal of an auto policy is state law?
Correct Answer: A. After an auto policy has either been in effect 60 days or renewed, the policy can be cancelled only for certain reasons specified in the State Insurance Laws.
Question 32: Which of the following statements concerning Uninsured Motorists coverage is true?
Correct Answer: B. It must be written with minimum limits of $25,000/$50,000.
Question 33: When must an insurance company provide the State Insurance Director with information pertaining to the termination of a producer?
Correct Answer: C. When the producer is being terminated because he or she violated an insurance law.
Question 34: Which of the following is a Continuing Education requirement?
Correct Answer: C. Completing a course that has been approved by the State Department of Insurance.
Question 35: When can a Temporary Insurance Producer license be issued?
Correct Answer: C. Before an examination has been taken as long as the individual is enrolled in a qualified training program provided by the appointing insurance company and is engaged in a Pre-License Education program.
Question 36: Which of the following must be reported to the State Insurance Director?
Correct Answer: A. A felony conviction.
Question 37: Which of the following can be done by an individual possessing a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service License?
Correct Answer: A. Anything a producer can normally do, unless the Insurance Director imposes limitations.
Question 38: When is an Insurance Producer license bond required?
Correct Answer: B. When the producer sometimes acts as a broker.
Question 39: The primary purpose of a Premium Fund Trust Account is what?
Correct Answer: C. To keep premium monies held for insurance companies separate from other monies.
Question 40: All of the following must carry Workers Compensation Insurance or have a self-insurance plan filed EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Employers of certain types of farm and domestic employees.
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for a serious, willful violation of a State Insurance Law?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 no matter how many offenses have been committed.
Question 42: An insurance company has terminated a producer because she did something illegal. The insurance company has failed to report this to the State Department of Insurance. Which of the following penalties would apply?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty.
Question 43: Which of the following types of disbursements CANNOT be made from a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: C. Direct payment of advertising expenses.
Question 44: An individual has been examined by the State Department of Insurance. He/she has received a report alleging substantive violations. He/she must request a hearing within how many days?
Correct Answer: B. 14 days.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for misappropriating premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty of not more than $500.
Question 2: When is an Insurance Producer bond required?
Correct Answer: B. When an Insurance Producer intends to broker insurance.
Question 3: Which of the following must be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. The next of kin of a deceased Insurance Producer who wishes to maintain the deceased producer's business.
Question 4: Which of the following statements concerning the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund is true?
Correct Answer: C. All property/casualty insurance companies admitted to sell insurance in Illinois must participate.
Question 5: If an insurance company becomes insolvent, which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. An assessment may be made against the members of the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund to pay claims.
Question 6: What is the penalty for selling insurance without the proper license and misappropriating premiums?
Correct Answer: B. A class 4 Felony.
Question 7: An auto policy can be cancelled or nonrenewed for what reason?
Correct Answer: A. Cancelled due to misrepresentation in the application.
Question 8: Which of the following is NOT an example of controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. Selling only to clients to which the producer has no personal relationship.
Question 9: Which of the following requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: C. Charging premiums on account for more than 90 days without charging interest.
Question 10: In which of the following situations is a license required, but NO examination (which of the following is an exemption from examination)?
Correct Answer: B. Applicants for Non-Resident Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 11: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and/or nonrenewal of an auto policy is state law?
Correct Answer: A. After an auto policy has either been in effect 60 days or renewed, the policy can be cancelled only for certain reasons specified in the State Insurance Laws.
Question 12: All of the following must carry Workers Compensation Insurance or have a self-insurance plan filed EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Employers of certain types of farm and domestic employees.
Question 13: An insurance company has terminated a producer because she did something illegal. The insurance company has failed to report this to the State Department of Insurance. Which of the following penalties would apply?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty.
Question 14: When can commissions be paid?
Correct Answer: D. To someone who was properly licensed for the line of insurance sold at the time the sale was made.
Question 15: Ms. E. Caitlin needs an insurance policy that her regular producer, Mr. R. James, does NOT regularly sell through his regular insurance company. He offers to obtain a policy for Ms. Caitlin by going through another Insurance Producer, Mr. S. Jordan, who represents a company that does offer the type of policy that Ms. Caitlin needs. What is this type of transaction called?
Correct Answer: B. Brokering.
Question 16: Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity for which a license can be suspended?
Correct Answer: C. Brokering insurance.
Question 17: An Insurance Producer agency contract was terminated by an insurance company because the producer was caught misappropriating premiums. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company is subject to a civil penalty of up to $1,000 if it fails to report it to the State Department of Insurance.
Question 18: Which of the following is NOT an Unfair Method of Competition which carries with it a civil penalty of up to $5,000?
Correct Answer: C. Make a statement which fairly and accurately compares one insurance company’s policy to another insurance company’s policy.
Question 19: Which of the following is a Continuing Education requirement?
Correct Answer: C. Completing a course that has been approved by the State Department of Insurance.
Question 20: Which of the following statements concerning the Workers Compensation Assigned Risk Pool is true?
Correct Answer: C. All insurance companies selling Workers Compensation Insurance in Illinois must participate in its losses.
Question 21: What is the State of Illinois fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: B. $150 per two years.
Question 22: Once a Business Entity is required to maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account, it is also required to maintain which of the following bookkeeping records?
Correct Answer: D. Accounts payable.
Question 23: What is the penalty for NOT being properly licensed?
Correct Answer: C. A Class A Misdemeanor for acting as an Insurance Producer without the proper license.
Question 24: Which of the following are NOT required to carry Workers Compensation insurance?
Correct Answer: D. Employers of certain types of farm or domestic employees.
Question 25: Which of the following statements concerning premium monies is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. If an insurance producer deposits premium moneys to a local bank account, but turns it into the insurance company within five days, a Premium Fund Trust Account is not required.
Question 26: An Insurance Producer surrendered her license in order to assume a public office. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: C. She can later become re-licensed without re-examination.
Question 27: Which of the following parties do NOT have a special responsibility in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: B. The insured.
Question 28: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for improperly maintaining a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Class B Misdemeanor.
Question 29: Which of the following statements concerning Auto Insurance limits of liability is true?
Correct Answer: A. Minimum Liability coverage limits are $25,000/$50,000/$20,000.
Question 30: Which of the following statements best describes an alien insurance company?
Correct Answer: D. Chartered in another country other than the one in which it is doing business.
Question 31: Which of the following statements concerning a Limited Lines Producer is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. The individual applicant must apply and pay the license fee.
Question 32: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: A. The felony conviction must be reported within 30 days of judgment being entered.
Question 33: Which of the following is true concerning a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. It is the same as an insurance agency.
Question 34: Which of the following do NOT have to be disclosed in an insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. Underwriters.
Question 35: When must an insurance company allow a rate reduction on an auto policy?
Correct Answer: D. An auto equipped with anti-theft mechanisms.
Question 36: All of the following statements concerning the State Workers Compensation Act are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. There is no penalty for not carrying Workers Compensation Insurance or having a self-insurance plan.
Question 37: When can a Temporary Insurance Producer license be issued?
Correct Answer: C. Before an examination has been taken as long as the individual is enrolled in a qualified training program provided by the appointing insurance company and is engaged in a Pre-License Education program.
Question 38: Which of the following is a purpose of the Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Both to establish bookkeeping requirements and to keep moneys from being commingled.
Question 39: Which of the following statements concerning a change of address is true?
Correct Answer: C. All changes of address must be reported within 30 days.
Question 40: The State Insurance Director has conducted an examination. Which of the following is NOT a procedure which may be followed?
Correct Answer: B. If a report is issued, it will not be sent to the person or entity examined.
Question 41: Mr. R. James, an Insurance Producer, has entered the military. Which of the following statements concerning his insurance Producer license applies?
Correct Answer: B. He may obtain waiver of license renewal while he is in the military if he does not intend to sell insurance while in the military.
Question 42: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for a serious, willful violation of a State Insurance Law?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 no matter how many offenses have been committed.
Question 43: An individual has been examined by the State Department of Insurance. He/she has received a report alleging substantive violations. He/she must request a hearing within how many days?
Correct Answer: B. 14 days.
Question 44: An Insurance Producer CANNOT do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Sell the insured any product the producer wants to without regard to the insured's best interest.
Question 1: To whom does a producer owe a fiduciary responsibility?
Correct Answer: B. The insurance company.
Question 2: All of the following describe controlled business EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. All of the insurance a person sells is to customers other than family, employees or a personally owned business.
Question 3: When must a change of address be reported?
Correct Answer: B. A change of address must be reported within 30 days.
Question 4: What is a "Buyer's Guide"?
Correct Answer: B. State Department of Insurance rules state verbatim what this booklet must state, telling consumers how to compare policies and previous rates.
Question 5: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer education requirement?
Correct Answer: A. 25 hours of Pre-License Education.
Question 6: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer license qualification?
Correct Answer: D. The producer must sell only controlled business.
Question 7: Which is the penalty for an insurance company NOT giving the State Insurance Director proper notice of termination of a license when required?
Correct Answer: B. Civil penalty to the insurance company of up to $1000 per violation.
Question 8: Who would qualify for an Illinois Non-Resident producer license?
Correct Answer: C. An individual who resides in Kentucky and is licensed as an insurance producer in Kentucky who wants to sell insurance in Illinois.
Question 9: What is the fee for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. $ 50 one time.
Question 10: Which of the following does NOT describe brokerage?
Correct Answer: C. Selling stocks, bonds and real estate in addition to insurance.
Question 11: How long must insurance companies maintain files of life insurance advertising materials?
Correct Answer: D. 4 years.
Question 12: When can an insurance company, Insurance Producer or Business Entity be financially examined by the State Department of Insurance?
Correct Answer: B. All insurance companies must submit annual financial statements to every State Department of Insurance where they are licensed.
Question 13: What is the Insurance Producer Administrative fund?
Correct Answer: D. It is a fund that the State Department of Insurance maintains for license fees received.
Question 14: Which of the following is considered to be a replacement of life insurance?
Correct Answer: B. A policy is being surrendered and the Paid-Up Insurance Nonforfeiture Option is being exercised at the same time that a new policy is being purchased.
Question 15: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. The Insurance Producer must report the felony conviction to the State Insurance Director.
Question 16: In which of the following circumstances would an insurance company be required to report the circumstances concerning the termination of a producer's agency contract?
Correct Answer: D. The producer was caught misappropriating premium monies from customers.
Question 17: Which of the following describes a stock insurance company?
Correct Answer: C. A company owned by stockholders.
Question 18: What is a life insurance policy surrender?
Correct Answer: D. It is when you turn in a policy and get cash back.
Question 19: All of the following are penalties that could apply for failure to properly maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: D. Class X Felony.
Question 20: Which of the following constitutes misappropriation of premium money?
Correct Answer: D. Failing to keep proper records on premium monies.
Question 21: Which of the following is NOT a procedure which must be followed by the state Insurance Director when suspending or revoking a producer license?
Correct Answer: C. If a hearing is requested, the Insurance Director must give the insurance producer at least 45 days written notice of the hearing.
Question 22: Mr. Ryan James is an insurance company underwriter who is NOT involved in solicitation or negotiation of policies. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: A. He is not required to be licensed.
Question 23: What is the title of the state official primarily in charge of regulating insurance companies, Insurance Producers and Registered Firms?
Correct Answer: A. Director of Insurance.
Question 24: Which of the following describe a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: C. It allows an individual new to insurance sales to go out, start making sales and start earning commissions prior to having passed the written examination.
Question 25: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: C. It is issued to the individual's resident address.
Question 26: Which of the following must participate in the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: D. All Illinois admitted companies.
Question 27: When selling a new life insurance policy, which of the following must be done?
Correct Answer: C. Any statistics used must be presented fairly.
Question 28: Which of the following describes altruism?
Correct Answer: D. Unselfishness.
Question 29: Who applies for a Business Entity license?
Correct Answer: B. An authorized member.
Question 30: Which of the following describes brokering?
Correct Answer: A. An Insurance Producer arranges coverage for a client through an insurance company with which the producer does not have an agency contract.
Question 31: Which of the following acts does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: B. Being a Public Adjuster.
Question 32: Which of the following is a Limited Lines Producer license requirement?
Correct Answer: B. The person must be trustworthy, competent and of good business reputation.
Question 33: To whom may a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license be issued?
Correct Answer: D. The widow of a deceased Insurance Producer who has never taken the state examinations.
Question 34: To whom may commissions NOT be paid?
Correct Answer: A. An employee of a Business Entity who did not hold a license for the class of insurance at the time the policy was sold.
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT considered to be a replacement of life insurance?
Correct Answer: C. The insured is converting a Term plan to a Whole Life plan.
Question 36: All of the following are considered to be forms of advertisements EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: D. Approximate figures which a producer orally quotes to the insured.
Question 37: A Premium Fund Trust Account can be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: B. An Illinois bank account.
Question 38: A Premium Fund Trust Account DOES NOT require which of the following records?
Correct Answer: C. Petty cash disbursements.
Question 39: Mr. R. Bear, an Insurance Producer, has been caught giving a rebate to a client, Ms. E. Caitlin. All of the following penalties apply EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Penalties can be assessed only to the insurance producer, not to the customer.
Question 40: Which of the following are NOT required to be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. Employers who administer their own employee benefit programs.
Question 41: The State Insurance Director has decided to examine an Insurance Producer. All of the following are procedures that must be followed EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. If the state Department of Insurance examiner writes a report to the Director a copy does not have to be sent to the person examined.
Question 42: Which of the following does NOT have a fiduciary responsibility to the insurance company in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. Insured.
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to qualify as a professional?
Correct Answer: D. High income.
Question 1: What is the fee for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. $ 50 one time.
Question 2: What is the license fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. $ 150 per two years.
Question 3: Which of the following statements concerning life insurance advertisements and sales presentations is true?
Correct Answer: C. If testimonials are used, they must be genuine, represent the current opinion of the author and be applicable to the policy being advertised.
Question 4: Which of the following is not a record required by a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Paid invoices for office expenses.
Question 5: Which of the following is a license requirement?
Correct Answer: D. Application from the individual applicant.
Question 6: Which of the following is NOT considered to be a replacement of life insurance?
Correct Answer: C. The prospect is terminating a nonrenewable, nonconvertible term plan with 2 years left to expiration while buying a new policy.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to qualify as a professional?
Correct Answer: D. High income.
Question 8: Which of the following acts does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: B. Being a Public Adjuster.
Question 9: A Premium Fund Trust Account can be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: B. An Illinois bank account.
Question 10: What is the title of the state official primarily in charge of regulating insurance companies, Insurance Producers and Business Entities?
Correct Answer: A. Director of Insurance.
Question 11: An insurance company terminated a producer's agency contract because the producer was caught misappropriating premium monies. The insurance company failed to report this to the State Insurance Director. What penalties may apply?
Correct Answer: B. A civil penalty to the insurance company.
Question 12: Which of the following have to be licensed as an insurance producer?
Correct Answer: C. People who quote rates and negotiate coverages.
Question 13: Who would qualify for an Illinois Non-Resident producer license?
Correct Answer: C. An individual who resides in Kentucky and is licensed as an insurance producer in Kentucky who wants to sell insurance in Illinois.
Question 14: Which of the following is an objective of the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: A. Prevent insureds from losing benefits when insurance companies become insolvent.
Question 15: When selling a new life insurance policy, which of the following must be done?
Correct Answer: C. Any statistics used must be presented fairly.
Question 16: In which situations must an Insurance Producer be disclosed in a policy?
Correct Answer: A. All policies.
Question 17: What is a mutual fund program?
Correct Answer: D. A program where a large number of investors contribute money to a fund which is used to make large-scale investments at high yields.
Question 18: To whom may a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license be issued?
Correct Answer: D. The widow of a deceased Insurance Producer who has never taken the state examinations.
Question 19: What is a conversion of a life insurance policy?
Correct Answer: B. It is when you exercise a conversion provision within a policy to convert to a policy of a different type within the same insurance company.
Question 20: Which of the following statements describes a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: B. It is an organization that sells and services insurance.
Question 21: Which of the following was originally chartered in the state in which it is doing business?
Correct Answer: A. Domestic companies.
Question 22: When is an insurance company considered to have a qualified training program?
Correct Answer: A. When at least 50% of its Temporary Insurance Producers obtain Insurance Producer licenses prior to the expiration of their Temporary Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 23: Who has a fiduciary responsibility to the insurance company in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: D. A Business Entity who has submitted an insurance application to an insurance company which the insurance company accepted.
Question 24: To sell insurance, which of the following must have a license, but does NOT have to take a written examination?
Correct Answer: D. Limited Lines Producers.
Question 25: According to the Advertising and Sales Promotion of Life Insurance regulation, which of the following is NOT a form of advertisement?
Correct Answer: C. General oral statements made by a producer concerning the value of a policy.
Question 26: Which is a penalty for acting as an Insurance Producer without a proper license?
Correct Answer: A. Class A Misdemeanor.
Question 27: Mr. Rangey O'Ryan has a $25,000 Whole Life Insurance policy which he bought last year which has NOT yet accrued any cash value. Mr. O'Ryan is considering surrendering that old policy in order to purchase a $100,000 Term policy. Which is NOT a requirement of the Insurance Producer selling the new policy?
Correct Answer: C. Avoid selling the new policy in as much as it would be a replacement policy.
Question 28: Which of the following is a penalty for an Unfair Method of Competition such as overstating the financial status of an insurance company?
Correct Answer: C. Fine of not less than $100, but not more than $5000.
Question 29: Which of the following is NOT an Unfair Method of Competition for which a person can be fined a maximum civil penalty of $5000?
Correct Answer: A. Misappropriating premium moneys.
Question 30: Mr. S. Jordan, an Insurance Producer, has been caught making an intentional, material misstatement on an application for his Insurance Producer license. Which of the following penalties does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: A. Up to one year in jail.
Question 31: When can commissions be paid to a person who is NOT currently licensed?
Correct Answer: B. If the person was properly licensed at the time the policy was sold.
Question 32: Ms. J. Jordan, an Insurance Producer, has been caught violating the controlled business requirement. Which of the statements is true?
Correct Answer: C. That means she did not sell as much insurance to others as what she sold to herself, her spouse, her own business or her employer.
Question 33: Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. A producer sells insurance on the life of a friend.
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT a procedure which must be followed by the State Insurance Director when suspending or revoking a producer license?
Correct Answer: C. If a hearing is requested, it can be held anywhere in the state of Illinois.
Question 35: Mr. R. Bear, an Insurance Producer, has been caught giving a rebate to a client, Ms. E. Caitlin. Which of the following penalties does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: C. Mr. R. Bear can be fined up to $5000 and/or be sentenced to 5 years in prison.
Question 36: Which of the following is a Limited Lines Producer license requirement?
Correct Answer: B. The person must be trustworthy, competent and of good business reputation.
Question 37: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: A. It is issued to an insurance company.
Question 38: When must a Premium Fund Trust Account be maintained?
Correct Answer: C. Whenever a producer is going to hold monies for 15 days.
Question 39: Which of the following describes a Limited Lines Producer?
Correct Answer: D. An individual who can sell only certain limited types of insurance.
Question 40: What is a "Buyer's Guide"?
Correct Answer: B. State Department of Insurance rules state verbatim what this booklet must state, telling consumers how to compare policies and premium rates.
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer license qualification?
Correct Answer: D. The producer must sell only controlled business.
Question 42: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: C. It is issued to the individual's resident address.
Question 43: How often can the State Insurance Director financially examine an Insurance Producer?
Correct Answer: D. At random.
Question 1: Which of the following acts requires an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. Actively selling insurance.
Question 2: Which of the following is an example of a rebate?
Correct Answer: D. An Insurance Producer offers a prospect a $100 discount if the prospect will buy.
Question 3: In which of the following cases may the Insurance Producer bond be waived?
Correct Answer: A. The individual intends to broker no insurance.
Question 4: Which of the following statements concerning suspension and revocation of license is true?
Correct Answer: D. When a license is revoked, the individual can apply for a license again after three years.
Question 5: Who can terminate an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. The individual person.
Question 6: Who applies for a Business Entity license?
Correct Answer: B. An authorized member.
Question 7: Failure to maintain proper records on premium monies can result in all of the following penalties EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Revocation of license for 5 years.
Question 8: Which of the following describes a Limited Lines Producer license?
Correct Answer: B. Applicant must be competent, trustworthy and of good business reputation.
Question 9: An Insurance Producer has died. Which statement applies?
Correct Answer: A. A Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license may be obtained by a surviving spouse without examination.
Question 10: When must a Buyer's Guide be given to a prospect?
Correct Answer: B. When proposing new life insurance.
Question 11: Which of the following is a requirement that applies after an examination has been made?
Correct Answer: B. If an Insurance Producer receives a report from the State Insurance Director alleging substantive violations of State Insurance Laws, he or she has 14 days to demand a hearing.
Question 12: What is the penalty for rebating?
Correct Answer: B. Class B Misdemeanor.
Question 13: What insurance companies must participate in the Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: D. All admitted insurance companies.
Question 14: Which of the following is ALWAYS an Insurance Producer license requirement?
Correct Answer: A. $215 per two-year Illinois Insurance Department fee.
Question 15: Which of the following describes altruism?
Correct Answer: D. Unselfishness.
Question 16: When must money be deposited to a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: B. When holding monies 15 days or more.
Question 17: Which of the following does NOT describe controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. All of the insurance a person sells is to cold prospects the producer does not know.
Question 18: All of the following are requirements for an Insurance Producer license EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. At least age 21.
Question 19: An insured has turned in his/her Whole Life policy and received back cash from the insurance company. Which of the following best describes this transaction?
Correct Answer: B. Surrender.
Question 20: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. The Insurance Producer must report the felony conviction to the State Insurance Director.
Question 21: In which of the following circumstances would an insurance company be required to report the circumstances concerning the termination of a producer's agency contract?
Correct Answer: D. The producer was caught misappropriating premium monies from customers.
Question 22: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for violating an order issued by the State Insurance Director as a result of an examination or hearing?
Correct Answer: C. Up to 1 year in jail.
Question 23: When is a Premium Finance Company license required?
Correct Answer: C. An Insurance Producer has allowed more than 10% of his/her accounts receivable to go over 90 days.
Question 24: Which of the following is a Temporary Insurance Producer license requirement?
Correct Answer: C. The applicant must be in the process of fulfilling the Pre-License Education requirement.
Question 25: Which of the following statements concerning the advertisement of life insurance dividends is true?
Correct Answer: A. It is illegal to state that a policy is a participating policy when, in fact, it is not.
Question 26: Which of the following statements concerning the sale of Life insurance is true?
Correct Answer: A. An advertisement cannot mislead by stating that a policy will be offered only during a limited enrollment period when enrollment is not, in fact, limited.
Question 27: Which of the following are NOT required to be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. Employers who administer their own employee benefit programs.
Question 28: Which of the following does NOT have a fiduciary responsibility to the insurance company in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. Insured.
Question 29: A Premium Fund Trust Account may be maintained in any of the following types of accounts EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. A New York bank account.
Question 30: What is the license fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. $150 per two years.
Question 31: What is the Insurance Producer Administrative fund?
Correct Answer: D. It is a fund that the State Department of Insurance maintains for license fees received.
Question 32: Which of following statements apply to Non-Resident Insurance Producers?
Correct Answer: B. Their policies do not have to be countersigned by a resident Producer.
Question 33: All of the following are considered to be forms of advertisements EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: D. Approximate figures which a producer orally quotes to the insured.
Question 34: All of the following are penalties that can be applied to misappropriation of premium money EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. 20 years prison.
Question 35: They are not required to take the Illinois examination if their resident state requires examination of Illinois producers.
Correct Answer: C. A company owned by stockholders.
Question 36: All of the following statements concerning the correlated sale of life insurance and mutual funds is true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Policy illustrations do not have to be filed with the Director of Insurance.
Question 37: Which of the following is required to take an examination?
Correct Answer: C. Someone who was licensed in another state but terminated his/her license more than two years ago.
Question 38: Which of the following is considered to be a replacement of life insurance?
Correct Answer: B. A policy is being surrendered and the Paid-Up Insurance Nonforfeiture Option is being exercised at the same time that a new policy is being purchased.
Question 39: A Premium Fund Trust Account requires all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Policyholder’s personal information.
Question 40: When can an insurance company, Insurance Producer or Business Entity be financially examined by the State Department of Insurance?
Correct Answer: B. All insurance companies must submit annual financial statements to every State Department of Insurance where they are licensed.
Question 41: What is a penalty for NOT being properly licensed as an insurance producer?
Correct Answer: D. Class A misdemeanor for selling one policy without a proper license.
Question 42: Which of the following does NOT describe brokerage?
Correct Answer: C. Selling stocks, bonds and real estate in addition to insurance.
Question 43: Commissions can be paid to whom?
Correct Answer: A. A licensed Insurance Producer who solicits or binds an insurance policy.
Question 1: What is the penalty for NOT being properly licensed?
Correct Answer: A. Class A Misdemeanor for acting as an Insurance Producer without the proper license and misappropriating premium monies.
Question 2: Which of the following statements about revocation of a producer license is true?
Correct Answer: A. At the end of the revocation period the producer automatically gets his or her license back.
Question 3: The State Insurance Director has which of the following powers?
Correct Answer: A. Approve all premium rates.
Question 4: Which of the following statements concerning termination of an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: A. It can be revoked if the Continuing Education requirement is not satisfied
Question 5: Which of the following statements concerning the required life insurance policy summary is true?
Correct Answer: A. It optionally may be given to the prospect at the time of policy delivery.
Question 6: When must a change of address be reported?
Correct Answer: A. An Insurance Producer must report only a change of business address.
Question 7: Which of the following statements describes a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: A. Its purpose is to keep monies being held for insurance companies separate from personal or business monies.
Question 8: All of the following statements concerning licensing are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. A Temporary Insurance Producer license in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service is issued for a period of 180 days and may be renewed for an additional term.
Question 9: Which of the following must be done when selling mutual funds along with life insurance as a package sale?
Correct Answer: A. The prospect must be advised that he must buy life insurance in order to purchase the mutual fund.
Question 10: Which of the following is owned by its policyholders?
Correct Answer: A. Stock companies.
Question 11: Which of the following describes a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. A person can obtain no more than two per year.
Question 12: Which of the following is an example of an illegal rebate?
Correct Answer: A. Taking a client out to lunch so that you will have an opportunity to make a sales presentation.
Question 13: Which is the penalty for an insurance company NOT giving the State Insurance Director proper notice of termination of a producer’s license when required?
Correct Answer: A. Class A Misdemeanor.
Question 1: All of the following are penalties that could apply for failure to properly maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: D. Class X Felony.
Question 2: Which of the following statements concerning Medicare Supplement insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: A. Private Medicare Supplement insurance policies do NOT require state Department of Insurance approval.
Question 3: When selling a new life insurance policy, which of the following must be done?
Correct Answer: C. Any statistics used must be presented fairly.
Question 4: How long must insurance companies maintain files of life insurance advertising materials?
Correct Answer: D. 4 years.
Question 5: Mr. R. Bear, an Insurance Producer, has been caught giving a rebate to a client, Ms. E. Caitlin. All of the following penalties apply EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Penalties can be assessed only to the insurance producer, not to the customer.
Question 6: Which of the following does NOT have a fiduciary responsibility to the insurance company in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. Insured.
Question 7: All of the following describe controlled business EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. All of the insurance a person sells is to customers other than family, employees or a personally owned business.
Question 8: Which of the following describe a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: C. It allows an individual new to insurance sales to go out, start making sales and start earning commissions prior to having passed the written examination.
Question 9: When can an insurance company, Insurance Producer or Business Entity be financially examined by the State Department of Insurance?
Correct Answer: B. All insurance companies must submit annual financial statements to every State Department of Insurance where they are licensed.
Question 10: Which of the following constitutes misappropriation of premium money?
Correct Answer: D. Failing to keep proper records on premium monies.
Question 11: Mr. Ryan James is an insurance company underwriter who is NOT involved in solicitation or negotiation of policies. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: A. He is not required to be licensed.
Question 12: What is a life insurance policy surrender?
Correct Answer: D. It is when you turn in a policy and get cash back.
Question 13: Who would qualify for an Illinois Non-Resident producer license?
Correct Answer: C. An individual who resides in Kentucky and is licensed as an insurance producer in Kentucky who wants to sell insurance in Illinois.
Question 14: When must a change of address be reported?
Correct Answer: B. A change of address must be reported within 30 days.
Question 15: Which of the following describes altruism?
Correct Answer: D. Unselfishness.
Question 16: In which of the following circumstances would an insurance company be required to report the circumstances concerning the termination of a producer's agency contract?
Correct Answer: D. The producer was caught misappropriating premium monies from customers.
Question 17: What is the Insurance Producer Administrative fund?
Correct Answer: D. It is a fund that the State Department of Insurance maintains for license fees received.
Question 18: Which of the following is NOT a procedure which must be followed by the state Insurance Director when suspending or revoking a producer license?
Correct Answer: C. If a hearing is requested, the Insurance Director must give the insurance producer at least 45 days written notice of the hearing.
Question 19: Which of the following describes a stock insurance company?
Correct Answer: C. A company owned by stockholders.
Question 20: Which of the following is a Limited Lines Producer license requirement?
Correct Answer: B. The person must be trustworthy, competent and of good business reputation.
Question 21: Which of the following must participate in the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: D. All Illinois admitted companies.
Question 22: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer education requirement?
Correct Answer: A. 25 hours of Pre-License Education.
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer license qualification?
Correct Answer: D. The producer must sell only controlled business.
Question 24: Which of the following describes brokering?
Correct Answer: A. An Insurance Producer arranges coverage for a client through an insurance company with which the producer does not have an agency contract.
Question 25: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to qualify as a professional?
Correct Answer: D. High income.
Question 26: The State Insurance Director has decided to examine an Insurance Producer. All of the following are procedures that must be followed EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. If the state Department of Insurance examiner writes a report to the Director a copy does not have to be sent to the person examined.
Question 27: Which of the following must be disclosed in an Accident and Health insurance policy advertisement?
Correct Answer: A. Whether the insurance company can refuse to renew, cancel or terminate the policy.
Question 28: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. The Insurance Producer must report the felony conviction to the State Insurance Director.
Question 29: To whom may a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license be issued?
Correct Answer: D. The widow of a deceased Insurance Producer who has never taken the state examinations.
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT considered to be a replacement of life insurance?
Correct Answer: C. The insured is converting a Term plan to a Whole Life plan.
Question 31: All of the following are considered to be a form of advertisement by the Advertising of Accident and Sickness Insurance Regulation EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Rebating.
Question 32: Which is the penalty for an insurance company NOT giving the State Insurance Director proper notice of termination of a license when required?
Correct Answer: B. Civil penalty to the insurance company of up to $1000 per violation.
Question 33: What is a "Buyer's Guide"?
Correct Answer: B. State Department of Insurance rules state verbatim what this booklet must state, telling consumers how to compare policies and previous rates.
Question 34: To whom may commissions NOT be paid?
Correct Answer: A. An employee of a Business Entity who did not hold a license for the class of insurance at the time the policy was sold.
Question 35: To whom does a producer owe a fiduciary responsibility?
Correct Answer: B. The insurance company.
Question 36: Which of the following is a requirement of the Advertising of Accident and Sickness Insurance regulation?
Correct Answer: D. Special awards such a "safe drivers' award" cannot be used in connection with accident and health policies.
Question 37: Which of the following statements concerning the advertisement of Accident and Health insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. If the person who is making a testimonial is being paid or has a financial interest in the insurance company it does NOT have to be disclosed.
Question 38: Which of the following does NOT describe brokerage?
Correct Answer: C. Selling stocks, bonds and real estate in addition to insurance.
Question 39: The State Minimum Standards rule does which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Details policy provisions which all individual Accident/Health policies must include.
Question 40: Which of the following are NOT required to be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. Employers who administer their own employee benefit programs.
Question 41: Who applies for a Business Entity license?
Correct Answer: B. An authorized member.
Question 42: A Premium Fund Trust Account DOES NOT require which of the following records?
Correct Answer: C. Petty cash disbursements.
Question 43: Which of the following is considered to be a replacement of life insurance?
Correct Answer: B. A policy is being surrendered and the Paid-Up Insurance Nonforfeiture Option is being exercised at the same time that a new policy is being purchased.
Question 44: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: C. It is issued to the individual's resident address.
Question 45: Which of the following acts does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: B. Being a Public Adjuster.
Question 46: According to the state Insurance regulations, an insurance company can contest a health insurance claim only due to fraud after the policy has been in effect how long?
Correct Answer: B. 2 years.
Question 47: All of the following are considered to be forms of advertisements EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: D. Approximate figures which a producer orally quotes to the insured.
Question 48: What is the title of the state official primarily in charge of regulating insurance companies, Insurance Producers and Registered Firms?
Correct Answer: A. Director of Insurance.
Question 49: A Premium Fund Trust Account can be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: B. An Illinois bank account.
Question 50: What is the fee for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. $ 50 one time.
Question 1: When selling a new life insurance policy, which of the following must be done?
Correct Answer: C. Any statistics used must be presented fairly.
Question 2: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to qualify as a professional?
Correct Answer: D. High income.
Question 3: To whom may a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license be issued?
Correct Answer: D. The widow of a deceased Insurance Producer who has never taken the state examinations.
Question 4: When must a Premium Fund Trust Account be maintained?
Correct Answer: C. Whenever a producer is going to hold monies for 15 days.
Question 5: According to the Advertising and Sales Promotion of Life Insurance regulation, which of the following is NOT a form of advertisement?
Correct Answer: C. General oral statements made by a producer concerning the value of a policy.
Question 6: What is a mutual fund program?
Correct Answer: D. A program where a large number of investors contribute money to a fund which is used to make large-scale investments at high yields.
Question 7: Which of the following must be disclosed in an Accident/Health insurance advertisement?
Correct Answer: A. The name of the insurance company.
Question 8: Ms. J. Jordan, an Insurance Producer, has been caught violating the controlled business requirement. Which of the statements is true?
Correct Answer: C. That means she did not sell as much insurance to others as what she sold to herself, her spouse, her own business or her employer.
Question 9: What is the license fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. $ 150 per two years.
Question 10: Which of the following statements concerning the Department of Insurance Advertisement of Accident and Sickness Insurance regulation is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. It can be stated the insured may profit from being disabled.
Question 11: Which is a penalty for acting as an Insurance Producer without a proper license?
Correct Answer: A. Class A Misdemeanor.
Question 12: What is the title of the state official primarily in charge of regulating insurance companies, Insurance Producers and Business Entities?
Correct Answer: A. Director of Insurance.
Question 13: Which of the following is a license requirement?
Correct Answer: D. Application from the individual applicant.
Question 14: Which of the following is an objective of the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: A. Prevent insureds from losing benefits when insurance companies become insolvent.
Question 15: Which of the following acts does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: B. Being a Public Adjuster.
Question 16: Who has a fiduciary responsibility to the insurance company in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: D. A Business Entity who has submitted an insurance application to an insurance company which the insurance company accepted.
Question 17: What is a "Buyer's Guide"?
Correct Answer: B. State Department of Insurance rules state verbatim what this booklet must state, telling consumers how to compare policies and premium rates.
Question 18: Which of the following is not a record required by a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Paid invoices for office expenses.
Question 19: Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. A producer sells insurance on the life of a friend.
Question 20: When is an insurance company considered to have a qualified training program?
Correct Answer: A. When at least 50% of its Temporary Insurance Producers obtain Insurance Producer licenses prior to the expiration of their Temporary Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 21: Which of the following was originally chartered in the state in which it is doing business?
Correct Answer: A. Domestic companies.
Question 22: Which of the following statements concerning life insurance advertisements and sales presentations is true?
Correct Answer: C. If testimonials are used, they must be genuine, represent the current opinion of the author and be applicable to the policy being advertised.
Question 23: Which of the following have to be licensed as an insurance producer?
Correct Answer: C. People who quote rates and negotiate coverages.
Question 24: Which of the following must be disclosed in an Accident and Health insurance policy advertisement?
Correct Answer: A. Whether the insurance company can refuse to renew, cancel or terminate the policy.
Question 25: Which of the following is NOT a procedure which must be followed by the State Insurance Director when suspending or revoking a producer license?
Correct Answer: C. If a hearing is requested, it can be held anywhere in the state of Illinois.
Question 26: The State Minimum Standards rule applies to what type of policies?
Correct Answer: B. All individual Health insurance policies.
Question 27: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: A. A person with an Insurance Producer license can sell for only one insurance company.
Question 28: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: C. It is issued to the individual's resident address.
Question 29: Which of the following describes a Limited Lines Producer?
Correct Answer: D. An individual who can sell only certain limited types of insurance.
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT considered to be a replacement of life insurance?
Correct Answer: C. The prospect is terminating a nonrenewable, nonconvertible term plan with 2 years left to expiration while buying a new policy.
Question 31: What is a conversion of a life insurance policy?
Correct Answer: B. It is when you exercise a conversion provision within a policy to convert to a policy of a different type within the same insurance company.
Question 32: To sell insurance, which of the following must have a license, but does NOT have to take a written examination?
Correct Answer: D. Limited Lines Producers.
Question 33: Which of the following statements describes a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: B. It is an organization that sells and services insurance.
Question 34: An insurance company terminated a producer's agency contract because the producer was caught misappropriating premium monies. The insurance company failed to report this to the State Insurance Director. What penalties may apply?
Correct Answer: B. A civil penalty to the insurance company.
Question 35: According to the state Insurance regulations, an insurance company can contest a health insurance claim only due to fraud after the policy has been in effect how long?
Correct Answer: B. 2 years.
Question 36: Mr. Rangey O'Ryan has a $25,000 Whole Life Insurance policy which he bought last year which has NOT yet accrued any cash value. Mr. O'Ryan is considering surrendering that old policy in order to purchase a $100,000 Term policy. Which is NOT a requirement of the Insurance Producer selling the new policy?
Correct Answer: C. Avoid selling the new policy in as much as it would be a replacement policy.
Question 37: In which situations must an Insurance Producer be disclosed in a policy?
Correct Answer: A. All policies.
Question 38: Who would qualify for an Illinois Non-Resident producer license?
Correct Answer: C. An individual who resides in Kentucky and is licensed as an insurance producer in Kentucky who wants to sell insurance in Illinois.
Question 39: When can commissions be paid to a person who is NOT currently licensed?
Correct Answer: B. If the person was properly licensed at the time the policy was sold.
Question 40: Mr. S. Jordan, an Insurance Producer, has been caught making an intentional, material misstatement on an application for his Insurance Producer license. Which of the following penalties does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: A. Up to one year in jail.
Question 41: All of the following statements concerning the sale of Medicare Supplement insurance are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. The Insurance Producer does not have a responsibility to determine the appropriateness of the policy in light of the applicant's other coverages.
Question 42: Which of the following can be considered to be pre-existing conditions under the State Department of Insurance rules?
Correct Answer: A. Something that occurred before the inception date of the policy and continued to manifest itself up to the inception of the policy.
Question 43: A Premium Fund Trust Account can be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: B. An Illinois bank account.
Question 44: Which of the following is NOT an Unfair Method of Competition for which a person can be fined a maximum civil penalty of $5000?
Correct Answer: A. Misappropriating premium moneys.
Question 45: Mr. R. Bear, an Insurance Producer, has been caught giving a rebate to a client, Ms. E. Caitlin. Which of the following penalties does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: C. Mr. R. Bear can be fined up to $5000 and/or be sentenced to 5 years in prison.
Question 46: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer license qualification?
Correct Answer: D. The producer must sell only controlled business.
Question 47: Which of the following is a Limited Lines Producer license requirement?
Correct Answer: B. The person must be trustworthy, competent and of good business reputation.
Question 48: How often can the State Insurance Director financially examine an Insurance Producer?
Correct Answer: D. At random.
Question 49: Which of the following is a penalty for an Unfair Method of Competition such as overstating the financial status of an insurance company?
Correct Answer: C. Fine of not less than $100, but not more than $5000.
Question 50: What is the fee for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. $ 50 one time.
Question 1: State law allows an insurance company to contest a claim because of a misstatement on an Accident and Health insurance application after two years only for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer: A. Fraud.
Question 2: In which of the following circumstances would an insurance company be required to report the circumstances concerning the termination of a producer's agency contract?
Correct Answer: A. The producer was not selling insurance.
Question 3: A Premium Fund Trust Account may be maintained in any of the following types of accounts EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Treasury bills or notes.
Question 4: What is the penalty for rebating?
Correct Answer: A. Class A Misdemeanor.
Question 5: Which of the following is a legal Accident/Health insurance advertising practice?
Correct Answer: A. Representing that applicants will receive substantial benefits not available at a later date when, in fact, they will be.
Question 6: Which of the following does NOT describe brokerage?
Correct Answer: A. An activity which requires an Insurance Producer license.
Question 7: Which of the following are NOT required to be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. Employers who administer their own employee benefit programs.
Question 8: What insurance companies must participate in the Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: A. Domestic companies only.
Question 9: Which of the following does NOT describe controlled business?
Correct Answer: A. All of the insurance a person sells is to him/herself.
Question 10: Commissions can be paid to whom?
Correct Answer: A. A licensed Insurance Producer who solicits or binds an insurance policy.
Question 1: Which of the following statements describes a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: A. Its purpose is to keep monies being held for insurance companies separate from personal or business monies.
Question 2: Which of the following is an Insurance Producer examination requirement?
Correct Answer: D. A pre-license education requirement for each line of insurance for which the individual is testing must be completed before taking the exam.
Question 3: The State Minimum Standards rule does NOT do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Applies to both individual and group Health insurance policies.
Question 4: Which of the following must be done in a life insurance replacement situation?
Correct Answer: A. The applicant must be given a "Notice Regarding Replacement of Life Insurance or Annuity."
Question 5: To whom may commissions NOT be paid?
Correct Answer: A. An employee of a Business Entity who did not hold a license for the class of insurance at the time the policy was sold.
Question 6: What is the name of the special state fund to which all license fees must be deposited by the State Insurance Director?
Correct Answer: B. Insurance Producer Administrative Fund.
Question 7: When collecting and accounting for premium moneys to whom does a producer owe a fiduciary responsibility?
Correct Answer: B. The insurance company.
Question 8: All of the following statements concerning licensing are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. Regular Temporary Insurance Producer licenses can be renewed.
Question 9: Which of the following is an example of an illegal rebate?
Correct Answer: C. Offering all prospects a substantial gift only if they will buy an insurance policy.
Question 10: Which of the following statements concerning an Insurance Producer bond is true?
Correct Answer: C. An Insurance Producer can be exempt from the bond requirement if he or she intends to broker no insurance.
Question 11: Which of the following statements concerning the required life insurance policy summary is true?
Correct Answer: B. It must give the name and address of the insurance company, the type of policy, the premium, the death benefits, guaranteed cash values if any and dividends if any for selected years throughout the policy.
Question 12: All of the following describe an Insurance Producer EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. An insurance underwriter.
Question 13: Which of the following is owned by its policyholders?
Correct Answer: B. Mutual companies.
Question 14: Which of the following describes brokering?
Correct Answer: A. An Insurance Producer arranges coverage for a client through an insurance company with which the producer does not have an agency contract.
Question 15: An insured is buying a new Life Insurance policy. In which of the following situations does the Life Insurance Replacement regulation NOT apply?
Correct Answer: A. The existing policy was a nonrenewable and nonconvertible 20 year Decreasing Term policy which is in its last year.
Question 16: Which of the following is a penalty for rebating?
Correct Answer: D. Class B Misdemeanor.
Question 17: Which of the following describes a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: C. It allows an individual new to insurance sales to go out, start making sales and start earning commissions prior to having passed the written examination.
Question 18: Which of the following statements concerning a dividend paid on a participating life insurance policy is true?
Correct Answer: A. It cannot be stated that dividends are guaranteed.
Question 19: Which of the following is a disbursement that may be made from a Premium Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. A premium remittance to an insurance company.
Question 20: Which of the following is NOT a type of insurance that can be sold by a Limited Lines Producer?
Correct Answer: A. Whole Life insurance.
Question 21: Which is the penalty for an insurance company NOT giving the State Insurance Director proper notice of termination of a producer’s license when required?
Correct Answer: B. Civil penalty to the insurance company of up to $1000 per violation.
Question 22: Which of the following is a requirement of the Advertising of Accident and Sickness Insurance regulation?
Correct Answer: D. Special awards such as a "safe drivers' award" cannot be used in connection with accident and health policies.
Question 23: Mr. S. Jordan was completely cured from asthma 5 years prior to purchasing a health insurance policy. Which of the following measures can the insurance company NOT take?
Correct Answer: A. Classify the asthma as a pre-existing condition under a Pre-Existing condition clause.
Question 24: The State Insurance Director has which of the following powers?
Correct Answer: B. Issue rules and regulations that have the same force and effect as law.
Question 25: What is a fiduciary responsibility?
Correct Answer: A. A responsibility of extra care.
Question 26: Which of the following statements concerning termination of an Insurance Producer license is true?
Correct Answer: A. It can be revoked if the Continuing Education requirement is not satisfied.
Question 27: Mr. Ryan James is an insurance company underwriter who is NOT involved in solicitation or negotiation of policies. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: A. He is not required to be licensed.
Question 28: What is the license fee for a Limited Lines Producer license?
Correct Answer: C. $50 per year.
Question 29: Which of the following describes an agency contract?
Correct Answer: C. An agreement allowing a producer to represent an insurance company.
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT an Insurance Producer education requirement?
Correct Answer: A. 25 hours of Pre-License Education.
Question 31: Which of the following statements concerning the advertisement of Accident and Sickness insurance policies is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. It is illegal to use statistics in advertisements.
Question 32: A policy CANNOT be called a Medicare Supplement policy unless which of the following requirements are met?
Correct Answer: D. It is one of the ten plans approved by the state Department of Insurance.
Question 33: What is a life insurance policy surrender?
Correct Answer: D. It is when you turn in the policy and get back cash.
Question 34: Which of the following must participate in the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund?
Correct Answer: D. All Illinois admitted companies.
Question 35: An Insurance Producer has entered the military. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: C. He/she can receive renewal commissions while in the military even though his/her licenses may not be currently up-to-date.
Question 36: Which of the following statements does NOT describe a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: C. Insurance companies that issue policies and pay claims must be licensed as a Business Entity.
Question 37: Mr. Strong Hitter, a famous Redbird player, has agreed to appear on television on behalf of Fast Pay Mutual Insurance Company. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: A. Any testimonial statements he makes must be genuine and represent his current opinion.
Question 38: Which of the following must be done when selling mutual funds along with life insurance as a package sale?
Correct Answer: D. The proposal must show the life insurance premiums and benefits separate from the mutual fund contributions and balances.
Question 39: How long must insurance companies maintain files of life insurance advertising materials?
Correct Answer: D. 4 years.
Question 40: Which of the following situations would require a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: D. An Insurance Producer allowed an insured to wait 6 months to pay his premium.
Question 41: Which of the following is a requirement for a Non-Resident Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: C. Reciprocity with the non-resident’s resident state applies for examination and education requirements.
Question 42: All of the following are penalties that could apply for failure to properly maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Class X Felony.
Question 43: The State Insurance Director has decided to examine an Insurance Producer. Which of the following is NOT a procedure that must be followed?
Correct Answer: C. The Insurance Producer must cease doing insurance business until the Insurance Director has issued an order.
Question 44: When must a change of address be reported?
Correct Answer: B. A change of address must be reported within 30 days.
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of altruism?
Correct Answer: B. Concern over income.
Question 46: Which of the following statements about revocation of a producer license is true?
Correct Answer: C. Once a license has been revoked, the producer can reapply for a license every three years.
Question 47: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: B. The felony conviction must be reported to the State Insurance Director.
Question 48: A life insurance policy is being offered as a "special." All of the following rules apply EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: C. It is illegal to advertise a program as a “special offer”.
Question 49: What is the penalty for NOT being properly licensed?
Correct Answer: B. Class 4 Felony for acting as an Insurance Producer without the proper license and misappropriating premium monies.
Question 50: All of the following constitute misappropriation of premium money EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: D. Turning premium monies into the insurance company promptly.
Question 1: What is the State of Illinois fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: B. $150 per two years.
Question 2: An insurance company has terminated a Limited Lines Producer because he was caught accepting insurance business from someone who was NOT licensed. The insurance company failed to report the circumstances to the State Insurance Director. Which of the following penalties applies?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company is subject to a civil penalty or suspension or revocation of its license.
Question 3: Which of the following qualifies for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. An individual whose appointing insurance company has made application, is enrolled in a qualified training program and who is in the process of fulfilling the Pre-License Education requirements.
Question 4: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and nonrenewal of a fire policy is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. After a fire policy has been in effect 5 years, the insurance company must always give 30 days notice to nonrenew.
Question 5: What is a proof of mailing?
Correct Answer: B. It is a post office form stating that a letter was mailed on a certain date to a certain address.
Question 6: Insurance Producers S. Jordan and R. James have jointly sold an insurance policy to Ms. E. Caitlin. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. Both of their names must be disclosed on the policy.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT contained on an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. Name of insurance company.
Question 8: Which of the following requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: C. Charging premiums on account for more than 90 days without charging interest.
Question 9: Which of the following does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. Working as a receptionist in an insurance company home office.
Question 10: What is an Illinois Pre-License Education requirement?
Correct Answer: A. 20 hours of instruction for each class of insurance.
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for misappropriating premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty of not more than $500.
Question 12: Which of the following is NOT an Unfair Method of Competition which carries with it a fine of up to $5,000?
Correct Answer: C. Selling additional policies to established customers.
Question 13: What is a penalty for NOT maintaining premium monies in a proper manner?
Correct Answer: D. A license can be revoked.
Question 14: Which of the following statements concerning the Insurance Producer written examination is true?
Correct Answer: B. An application and fees must be submitted.
Question 15: Which of the following is a purpose of the Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Both to establish bookkeeping requirements and to keep moneys from being commingled.
Question 16: Which of the following is NOT a procedure of the FAIR Plan?
Correct Answer: D. To refuse to insure a building because of its location.
Question 17: A property insurance policy is being cancelled because the insured has changed the property substantially increasing the risk originally accepted. Which of the following requirements apply?
Correct Answer: D. A copy of the notice of cancellation must be mailed to the producer of record.
Question 18: An Insurance Producer surrendered her license in order to assume a public office. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: C. She can later become re-licensed without re-examination.
Question 19: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: A. The felony conviction must be reported within 30 days of judgment being entered.
Question 20: Which of the following statements best describes a stock insurance company?
Correct Answer: A. Owned by its stockholders.
Question 21: The Insurance Director has held a hearing concerning an Insurance Producer's violation of the State Insurance Code. Which of the following does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: C. The Insurance Producer is not bound (obligated) by the State Insurance Director order.
Question 22: All of the following are qualities needed to be professional EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: A. Large numbers of clients.
Question 23: Payments CANNOT be made out of a Premium Fund Trust Account for which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Office salaries
Question 24: Which of the following statements concerning a Limited Lines Producer is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. The individual applicant must apply and pay the required fees.
Question 25: A change of address must be reported when?
Correct Answer: C. 30 days.
Question 26: Mr. R. James, an Insurance Producer, has entered the military. Which of the following statements concerning his Insurance Producer license applies?
Correct Answer: B. He may obtain waiver of license renewal while he is in the military if he does not intend to sell insurance while in the military.
Question 27: Which of the following statements concerning the FAIR Plan is true?
Correct Answer: C. Its purpose is to assure the availability of fire insurance to all individuals who own buildings which are structurally insurable, including buildings in blighted urban areas that might otherwise have trouble obtaining insurance.
Question 28: Which of the following do NOT have to be licensed?
Correct Answer: D. Salaried Business Entity employees who are not paid a commission and who are engaged only in clerical duties.
Question 29: Which of the following describes the Insurance Producer Administrative Fund?
Correct Answer: D. It is a fund in which all license fees are deposited by the State Department of Insurance.
Question 30: An Insurance Producer CANNOT do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Sell the insured any product the producer wants to without regard to the insured's best interest.
Question 31: Which of the following statements concerning license suspension and revocation is true?
Correct Answer: D. A license can be revoked due to misappropriation of premiums.
Question 32: To whom is an Insurance Producer responsible while holding premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. The insurance company.
Question 33: What is the penalty for selling insurance without the proper license and misappropriating premiums?
Correct Answer: B. A class 4 Felony.
Question 34: Which of the following is a rebate?
Correct Answer: D. An Insurance Producer giving a client a $100 discount on a Homeowner policy.
Question 35: When is an Insurance Producer bond required?
Correct Answer: B. When an Insurance Producer intends to broker insurance.
Question 36: A Limited Lines Producer license can be terminated by whom?
Correct Answer: C. Either the insurance company, the state Insurance Director or the individual Limited Lines Producer.
Question 37: An insurance company can pay renewal commissions to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. An individual not currently licensed, but who was licensed at the time that the policy was sold.
Question 38: When can a property insurance policy be cancelled?
Correct Answer: A. With 10 days notice for nonpayment of premiums.
Question 39: If an Illinois admitted insurance company becomes insolvent, it is very unlikely for an insured to lose any benefits for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer: C. An assessment may be made against the other admitted property/casualty companies in the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund to pay the claims of the insolvent insurance company.
Question 40: Which of the following statements concerning a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license is true?
Correct Answer: A. It allows the sale of insurance only as the Insurance Director allows.
Question 41: The State Insurance Director can financially examine which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. All domestic insurance companies periodically.
Question 42: What is a fiduciary duty?
Correct Answer: C. It is an obligation of special or extra care.
Question 1: Which of the following statements best describes an alien insurance company?
Correct Answer: D. Chartered in another country other than the one in which it is doing business.
Question 2: There is a State Insurance Law which sets forth the amount of time in which various types of claims must be paid. What is it called?
Correct Answer: B. Unfair Claims Practices Act.
Question 3: Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity for which a license can be revoked?
Correct Answer: D. Soliciting insurance.
Question 4: Once a Business Entity is required to maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account, it is also required to maintain which of the following bookkeeping records?
Correct Answer: D. Account receivables due from insureds.
Question 5: The State Insurance Director has conducted an examination. Which of the following is NOT a procedure which may be followed?
Correct Answer: B. If a report is issued, it will not be sent to the person or entity examined.
Question 6: Which of the following statements concerning premium monies is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. A Premium Fund Trust Account is not required just because premium moneys are being deposited to a local bank before being turned into the insurance company.
Question 7: An Insurance Producer agency contract was terminated by an insurance company because the producer was caught misappropriating premiums. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company is subject to a civil penalty of up to $1,000 if it fails to report it to the State Department of Insurance.
Question 8: Mr. Ryan James, a licensed insurance producer, is assuming a new employment situation in which the Insurance Director has determined there would be a conflict of interest for him to retain his insurance producer license. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. He will probably be able to get re-licensed after his conflict of interest no longer applies without retaking the examination.
Question 9: Which of the following must be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. The next of kin of a deceased Insurance Producer who wishes to maintain the deceased producer's business.
Question 10: What is the penalty for NOT being properly licensed?
Correct Answer: C. A Class A Misdemeanor for acting as an Insurance Producer without the proper license.
Question 11: If required, an Insurance Producer bond must be in what amount?
Correct Answer: C. $2,500.
Question 12: An Insurance Producer has been caught misappropriating premium monies. The State Insurance Director has issued an order revoking her license. Which of the following procedures must be followed?
Correct Answer: B. The individual has 30 days to request a hearing.
Question 13: Which of the following is NOT a qualification for an Insurance Producer's license?
Correct Answer: C. Selling mostly controlled business.
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for violating an order issued by the State Insurance Director?
Correct Answer: D. Class 3 Felony.
Question 15: Which of the following penalties for Unfair Methods of Competition apply?
Correct Answer: B. Being ordered to cease and desist for misstating the benefits of a policy.
Question 16: Mr. Harold Lloyd, an Insurance Producer, has died leaving behind many active insurance clients. Which of the following could NOT obtain a Temporary Insurance Producer license in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service?
Correct Answer: C. A competitor.
Question 17: Which types of insurance can a Limited Lines Producer NOT sell?
Correct Answer: A. Homeowners insurance.
Question 18: Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity for which a license can be suspended?
Correct Answer: C. Brokering insurance.
Question 19: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and nonrenewal of a fire insurance policy is true?
Correct Answer: D. A policy can be nonrenewed due to too many claims.
Question 20: An Insurance Producer can charge an insured service charges in addition to the regular premiums and commissions under what circumstances?
Correct Answer: A. Only if he or she has given the insured notice.
Question 21: What is the State of Illinois fee for a Limited Lines Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. $50 per year paid by the insurance company.
Question 22: An Insurance Producer license can be terminated by whom?
Correct Answer: B. The State Insurance Director.
Question 23: What percentage of Temporary Insurance Producers must pass their exams and obtain Insurance Producer licenses in order for an insurance company to have a qualified training program?
Correct Answer: B. 50% each six-month period.
Question 24: A Premium Fund Trust Account can be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: A. Checking account in an Illinois bank.
Question 25: When must a return premium be calculated on a prorated basis?
Correct Answer: A. When the insurance company cancels the policy.
Question 26: A property insurance policy was nonrenewed because the insured made too many claims. Which of the following requirements apply?
Correct Answer: D. If the insurance company fails to give the insured proper notice of intent to nonrenew, coverage can continue in effect until the insured obtains substitute coverage.
Question 27: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to be a professional person?
Correct Answer: D. High income.
Question 28: Mr. R. James, an Insurance Producer, has an agreement with Crash Mutual Automobile Insurance Company. The agreement authorizes Mr. James to sell and service policies issued by Crash Mutual. What would you call that agreement?
Correct Answer: A. An agency agreement.
Question 29: What is it called when an individual applying for a non-resident insurance license is NOT required to take an examination because his or her resident state does NOT require an examination of individuals from other states wishing to become Non-Resident Producers?
Correct Answer: A. Reciprocity.
Question 30: Which of the following statements concerning the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund is true?
Correct Answer: C. All property/casualty insurance companies admitted to sell insurance in Illinois must participate.
Question 31: Ms. E. Caitlin needs an insurance policy that her regular producer, Mr. R. James, does NOT regularly sell through his regular insurance company. He offers to obtain a policy for Ms. Caitlin by going through another Insurance Producer, Mr. S. Jordan, who represents a company that does offer the type of policy that Ms. Caitlin needs. What is this type of transaction called?
Correct Answer: B. Brokering.
Question 32: Which of the following does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: C. Perform office duties.
Question 33: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and nonrenewal of a property (fire) policy is true?
Correct Answer: D. After a policy has been in effect 5 years, it can be nonrenewed with 60 days notice if the nonrenewal is due to an act which would measurably increase the risk as originally accepted.
Question 34: The State Insurance Director (Director of Insurance) CANNOT do which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Disapprove premium rates.
Question 35: Which of the following is NOT an example of controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. Selling insurance only to people to whom the producer is not related.
Question 36: Which of the following is an Insurance Producer licensing Requirement?
Correct Answer: B. The individual applicant must make application.
Question 37: Which of the following is true concerning a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. It is the same as an insurance agency.
Question 38: Who is eligible for coverage under the FAIR Plan?
Correct Answer: D. A person owning urban property other than an auto, manufacturing or farming property who cannot obtain basic property, dwelling or homeowner insurance.
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT a right of the insured upon cancellation or nonrenewal of a fire policy?
Correct Answer: C. A prorated return of the unearned premium if the insured is canceling the policy.
Question 40: When must Mine Subsidence coverage be included in a Property Insurance policy?
Correct Answer: B. Property Insurance policies issued on property located in counties susceptible to mine subsidence.
Question 41: A Business Entity is required to maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account whenever it is going to retain premium monies how many days?
Correct Answer: B. 15 days.
Question 42: What is the fee for an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. $215 per two years paid by the producer.
Question 1: An individual has been examined by the State Department of Insurance. He/she has received a report alleging substantive violations. He/she must request a hearing within how many days?
Correct Answer: A. 10 days.
Question 2: When is an Insurance Producer license bond required?
Correct Answer: A. When an insurance company agrees to assume all responsibilities for sums received on its behalf by the Producer.
Question 3: If an insurance company becomes insolvent, which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. An assessment may be made against the members of the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund to pay claims.
Question 4: Which of the following statements concerning Business Entities is true?
Correct Answer: A. A Business Entity does not have to have any individual authorized to act on its behalf.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT an Unfair Method of Competition which carries with it a civil penalty of up to $5,000?
Correct Answer: C. Make a statement which fairly and accurately compares one insurance company’s policy to another insurance company’s policy.
Question 2: Which of the following statements concerning premium monies is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. If an insurance producer deposits premium moneys to a local bank account, but turns it into the insurance company within five days, a Premium Fund Trust Account is not required.
Question 3: What is the State of Illinois fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: B. $150 per two years.
Question 4: An Insurance Producer agency contract was terminated by an insurance company because the producer was caught misappropriating premiums. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company is subject to a civil penalty of up to $1,000 if it fails to report it to the State Department of Insurance.
Question 5: What is the penalty for NOT being properly licensed?
Correct Answer: C. A Class A Misdemeanor for acting as an Insurance Producer without the proper license.
Question 6: Which of the following statements best describes an alien insurance company?
Correct Answer: D. Chartered in another country other than the one in which it is doing business.
Question 7: Which of the following statements concerning a change of address is true?
Correct Answer: C. All changes of address must be reported within 30 days.
Question 8: An Insurance Producer surrendered her license in order to assume a public office. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: C. She can later become re-licensed without re-examination.
Question 9: When can a Temporary Insurance Producer license be issued?
Correct Answer: C. Before an examination has been taken as long as the individual is enrolled in a qualified training program provided by the appointing insurance company and is engaged in a Pre-License Education program.
Question 10: Mr. R. James, an Insurance Producer, has entered the military. Which of the following statements concerning his insurance Producer license applies?
Correct Answer: B. He may obtain waiver of license renewal while he is in the military if he does not intend to sell insurance while in the military.
Question 11: The State Insurance Director has conducted an examination. Which of the following is NOT a procedure which may be followed?
Correct Answer: B. If a report is issued, it will not be sent to the person or entity examined.
Question 12: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: A. The felony conviction must be reported within 30 days of judgment being entered.
Question 13: After a fire policy has been in effect five years, how can it be non-renewed?
Correct Answer: B. For an act which has measurably increased the risk as originally accepted by giving 60 days notice.
Question 14: Once a Business Entity is required to maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account, it is also required to maintain which of the following bookkeeping records?
Correct Answer: D. Accounts payable.
Question 15: When is an Insurance Producer bond required?
Correct Answer: B. When an Insurance Producer intends to broker insurance.
Question 16: Ms. E. Caitlin needs an insurance policy that her regular producer, Mr. R. James, does NOT regularly sell through his regular insurance company. He offers to obtain a policy for Ms. Caitlin by going through another Insurance Producer, Mr. S. Jordan, who represents a company that does offer the type of policy that Ms. Caitlin needs. What is this type of transaction called?
Correct Answer: B. Brokering.
Question 17: An insurance company has terminated a producer because she did something illegal. The insurance company has failed to report this to the State Department of Insurance. Which of the following penalties would apply?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty.
Question 18: What is the penalty for selling insurance without the proper license and misappropriating premiums?
Correct Answer: B. A class 4 Felony.
Question 19: Which of the following is true concerning a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. It is the same as an insurance agency.
Question 20: When can a property insurance policy be cancelled?
Correct Answer: A. With 10 days notice for nonpayment of premiums.
Question 21: If an insurance company becomes insolvent, which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. An assessment may be made against the members of the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund to pay claims.
Question 22: Which of the following is a purpose of the Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Both to establish bookkeeping requirements and to keep moneys from being commingled.
Question 23: Which of the following requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: C. Charging premiums on account for more than 90 days without charging interest.
Question 24: An Insurance Producer CANNOT do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Sell the insured any product the producer wants to without regard to the insured's best interest.
Question 25: Which of the following statements concerning the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund is true?
Correct Answer: C. All property/casualty insurance companies admitted to sell insurance in Illinois must participate.
Question 26: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for a serious, willful violation of a State Insurance Law?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 no matter how many offenses have been committed.
Question 27: Which of the following do NOT have to be disclosed in an insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. Underwriters.
Question 28: Which of the following is a Continuing Education requirement?
Correct Answer: C. Completing a course that has been approved by the State Department of Insurance.
Question 29: Which of the following parties do NOT have a special responsibility in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: B. The insured.
Question 30: When can commissions be paid?
Correct Answer: D. To someone who was properly licensed for the line of insurance sold at the time the sale was made.
Question 31: In which of the following situations is a license required, but NO examination (which of the following is an exemption from examination)?
Correct Answer: B. Applicants for Non-Resident Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 32: Which of the following statements concerning a Limited Lines Producer is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. The individual applicant must apply and pay the license fee.
Question 33: Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity for which a license can be suspended?
Correct Answer: C. Brokering insurance.
Question 34: Which of the following is NOT an example of controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. Selling only to clients to which the producer has no personal relationship.
Question 35: Which of the following must be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. The next of kin of a deceased Insurance Producer who wishes to maintain the deceased producer's business.
Question 36: When must Mine Subsidence coverage be included in a Property Insurance policy?
Correct Answer: C. It must automatically be included in all Property Insurance policies issued on property in counties in Illinois susceptible to mine subsidence.
Question 37: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for misappropriating premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty of not more than $500.
Question 38: An individual has been examined by the State Department of Insurance. He/she has received a report alleging substantive violations. He/she must request a hearing within how many days?
Correct Answer: B. 14 days.
Question 39: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and nonrenewal of a fire policy is true?
Correct Answer: D. After a policy has been in effect one year, it can be cancelled only with 60 days notice.
Question 40: Who is eligible for coverage under the FAIR Plan?
Correct Answer: D. A person owning urban property other than an auto, manufacturing or farming property who cannot obtain basic property, dwelling or homeowner coverage.
Question 41: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for improperly maintaining a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Class B Misdemeanor.
Question 42: A property insurance policy is being cancelled because the insured has changed the property substantially increasing the risk originally accepted. Which of the following requirements apply?
Correct Answer: D. A copy of the notice of cancellation must be mailed to the producer of record.
Question 1: Payments CANNOT be made out of a Premium Fund Trust Account for which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Office salaries
Question 2: What is a proof of mailing?
Correct Answer: B. It is a post office form stating that a letter was mailed on a certain date to a certain address.
Question 3: All of the following are qualities needed to be professional EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: A. Large numbers of clients.
Question 4: How many days notice is required when canceling an insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. 10 days notice for nonpayment of premiums.
Question 5: To whom is an Insurance Producer responsible while holding premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. The insurance company.
Question 6: Which of the following statements concerning Auto Insurance limits of liability is true?
Correct Answer: A. Minimum Liability coverage limits are $25,000/$50,000/$20,000.
Question 7: The Insurance Director has held a hearing concerning an Insurance Producer's violation of the State Insurance Code. Which of the following does NOT apply?
Correct Answer: C. The Insurance Producer is not bound (obligated) by the State Insurance Director order.
Question 8: Which of the following is a rebate?
Correct Answer: D. An Insurance Producer giving a client a $100 discount on a Homeowner policy.
Question 9: Which of the following statements concerning a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service license is true?
Correct Answer: A. It allows the sale of insurance only as the Insurance Director allows.
Question 10: What is a fiduciary duty?
Correct Answer: C. It is an obligation of special or extra care.
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT an Unfair Method of Competition which carries with it a fine of up to $5,000?
Correct Answer: C. Selling additional policies to established customers.
Question 12: A property insurance policy is being cancelled because the insured has changed the property substantially increasing the risk originally accepted. Which of the following requirements apply?
Correct Answer: D. A copy of the notice of cancellation must be mailed to the producer of record.
Question 13: Which of the following is NOT a procedure of the FAIR Plan?
Correct Answer: D. To refuse to insure a building because of its location.
Question 14: What is a penalty for NOT maintaining premium monies in a proper manner?
Correct Answer: D. A license can be revoked.
Question 15: Which of the following statements best describes a stock insurance company?
Correct Answer: A. Owned by its stockholders.
Question 16: If an Illinois admitted insurance company becomes insolvent, it is very unlikely for an insured to lose any benefits for which of the following reasons?
Correct Answer: C. An assessment may be made against the other admitted property/casualty companies in the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund to pay the claims of the insolvent insurance company.
Question 17: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and nonrenewal of a fire policy is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. After a fire policy has been in effect 5 years, the insurance company must always give 30 days notice to nonrenew.
Question 18: An Insurance Producer surrendered her license in order to assume a public office. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: C. She can later become re-licensed without re-examination.
Question 19: Which of the following qualifies for a Temporary Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. An individual whose appointing insurance company has made application, is enrolled in a qualified training program and who is in the process of fulfilling the Pre-License Education requirements.
Question 20: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: A. The felony conviction must be reported within 30 days of judgment being entered.
Question 21: What is an Illinois Pre-License Education requirement?
Correct Answer: A. 20 hours of instruction for each class of insurance.
Question 22: A change of address must be reported when?
Correct Answer: C. 30 days.
Question 23: An Insurance Producer CANNOT do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Sell the insured any product the producer wants to without regard to the insured's best interest.
Question 24: When is an Insurance Producer bond required?
Correct Answer: B. When an Insurance Producer intends to broker insurance.
Question 25: Which of the following describes the Insurance Producer Administrative Fund?
Correct Answer: D. It is a fund in which all license fees are deposited by the State Department of Insurance.
Question 26: What is the penalty for selling insurance without the proper license and misappropriating premiums?
Correct Answer: B. A class 4 Felony.
Question 27: All of the following statements concerning the State Workers Compensation Act are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. There is no penalty for not carrying Workers Compensation Insurance or having a self-insurance plan.
Question 28: Which of the following statements concerning the FAIR Plan is true?
Correct Answer: C. Its purpose is to assure the availability of fire insurance to all individuals who own buildings which are structurally insurable, including buildings in blighted urban areas that might otherwise have trouble obtaining insurance.
Question 29: Which of the following statements concerning a Limited Lines Producer is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. The individual applicant must apply and pay the required fees.
Question 30: Which of the following requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: C. Charging premiums on account for more than 90 days without charging interest.
Question 31: Which of the following statements concerning license suspension and revocation is true?
Correct Answer: D. A license can be revoked due to misappropriation of premiums.
Question 32: Insurance Producers S. Jordan and R. James have jointly sold an insurance policy to Ms. E. Caitlin. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. Both of their names must be disclosed on the policy.
Question 33: The State Insurance Director can financially examine which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. All domestic insurance companies periodically.
Question 34: An auto was damaged by a hit and run driver. Which coverage applies?
Correct Answer: C. Uninsured Motorist Property Damage.
Question 35: Which of the following statements concerning the Insurance Producer written examination is true?
Correct Answer: B. An application and fees must be submitted.
Question 36: An insurance company has terminated a Limited Lines Producer because he was caught accepting insurance business from someone who was NOT licensed. The insurance company failed to report the circumstances to the State Insurance Director. Which of the following penalties applies?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company is subject to a civil penalty or suspension or revocation of its license.
Question 37: Which of the following is a purpose of the Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Both to establish bookkeeping requirements and to keep moneys from being commingled.
Question 38: The State Workers Compensation Commission does all of the following EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Supervises the Workers Compensation Assigned Risk Pool.
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT contained on an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. Name of insurance company.
Question 40: An insurance company can pay renewal commissions to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. An individual not currently licensed, but who was licensed at the time that the policy was sold.
Question 41: An individual may satisfy the State Financial Responsibility requirement how?
Correct Answer: A. By posting evidence of an insurance policy covering either the driver or the automobile in effect at the time of the accident.
Question 42: What is the State of Illinois fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: B. $150 per two years.
Question 43: An employee has been injured in a work related accident. The employer does NOT have Workers Compensation insurance. Which of the following penalties applies?
Correct Answer: A. The employer loses all Common Law defenses.
Question 44: When can a property insurance policy be cancelled?
Correct Answer: A. With 10 days notice for nonpayment of premiums.
Question 45: Mr. R. James, an Insurance Producer, has entered the military. Which of the following statements concerning his Insurance Producer license applies?
Correct Answer: B. He may obtain waiver of license renewal while he is in the military if he does not intend to sell insurance while in the military.
Question 46: Which of the following do NOT have to be licensed?
Correct Answer: D. Salaried Business Entity employees who are not paid a commission and who are engaged only in clerical duties.
Question 47: An auto policy can be cancelled or nonrenewed for what reason?
Correct Answer: A. Cancelled due to misrepresentation in the application.
Question 48: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for misappropriating premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty of not more than $500.
Question 49: A Limited Lines Producer license can be terminated by whom?
Correct Answer: C. Either the insurance company, the state Insurance Director or the individual Limited Lines Producer.
Question 50: Which of the following does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: D. Working as a receptionist in an insurance company home office.
Question 1: Which of the following statements concerning Workers Compensation insurance is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. Domestic employees must always be covered.
Question 2: An Insurance Producer license can be terminated by whom?
Correct Answer: B. The State Insurance Director.
Question 3: Once a Business Entity is required to maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account, it is also required to maintain which of the following bookkeeping records?
Correct Answer: D. Account receivables due from insureds.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity for which a license can be suspended?
Correct Answer: C. Brokering insurance.
Question 5: When must Mine Subsidence coverage be included in a Property Insurance policy?
Correct Answer: B. Property Insurance policies issued on property located in counties susceptible to mine subsidence.
Question 6: There is a State Insurance Law which sets forth the amount of time in which various types of claims must be paid. What is it called?
Correct Answer: B. Unfair Claims Practices Act.
Question 7: Which of the following is true concerning a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. It is the same as an insurance agency.
Question 8: An Insurance Producer can charge an insured service charges in addition to the regular premiums and commissions under what circumstances?
Correct Answer: A. Only if he or she has given the insured notice.
Question 9: Which of the following statements concerning premium monies is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. A Premium Fund Trust Account is not required just because premium moneys are being deposited to a local bank before being turned into the insurance company.
Question 10: Which of the following is an Insurance Producer licensing Requirement?
Correct Answer: B. The individual applicant must make application.
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT an example of controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. Selling insurance only to people to whom the producer is not related.
Question 12: Which of the following must be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. The next of kin of a deceased Insurance Producer who wishes to maintain the deceased producer's business.
Question 13: An Insurance Producer agency contract was terminated by an insurance company because the producer was caught misappropriating premiums. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company is subject to a civil penalty of up to $1,000 if it fails to report it to the State Department of Insurance.
Question 14: Which of the following are NOT required to carry Workers Compensation insurance?
Correct Answer: D. Employers of certain types of farm or domestic employees.
Question 15: What is the fee for an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. $215 per two years paid by the producer.
Question 16: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for violating an order issued by the State Insurance Director?
Correct Answer: D. Class 3 Felony.
Question 17: Mr. Ryan James, a licensed insurance producer, is assuming a new employment situation in which the Insurance Director has determined there would be a conflict of interest for him to retain his insurance producer license. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. He will probably be able to get re-licensed after his conflict of interest no longer applies without retaking the examination.
Question 18: Which of the following does NOT require an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: C. Perform office duties.
Question 19: Which of the following is NOT a qualification to obtain coverage through the Automobile Insurance Plan?
Correct Answer: D. Have a suspended driver's license.
Question 20: Which of the following statements concerning the Workers Compensation Assigned Risk Pool is true?
Correct Answer: C. All insurance companies selling Workers Compensation Insurance in Illinois must participate in its losses.
Question 21: When must a return premium be calculated on a prorated basis?
Correct Answer: A. When the insurance company cancels the policy.
Question 22: What is it called when an individual applying for a non-resident insurance license is NOT required to take an examination because his or her resident state does NOT require an examination of individuals from other states wishing to become Non-Resident Producers?
Correct Answer: A. Reciprocity.
Question 23: The State Insurance Director has conducted an examination. Which of the following is NOT a procedure which may be followed?
Correct Answer: B. If a report is issued, it will not be sent to the person or entity examined.
Question 24: Which must an insurance company do when canceling or nonrenewing an auto policy?
Correct Answer: B. Advise the insured of his or her right to appeal the cancellation to the State Insurance Director.
Question 25: What is the State of Illinois fee for a Limited Lines Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. $50 per year paid by the insurance company.
Question 26: Which of the following is NOT a right of the insured upon cancellation or nonrenewal of a fire policy?
Correct Answer: C. A prorated return of the unearned premium if the insured is canceling the policy.
Question 27: A Premium Fund Trust Account can be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: A. Checking account in an Illinois bank.
Question 28: If required, an Insurance Producer bond must be in what amount?
Correct Answer: C. $2,500.
Question 29: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to be a professional person?
Correct Answer: D. High income.
Question 30: A property insurance policy was nonrenewed because the insured made too many claims. Which of the following requirements apply?
Correct Answer: D. If the insurance company fails to give the insured proper notice of intent to nonrenew, coverage can continue in effect until the insured obtains substitute coverage.
Question 31: Mr. Harold Lloyd, an Insurance Producer, has died leaving behind many active insurance clients. Which of the following could NOT obtain a Temporary Insurance Producer license in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service?
Correct Answer: C. A competitor.
Question 32: Ms. E. Caitlin needs an insurance policy that her regular producer, Mr. R. James, does NOT regularly sell through his regular insurance company. He offers to obtain a policy for Ms. Caitlin by going through another Insurance Producer, Mr. S. Jordan, who represents a company that does offer the type of policy that Ms. Caitlin needs. What is this type of transaction called?
Correct Answer: B. Brokering.
Question 33: An Insurance Producer has been caught misappropriating premium monies. The State Insurance Director has issued an order revoking her license. Which of the following procedures must be followed?
Correct Answer: B. The individual has 30 days to request a hearing.
Question 34: The State Insurance Director (Director of Insurance) CANNOT do which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Disapprove premium rates.
Question 35: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and nonrenewal of a property (fire) policy is true?
Correct Answer: D. After a policy has been in effect 5 years, it can be nonrenewed with 60 days notice if the nonrenewal is due to an act which would measurably increase the risk as originally accepted.
Question 36: A Worker's Compensation insurance policy will NOT cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Medical expenses incurred because of an accident at home.
Question 37: What is the penalty for NOT being properly licensed?
Correct Answer: C. A Class A Misdemeanor for acting as an Insurance Producer without the proper license.
Question 38: Which of the following statements best describes an alien insurance company?
Correct Answer: D. Chartered in another country other than the one in which it is doing business.
Question 39: Who does Uninsured Motorists and Underinsured Motorists coverages protect?
Correct Answer: B. The insured and all members of his or her household anywhere.
Question 40: Who is eligible for coverage under the FAIR Plan?
Correct Answer: D. A person owning urban property other than an auto, manufacturing or farming property who cannot obtain basic property, dwelling or homeowner insurance.
Question 41: Mr. R. James, an Insurance Producer, has an agreement with Crash Mutual Automobile Insurance Company. The agreement authorizes Mr. James to sell and service policies issued by Crash Mutual. What would you call that agreement?
Correct Answer: A. An agency agreement.
Question 42: When must an insurance company allow a rate reduction on an auto policy?
Correct Answer: D. An auto equipped with anti-theft mechanisms.
Question 43: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and nonrenewal of a fire insurance policy is true?
Correct Answer: D. A policy can be nonrenewed due to too many claims.
Question 44: Which types of insurance can a Limited Lines Producer NOT sell?
Correct Answer: A. Homeowners insurance.
Question 45: Which of the following is NOT a qualification for an Insurance Producer's license?
Correct Answer: C. Selling mostly controlled business.
Question 46: Which of the following statements concerning the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund is true?
Correct Answer: C. All property/casualty insurance companies admitted to sell insurance in Illinois must participate.
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity for which a license can be revoked?
Correct Answer: D. Soliciting insurance.
Question 48: A Business Entity is required to maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account whenever it is going to retain premium monies how many days?
Correct Answer: B. 15 days.
Question 49: What percentage of Temporary Insurance Producers must pass their exams and obtain Insurance Producer licenses in order for an insurance company to have a qualified training program?
Correct Answer: B. 50% each six-month period.
Question 50: Which of the following penalties for Unfair Methods of Competition apply?
Correct Answer: B. Being ordered to cease and desist for misstating the benefits of a policy.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for misappropriating premium monies?
Correct Answer: C. Continuing Education.
Question 2: Which of the following statements concerning Business Entities is true?
Correct Answer: C. A Business Entity is a person or organization who employees individuals to act as Insurance Producers.
Question 3: Which of the following types of disbursements CANNOT be made from a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: C. Direct payment of advertising expenses.
Question 4: Which of the following is a Continuing Education requirement?
Correct Answer: C. Completing a course that has been approved by the State Department of Insurance.
Question 5: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for improperly maintaining a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Class B Misdemeanor.
Question 6: Which of the following applies when an insurance company intends to NOT renew a property insurance policy?
Correct Answer: C. If the insurance company fails to give proper notice, the insured may keep the policy in effect.
Question 7: Which of the following do NOT have to be disclosed in an insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. Underwriters.
Question 8: Which of the following would be an example of rebating?
Correct Answer: A. Paying someone a referral fee only if the referral buys.
Question 9: What is a Proof of Mailing?
Correct Answer: A. Any post office form indicating that a letter was mailed on a certain day to a certain address.
Question 10: Which of the following describes a stock insurance company?
Correct Answer: A. Owned by stockholders.
Question 11: The primary purpose of a Premium Fund Trust Account is what?
Correct Answer: C. To keep premium monies held for insurance companies separate from other monies.
Question 12: Which of the following is a special state fund in which all license and examination fees are deposited by the State Insurance Director?
Correct Answer: B. Insurance Producer Administrative Fund.
Question 13: A Workers Compensation policy will NOT cover which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Common Law liability to someone other than an employee.
Question 14: When can a Temporary Insurance Producer license be issued?
Correct Answer: C. Before an examination has been taken as long as the individual is enrolled in a qualified training program provided by the appointing insurance company and is engaged in a Pre-License Education program.
Question 15: What is the penalty for acting as an Insurance Producer without a license?
Correct Answer: D. Class A Misdemeanor for acting as an Insurance Producer without proper licensing.
Question 16: What is controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. Selling insurance only to yourself, your spouse, the business you are employed by, or your own business.
Question 17: Which of the following statements concerning a change of address is true?
Correct Answer: C. All changes of address must be reported within 30 days.
Question 18: Which of the following is an Unfair Method of Competition carrying with it a fine of not more than $5,000?
Correct Answer: C. Misrepresenting the financial status of an insurance company.
Question 19: What is the license fee for a Limited Insurance Representative license?
Correct Answer: B. $50 per year paid by the insurance company.
Question 20: Which of the following describes Underinsured Motorists coverage?
Correct Answer: C. It covers the difference between the at-fault driver's liability limits and the insured's Underinsured Motorist limits.
Question 21: All of the following are qualities needed to be professional EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: A. Large number of clients.
Question 22: Which of the following requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: D. Allowing a client more than 90 days to pay his premiums without charging him interest or any late charges.
Question 23: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and/or nonrenewal of an Auto Insurance policy is true?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company must notify the insured of his or her right to appeal the cancellation or nonrenewal to the State Insurance Director.
Question 24: If an insurance company becomes insolvent, which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. An assessment may be made against the members of the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund to pay claims.
Question 25: When an Insurance Producer accepts premium money, the producer has an obligation of special or extra responsibility. What is that called?
Correct Answer: A. A fiduciary responsibility.
Question 26: When must an insurance company provide the State Insurance Director with information pertaining to the termination of a producer?
Correct Answer: C. When the producer is being terminated because he or she violated an insurance law.
Question 27: How may an individual obtain coverage through the Automobile Insurance Plan?
Correct Answer: D. Apply directly him or herself.
Question 28: An insured paid a $1,000 annual premium. After three months the policy was cancelled. The insured received a return premium of $750. Which of the following describes the refund?
Correct Answer: B. Prorated refund.
Question 29: When can commissions be paid?
Correct Answer: D. To someone who was properly licensed for the line of insurance sold at the time the sale was made.
Question 30: An individual has been examined by the State Department of Insurance. He/she has received a report alleging substantive violations. He/she must request a hearing within how many days?
Correct Answer: B. 14 days.
Question 31: All of the following must carry Workers Compensation Insurance or have a self-insurance plan filed EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Employers of certain types of farm and domestic employees.
Question 32: Which of the following statements concerning Uninsured Motorists coverage is true?
Correct Answer: B. It must be written with minimum limits of $25,000/$50,000.
Question 33: Which of the following must be reported to the State Insurance Director?
Correct Answer: A. A felony conviction.
Question 34: Which of the following applies when an Insurance Producer enters the military?
Correct Answer: B. If the individual is not going to sell any insurance while in the military, he or she may file for a waiver from license fees while in the military.
Question 35: Which of the following statements concerning the State Workers Compensation Commission is true?
Correct Answer: C. All insurance and self-insurance plans must be filed with it.
Question 36: Which of the following statements concerning financial examinations is true?
Correct Answer: B. All insurance companies must submit detailed financial statements to all State Department of Insurances where they are licensed every year.
Question 37: An insurance company has terminated a producer because she did something illegal. The insurance company has failed to report this to the State Department of Insurance. Which of the following penalties would apply?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty.
Question 38: Which of the following can be done by an individual possessing a Temporary Insurance Producer in Case of Death, Disability or Military Service License?
Correct Answer: A. Anything a producer can normally do, unless the Insurance Director imposes limitations.
Question 39: An Insurance Producer has all of the following duties to an insured EXCEPT which?
Correct Answer: D. Make sure the insured is always getting the lowest premium rate possible.
Question 40: Which of the following statements concerning the FAIR Plan is true?
Correct Answer: A. It is supervised by both the state and federal governments.
Question 41: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and/or nonrenewal of an auto policy is state law?
Correct Answer: A. After an auto policy has either been in effect 60 days or renewed, the policy can be cancelled only for certain reasons specified in the State Insurance Laws.
Question 42: When is an Insurance Producer license bond required?
Correct Answer: B. When the producer sometimes acts as a broker.
Question 43: After a fire policy has been in effect five years, how can it be non-renewed?
Correct Answer: B. For an act which has measurably increased the risk as originally accepted by giving 60 days notice.
Question 44: In which of the following situations is a license required, but NO examination (which of the following is an exemption from examination)?
Correct Answer: B. Applicants for Non-Resident Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 45: When must Mine Subsidence coverage be included in a Property Insurance policy?
Correct Answer: C. It must automatically be included in all Property Insurance policies issued on property in counties in Illinois susceptible to mine subsidence.
Question 46: Which of the following statements describes an Insurance Producer?
Correct Answer: D. An individual who sells, solicits or negotiates coverage on property located in Illinois.
Question 47: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for a serious, willful violation of a State Insurance Law?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 no matter how many offenses have been committed.
Question 48: Which of the following parties do NOT have a special responsibility in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: B. The insured.
Question 49: Which of the following is a qualification for a Limited Lines Producer license?
Correct Answer: B. Trustworthy, competent and of good business reputation.
Question 50: Ms. J. Jordan, an Insurance Producer, was elected to a public office. Election to that office required her to surrender her Insurance Producer license in order to avoid any possibility of a conflict in interest. Which of the following statements apply?
Correct Answer: A. Ms. Jordan will not have to retake the examination to get her license within four years.
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for a serious, willful violation of a State Insurance Law?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty not to exceed $1,000 no matter how many offenses have been committed.
Question 2: Who is eligible for coverage under the FAIR Plan?
Correct Answer: D. A person owning urban property other than an auto, manufacturing or farming property who cannot obtain basic property, dwelling or homeowner coverage.
Question 3: Which of the following is NOT an example of controlled business?
Correct Answer: C. Selling only to clients to which the producer has no personal relationship.
Question 4: When can a property insurance policy be cancelled?
Correct Answer: A. With 10 days notice for nonpayment of premiums.
Question 5: Which of the following is NOT a prohibited activity for which a license can be suspended?
Correct Answer: C. Brokering insurance.
Question 6: An individual has been examined by the State Department of Insurance. He/she has received a report alleging substantive violations. He/she must request a hearing within how many days?
Correct Answer: B. 14 days.
Question 7: Which of the following is true concerning a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. It is the same as an insurance agency.
Question 8: Which of the following statements concerning Auto Insurance limits of liability is true?
Correct Answer: A. Minimum Liability coverage limits are $25,000/$50,000/$20,000.
Question 9: Ms. E. Caitlin needs an insurance policy that her regular producer, Mr. R. James, does NOT regularly sell through his regular insurance company. He offers to obtain a policy for Ms. Caitlin by going through another Insurance Producer, Mr. S. Jordan, who represents a company that does offer the type of policy that Ms. Caitlin needs. What is this type of transaction called?
Correct Answer: B. Brokering.
Question 10: What is the penalty for NOT being properly licensed?
Correct Answer: C. A Class A Misdemeanor for acting as an Insurance Producer without the proper license.
Question 11: When must an insurance company allow a rate reduction on an auto policy?
Correct Answer: D. An auto equipped with anti-theft mechanisms.
Question 12: An Insurance Producer has been convicted of a felony crime. Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: A. The felony conviction must be reported within 30 days of judgment being entered.
Question 13: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and nonrenewal of a fire policy is true?
Correct Answer: D. After a policy has been in effect one year, it can be cancelled only with 60 days notice.
Question 14: Which of the following statements concerning premium monies is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. If an insurance producer deposits premium moneys to a local bank account, but turns it into the insurance company within five days, a Premium Fund Trust Account is not required.
Question 15: What is the State of Illinois fee for a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: B. $150 per two years.
Question 16: An Insurance Producer surrendered her license in order to assume a public office. Which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: C. She can later become re-licensed without re-examination.
Question 17: Which of the following statements concerning the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund is true?
Correct Answer: C. All property/casualty insurance companies admitted to sell insurance in Illinois must participate.
Question 18: When must Mine Subsidence coverage be included in a Property Insurance policy?
Correct Answer: C. It must automatically be included in all Property Insurance policies issued on property in counties in Illinois susceptible to mine subsidence.
Question 19: If an insurance company becomes insolvent, which of the following would apply?
Correct Answer: A. An assessment may be made against the members of the Illinois Insurance Guaranty Fund to pay claims.
Question 20: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for misappropriating premium monies?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty of not more than $500.
Question 21: Which of the following statements concerning the Workers Compensation Assigned Risk Pool is true?
Correct Answer: C. All insurance companies selling Workers Compensation Insurance in Illinois must participate in its losses.
Question 22: The State Insurance Director has conducted an examination. Which of the following is NOT a procedure which may be followed?
Correct Answer: B. If a report is issued, it will not be sent to the person or entity examined.
Question 23: Which of the following statements concerning a change of address is true?
Correct Answer: C. All changes of address must be reported within 30 days.
Question 24: Which of the following do NOT have to be disclosed in an insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. Underwriters.
Question 25: Which of the following is a purpose of the Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Both to establish bookkeeping requirements and to keep moneys from being commingled.
Question 26: Which of the following must be licensed?
Correct Answer: A. The next of kin of a deceased Insurance Producer who wishes to maintain the deceased producer's business.
Question 27: Mr. R. James, an Insurance Producer, has entered the military. Which of the following statements concerning his insurance Producer license applies?
Correct Answer: B. He may obtain waiver of license renewal while he is in the military if he does not intend to sell insurance while in the military.
Question 28: An Insurance Producer CANNOT do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Sell the insured any product the producer wants to without regard to the insured's best interest.
Question 29: What is the penalty for selling insurance without the proper license and misappropriating premiums?
Correct Answer: B. A class 4 Felony.
Question 30: Which of the following is a Continuing Education requirement?
Correct Answer: C. Completing a course that has been approved by the State Department of Insurance.
Question 31: In which of the following situations is a license required, but NO examination (which of the following is an exemption from examination)?
Correct Answer: B. Applicants for Non-Resident Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 32: After a fire policy has been in effect five years, how can it be non-renewed?
Correct Answer: B. For an act which has measurably increased the risk as originally accepted by giving 60 days notice.
Question 33: Which of the following parties do NOT have a special responsibility in handling premium monies?
Correct Answer: B. The insured.
Question 34: All of the following must carry Workers Compensation Insurance or have a self-insurance plan filed EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. Employers of certain types of farm and domestic employees.
Question 35: Which of the following statements concerning a Limited Lines Producer is NOT true?
Correct Answer: C. The individual applicant must apply and pay the license fee.
Question 36: When can commissions be paid?
Correct Answer: D. To someone who was properly licensed for the line of insurance sold at the time the sale was made.
Question 37: When can a Temporary Insurance Producer license be issued?
Correct Answer: C. Before an examination has been taken as long as the individual is enrolled in a qualified training program provided by the appointing insurance company and is engaged in a Pre-License Education program.
Question 38: An insurance company has terminated a producer because she did something illegal. The insurance company has failed to report this to the State Department of Insurance. Which of the following penalties would apply?
Correct Answer: A. A civil penalty.
Question 39: Which of the following is NOT an Unfair Method of Competition which carries with it a civil penalty of up to $5,000?
Correct Answer: C. Make a statement which fairly and accurately compares one insurance company’s policy to another insurance company’s policy.
Question 40: A property insurance policy is being cancelled because the insured has changed the property substantially increasing the risk originally accepted. Which of the following requirements apply?
Correct Answer: D. A copy of the notice of cancellation must be mailed to the producer of record.
Question 41: Which of the following statements concerning cancellation and/or nonrenewal of an auto policy is state law?
Correct Answer: A. After an auto policy has either been in effect 60 days or renewed, the policy can be cancelled only for certain reasons specified in the State Insurance Laws.
Question 42: Which of the following statements best describes an alien insurance company?
Correct Answer: D. Chartered in another country other than the one in which it is doing business.
Question 43: Which of the following is NOT a penalty for improperly maintaining a Premium Fund Trust Account?
Correct Answer: D. Class B Misdemeanor.
Question 44: All of the following statements concerning the State Workers Compensation Act are true EXCEPT?
Correct Answer: A. There is no penalty for not carrying Workers Compensation Insurance or having a self-insurance plan.
Question 45: Which of the following requires a Premium Finance Company license?
Correct Answer: C. Charging premiums on account for more than 90 days without charging interest.
Question 46: An Insurance Producer agency contract was terminated by an insurance company because the producer was caught misappropriating premiums. Which of the following applies?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company is subject to a civil penalty of up to $1,000 if it fails to report it to the State Department of Insurance.
Question 47: Which of the following are NOT required to carry Workers Compensation insurance?
Correct Answer: D. Employers of certain types of farm or domestic employees.
Question 48: An auto policy can be cancelled or nonrenewed for what reason?
Correct Answer: A. Cancelled due to misrepresentation in the application.
Question 49: When is an Insurance Producer bond required?
Correct Answer: B. When an Insurance Producer intends to broker insurance.
Question 50: Once a Business Entity is required to maintain a Premium Fund Trust Account, it is also required to maintain which of the following bookkeeping records?
Correct Answer: D. Accounts payable.
Question 1: In order to get a loan to buy a car, John had to obtain insurance on the car. What is the purpose of the insurance requirement?
Correct Answer: A. To protect the lender’s financial interest in the car in the event it is damaged or destroyed.
Question 2: You ask an insurance producer, “How much is the premium for this policy?” You are interested in knowing which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Pay the insurer for the insurance policy.
Question 3: Danny decides that he would like to get a piece of the action by buying part of an insurance policy covering the United Nations building in New York. He figures that if the building burns, he would collect some money. Of course, this is an impossible plan for what reason?
Correct Answer: B. Danny has no insurable interest in the United Nations building.
Question 4: Jared and Miranda purchased a $150,000 house. They paid $30,000 as a down payment and borrowed the remaining $120,000. In regard to the insurance on their home, this is an example of which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Joint insurable interest.
Question 5: Which of the following are NOT types of property loss?
Correct Answer: B. Liability for damage to another’s property.
Question 6: In order to be held legally liable for damages, an individual must generally be guilty of which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Negligence.
Question 7: All members of a club to which you belong agree to insure each other, sharing all of the losses or profits. What would this be known as?
Correct Answer: A. A reciprocal company.
Question 8: The Stormy Mutual Insurance Company of Omaha, Nebraska, is licensed to sell insurance in Illinois, Indiana, and Iowa. In these three states, what is this?
Correct Answer: B. An admitted insurer.
Question 9: An application for insurance is which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. A written document containing information about the insured for use by the company.
Question 10: What would the person having the final authority concerning the acceptance or rejection of a risk be called?
Correct Answer: D. The underwriter.
Question 11: An insurance company department who inspects losses and determines the amount to be paid for a loss would work in which department?
Correct Answer: A. The claim department.
Question 12: The department within an insurance company most interested in loss prevention and assisting insureds with their safety programs would be known as which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. The loss control department.
Question 13: Which of the following methods involves the determination of premiums using discount based on past experience?
Correct Answer: B. Merit rating.
Question 14: Suppose Geraldine purchases a special insurance policy to protect her valuable fur coat. The producer says that the premium was calculated as $80, but the company must charge at least $100. What is this an example of?
Correct Answer: C. A minimum premium.
Question 15: What type of policy issued by several different companies, but with identical wording be called?
Correct Answer: A. A standard policy.
Question 16: Here is a sample part of an insurance policy: “ In consideration of payment of premium the company will indemnify the insured for all losses as a result of fire, windstorm, or theft.” Which portion would this be part of in the insurance policy?
Correct Answer: C. The insuring agreement.
Question 17: Easy-to-read insurance policies are or have which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Feature clear language and larger type.
Question 18: If an insured obtains coverage by an intentional misrepresentation or concealment of a material fact, the insurance company could do which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Void the policy.
Question 19: Which of the following is NOT a method used by insurers to determine the amount of indemnification for a loss?
Correct Answer: D. Combined ratio.
Question 20: The cause of loss is called what?
Correct Answer: A. A peril.
Question 21: Which of the following does a homeowners’ policy provide?
Correct Answer: B. Both property and liability coverage.
Question 22: A building is valued at $50,000. The owner has $40,000 of insurance to meet the requirement of an 80% coinsurance clause. The building suffers a $30,000 loss. The insurance company will pay how much to the owner?
Correct Answer: D. $30,000.
Question 23: In general, damage caused to the insured’s vehicle by impact with another vehicle or object is paid under which of the following specific personal auto policy coverages?
Correct Answer: C. Collision.
Question 24: Workers compensation insurance does which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Covers an employer for benefits the employer must pay under state law to employees injured on the job.
Question 25: All of the following are reasons that insurance is NOT like gambling EXCEPT which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Insurance has nothing to do with risk.
Question 1: In the Commercial Package Policy (CPP), the term that refers to the combination of forms and endorsements selected by the insured for particular line of insurance is called what?
Correct Answer: D. Coverage part.
Question 2: Which one of the following forms contains conditions that apply to all commercial lines of insurance?
Correct Answer: B. Common Policy Conditions.
Question 3: An insured’s Commercial Package Policy includes the Commercial Property coverage part, Commercial Auto coverage part, and Commercial crime coverage part. How many Common Policy Declarations must be included?
Correct Answer: D. 1
Question 4: An insured has made a claim for loss or damage and wishes to bring legal action against the insurance company. Which of the following must they do within the two years after?
Correct Answer: B. The date the loss occurred.
Question 5: A Cancellation Change endorsement may be required when the policy covers which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Buildings.
Question 6: Which of the following is only covered under the Building coverage in the Building and Personal Property coverage form if no other insurance applies?
Correct Answer: C. Additions in the process of being completed.
Question 7: Which additional coverage provides up to $10,000 to extract contaminates from the insured’s property under certain circumstances?
Correct Answer: D. Pollutant Cleanup and Removal.
Question 8: In the Building and Personal Property coverage form, a tenant’s use interest in improvements and betterments is covered under which for the following coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Under Business Personal Property.
Question 9: Under the Building and Personal Property Coverage Form, when is the insured’s business personal property covered while it is temporarily off the insured’s premises?
Correct Answer: B. While in a repair shop.
Question 10: A building is insured under the Building and Personal Property coverage form for $80,000. At the time of a $40,000 loss, the actual cash value of the building is $90,000. The policy is written with an agreed value of $80,000 on the building. How much will the insured receive for this loss, ignoring any deductible?
Correct Answer: B. $40,000.
Question 11: The deductible in the Building and Personal Property coverage form applies per which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Occurrence.
Question 12: Which one of the following is NOT part of the coverage territory of a Commercial Property coverage part?
Correct Answer: C. Mexico.
Question 13: The actual cash value of property is usually defined as which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Replacement cost less depreciation.
Question 14: Which one of the following is NOT covered by the Basic Causes of Loss form?
Correct Answer: B. Falling objects.
Question 15: Which one of the following perils is NOT covered by the Basic Causes of Loss form?
Correct Answer: A. Failure of off-premises utility service.
Question 16: Which of the following causes of loss is included in the Broad form but not the Basic form?
Correct Answer: C. Weight of ice, snow, or sleet.
Question 17: The insured’s office building, which is located on a riverbank, is insured under a Building and Personal Property coverage form with the Broad Causes of Loss form. Which of the following losses would be covered?
Correct Answer: D. Interior building damage caused by water when the insured’s automatic sprinkler system ruptured.
Question 18: Coverage for volcanic eruption is provided by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. The Earthquake and Volcanic Eruption endorsement.
Question 19: A Condominium Association coverage form covers Business Personal Property owned by which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. The association or indivisibly by the unit owners.
Question 20: Under the terms of a Value Reporting form, what happens if an insured that has underreported values to the insurance company has a loss?
Correct Answer: D. The policy will be voided.
Question 21: Which Commercial Property coverage form limits of insurance reflect the building’s increasing value during construction, as reported to the insurance company on a monthly basis?
Correct Answer: D. Builders Risk reporting form.
Question 22: Which of the following property CANNOT be covered under a Value reporting form?
Correct Answer: B. Commercial buildings.
Question 23: What type of property may be covered under the Legal Liability coverage form?
Correct Answer: A. Any tangible property of others in the insured’s care, custody, or control that is described in the Declarations or on a separate Schedule.
Question 24: The insured, which has a Business Income without Extra Expense coverage form, has a business income loss of $15,000. The insured paid workers $4,500 in overtime to reduce the loss to $10,000. What is the total amount the insured would receive from the insurance company?
Correct Answer: B. $14,500.
Question 25: Under the Vacancy Permit endorsement, the permit period may extend no longer than which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. The anniversary date of the policy.
Question 1: Invasion of the right of private occupancy is an example of which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Personal and advertising injury.
Question 2: Preston Plumbing contracts with Coleville Dry Cleaning Store to install the plumbing for a new restroom at the dry cleaner’s premises. In two days, the work is completed according to the contract and Coleville’s owner approves it. What is this an example of?
Correct Answer: C. Completed operations.
Question 3: Of the following examples of bodily injury or property damage, which one falls within the products-completed operations hazard?
Correct Answer: A. Maria uses a home hair preparation kit to perm her hair. The product is said to give natural-looking curly hair in 30 minutes. Instead, her hair falls out.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT an element that may be present in the business liability exposure?
Correct Answer: B. Rendering professional services.
Question 5: The failure to use even the slightest degree of care with regard to the safety of others is considered which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Gross negligence.
Question 6: In the commercial general liability coverage part, which one of the following is always included?
Correct Answer: B. Nuclear energy liability exclusion endorsement (Broad Form).
Question 7: Which one of the common policy conditions includes a provision allowing only the first named insured to alter the terms of coverage with the insurer’s consent?
Correct Answer: B. Changes.
Question 8: Which one of the following is considered mobile equipment?
Correct Answer: A. Bulldozer.
Question 9: Which one of the following is an example of a personal and advertising injury?
Correct Answer: C. While John was at work, his landlord entered his apartment and watched television.
Question 10: The Coverage A exclusion regarding aircraft, auto, and watercraft applies to which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. The insured’s watercraft being used to entertain business clients.
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT excluded under Coverage A?
Correct Answer: A. Damage arising from a condition existing at a house a speculative builder has just completed.
Question 12: Property damage to impaired property that results from a defect in the insured’s work is what?
Correct Answer: A. Excluded from Coverage A unless a sudden and accidental injury to the insured’s work occurred after it was put to its intended use.
Question 13: An insured locks the door to the conference room so that visitors cannot leave during the insured’s 3-hour product demonstration. After 1 visitor tried unsuccessfully to leave, she fainted and bumped her head when she fell, resulting in a concussion. Under what part of the insured’s CGL might the visitor’s injury be covered?
Correct Answer: A. Coverage B.
Question 14: What are the supplementary payments for Coverage A and B limited by?
Correct Answer: B. Any limitations specifically stated in the supplementary payments section.
Question 15: An insured has a CGL with a $200,000 products-completed operations limit. During the third year of a 3-year policy, this limit was reduced to $80,000. The insured asks for and receives a 2-month extension of the policy. During this 2-month period, a $140,000 products-completed operations judgement is awarded against the insured. How much is available under the products-completed operations limit to pay this loss?
Correct Answer: B. $80,000.
Question 16: To qualify as an agreed settlement, who must sign the release of liability?
Correct Answer: A. The insurance company, the insured, and the claimant or the claimant’s legal representative.
Question 17: In a series of claims-made policies, when each policy has the same retroactive date as the first claims-made policy, the rate at which the premium is charged
Correct Answer: A. Gradually increases.
Question 18: Which of the following is true under the claims-made form?
Correct Answer: A. An actual claim made to either the insured or the insurer during the policy period will trigger Coverage’s A and B.
Question 19: For the 5-year basic extended reporting period to apply, the insured must do what?
Correct Answer: B. Notify the insurer within 60 days of the policy expiration of an occurrence or offense that might lead to a claim.
Question 20: When is coverage provided over the longest period of time?
Correct Answer: A. When there is no retroactive date indicated on the declarations.
Question 21: Of the following, which one provides corrective actions costs?
Correct Answer: B. Underground storage tank liability coverage form for designated tanks.
Question 22: Of the following, which one best describes an occurrence?
Correct Answer: C. Leonard accidentally drops a burning cigarette on the premises of a business. The business burns to the ground.
Question 23: Which endorsement provides an unlimited extended reporting period?
Correct Answer: A. Supplemental extended reporting period endorsement.
Question 24: How can an insured who is not in the alcoholic beverage business specifically exclude liquor liability?
Correct Answer: B. Attach the amendment of liquor liability exclusion endorsement to the policy.
Question 25: An insured wants pollution liability coverage against the possibility of bodily injury and property damage claims, but is not interested in coverage for clean-up costs. This insured needs
Correct Answer: A. The pollution liability limited coverage form designated sites.
Question 1: Which one of the following correctly describes the two major sections of a homeowner’s policy?
Correct Answer: C. Property coverages and liability coverages.
Question 2: All of the following are eligible for coverage under a homeowners policy EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C. A couple who owns a duplex and rents both sides of the duplex to others.
Question 3: Damage caused by freezing of which one of the following might be covered under Coverage C of the Homeowners 3?
Correct Answer: D. Fresh water pipe.
Question 4: Which one of the following correctly states one of the loss settlement options for the loss of one item from a set?
Correct Answer: D. The insured will be paid the difference between the actual cash value of the set before and after the loss.
Question 5: Which Section I condition gives the insurer 60 days to pay a loss after receiving the insured’s proof of loss?
Correct Answer: A. Loss payment condition
Question 6: To be a complete policy, all homeowners policies must have a coverage form and a/an
Correct Answer: B. Declarations page.
Question 7: Which one of the following is NOT the type of incidental business occupancy permitted with a homeowners insurance policy?
Correct Answer: D. Retail arts and crafts shop open to the public.
Question 8: Under Section I of the homeowners policy, the insured is required to take all of the following actions after a loss occurs EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C. Attend all hearings and trial that may be related to the property loss.
Question 9: If an insured has complied with all policy provisions, the insured may bring suit against the homeowners insurance company if the action is started within
Correct Answer: B. 2 years after the date of loss.
Question 10: For medical expenses to be covered under Coverage F, they must be incurred or determined necessary
Correct Answer: B. Within 3 years from the date the bodily injury occurs.
Question 11: Assuming that no other insurance applies, which one of the following instances of bodily injury is covered by Section II of the homeowners policy?
Correct Answer: C. Injury to a residence employee while delivering a package to the insured’s downtown office.
Question 12: The Homeowners 5 for provides what?
Correct Answer: C. Open perils for both buildings and personal property.
Question 13: Under the Homeowners 6, if the other insurance applies to a loss that is also covered by the Homeowners 6, and that other insurance is in the name of a condominium association, the Homeowners 6 pays
Correct Answer: C. As excess insurance.
Question 14: Which of the following lists the 2 costs insurance companies pay with premium dollars?
Correct Answer: D. Losses and expenses.
Question 15: Under Section II of the homeowner’s policy, injury or damage arising out of which one of the following is covered?
Correct Answer: A. Possession of a drug prescribed for the insured by a physician.
Question 16: Several days after a homeowners policy is issued to Clarice DuBois, the insurer adopts a broadened version of the policy at no additional premium charge. To qualify for this broadened coverage, DuBois
Correct Answer: B. Does not have to do anything; the coverage is automatically added because of the policy’s liberalization clause.
Question 17: The Homeowners 8, there is coverage for?
Correct Answer: B. Vehicle damage if the vehicle is not owned or operated by a resident.
Question 18: All of the following are covered by the Home Business Insurance Coverage endorsement EXCEPT
Correct Answer: B. Professional liability.
Question 19: Which of the following property is covered under Coverage C of the Homeowners 3??
Correct Answer: B. A motorized wheelchair.
Question 20: Which one of the following is covered as another structure of Coverage B?
Correct Answer: C. A detached 3-car garage located 50 feet from the insured’s covered dwelling.
Question 21: Suppose an insured feels that a loss settlement offered by his insurance company is inadequate. He initiates appraisal actions. His appraiser and the company’s appraiser cannot agree on an amount, so an umpire is called in. the final determination of the amount the insured will be reimbursed occurs when
Correct Answer: C. Any 2 of the 3 parties (2 appraisers and 1 umpire) agree to an amount.
Question 22: Which one of the following best defines the term “subrogation”?
Correct Answer: D. Transfer of the insured’s right to collect damages from another party to the insured’s own insurance company.
Question 23: Which one of the following losses would be covered under the Homeowners 3?
Correct Answer: B. While the insured was out shopping, vandals cut down the rafters on an addition she is building onto her home.
Question 24: Which of one the following describes the type of coverage provided by the unendorsed Homeowners 3 in terms of the covered perils?
Correct Answer: A. Open perils coverage for the building and broad perils for the personal property.
Question 25: The XYZ Insurance Company decides to cancel Michael’s homeowner’s policy because he has missed a premium payment. Michael’s policy has been in effect for 6 months. How many days’ written notice of cancellation must XYZ give Michael before the effective date of cancellation?
Correct Answer: A. 10 days.
Question 1: Which part of a dwelling policy provides information on what property is covered, which perils are insured against, and which perils are excluded?
Correct Answer: C. Policy form.
Question 2: Which dwelling form is also known as the basic form?
Correct Answer: D. DP-1
Question 3: To be permitted as an incidental occupancy in the dwelling program, the occupancy must
Correct Answer: B. Be operated by the insured.
Question 4: Which one of the following items would not be covered under Coverage A?
Correct Answer: D. A tool shed next to the insured’s garden.
Question 5: Maggie owns a 3 unit apartment but does not live in it. She insures only the building under dwelling policy. She has owns 2 lawnmowers, which are stored on the property and used by the maintenance staff. These lawnmowers are
Correct Answer: A. Covered under Coverage A-Dwelling.
Question 6: Nina decides she wants to be insured by an insurance company other than the one her policy is with now. Which one of the following actions must she take?
Correct Answer: B. Mail the company written notice of the date she wants the policy cancellation to take effect.
Question 7: Which one of the following losses to a dwelling would be covered under a DP-1 with extended coverage?
Correct Answer: B. Loss caused by aircraft.
Question 8: Which one of the following losses would be covered under a DP-1 with extended coverage?
Correct Answer: A. The insured’s house was damaged during a demonstration that turned into a riot.
Question 9: One month after the insured purchased a dwelling policy, the insurance company broadened a provision in the current edition of the policy with no increase in premium. The insured
Correct Answer: A. Is automatically granted the broadened coverage under the liberalization clause.
Question 10: Which one of the following examples best describes a loss caused by hostile fire?
Correct Answer: C. The insured’s kitchen is damaged in a fire caused by a match smoldering in a wastebasket.
Question 11: Which one of the following statements about the peril of smoke in the DP-1 is TRUE?
Correct Answer: A. A DP-1 with extended coverage provides coverage against smoke peril.
Question 12: Which one of the following is excluded from worldwide coverage in the DP-1 but included under this coverage DP-2?
Correct Answer: C. Property of guests or servants.
Question 13: Rose grows prize winning dahlias. Her home is insured under DP-2 with $40,000 of Coverage A. One afternoon, someone drive a car over her dahlias. What is the max amount Rose’s policy would pay for this damage?
Correct Answer: B. $2,000.
Question 14: A strong wind blew snow inside the insured’s home and extensively damaged the carpet. Under which of the following circumstances this loss would be covered by a DP-1 with extended coverage?
Correct Answer: C. If the wind first blew out a section of the roof and then snow entered and damaged the carpet.
Question 15: David has a DP-2. If his steam boiler explodes, his policy will
Correct Answer: D. Cover all damage resulting from the explosion, even if the policy has no special endorsements attached.
Question 16: Bill is losing rent of $700 per month because the apartment building he owns was destroyed in a fire. His DP-2 has a Coverage A limit of $70,000. If Bill’s apartment building takes 10 months to replace, his total payment for lost rent will be
Correct Answer: A. $7,000.
Question 17: Which one of the following losses is excluded under the vandalism or malicious mischief peril in the DP-2?
Correct Answer: D. Loss to property at the described location if the dwelling has been vacant for more than 60 consecutive days immediately before the loss.
Question 18: Which one if the following lists all the required parts of a complete dwelling policy?
Correct Answer: B. Declarations and policy form.
Question 19: What is an endorsement?
Correct Answer: B. A form that alters the standard policy in some way.
Question 20: The insured has a DP-3 and carries at least 80% of the replacement cost as a coverage limit on the dwelling. Payment for damages to the insured’s home caused by a covered peril will be made on a(n)
Correct Answer: C. Replacement cost basis.
Question 21: Damage to the fence in the insured’s front yard caused by an auto operated by the insured would be covered by?
Correct Answer: A. The DP-3 Only.
Question 22: The permitted incidental occupancies endorsement
Correct Answer: C. Extends Coverage C to include personal property pertaining to the use of the dwelling for the permitted incidental occupancy.
Question 23: Nelson places a freezer on his enclosed back porch, unaware that the supports under the porch have decayed. The porch collapses from the weight of the freezer. Which dwelling policy(ies) would cover this loss?
Correct Answer: A. Both DP-2 and DP-3.
Question 24: A DP-3 provides
Correct Answer: B. Open peril coverage for the dwelling and broad coverage for personal property.
Question 25: Xavier’s home is insured by the DP-3 with a $250 deductible. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Correct Answer: C. Xavier must pay the first $250 of any loss covered under the policy.
Question 1: Why are some inland marine policy forms known as floaters?
Correct Answer: B. The insurance coverage follows the property from location to location.
Question 2: Which of the following classifications is NOT included in the Nationwide Definition of personal property floater risks?
Correct Answer: B. Dwellings
Question 3: An insured has camping equipment listed on the Declarations as ‘camping equipment, including tents, sleeping bags, and miscellaneous items.’ This is an example of what type of coverage?
Correct Answer: A. Unscheduled.
Question 4: A personal inland marine policy usually excludes losses caused by wear and tear. Why is this peril excluded?
Correct Answer: A. Because it is a nonfortuitous loss.
Question 5: An insured purchased new golf equipment for $3,000. When a fire loss occurred and the equipment was destroyed, it had depreciated $1,000. The cost to buy new golf equipment of the same type and quality would be $3,500. What is the actual cash value of the destroyed golf equipment?
Correct Answer: A. $2,500
Question 6: Several pieces of an expensive and rare chess set were destroyed. The set is insured by a personal inland marine floater. Would the insurer be likely to reimburse the insured for the full value of the set?
Correct Answer: C. No, because most policies would prohibit full reimbursement when only part of the set was damaged.
Question 7: When personal property insured by a personal inland marine floater is damaged by a peril covered by the policy, the insured must do all of the following EXCEPT
Correct Answer: A. Hire an independent appraiser to assess the dollar amount of the damage.
Question 8: An antique bed worth $5,000 was destroyed by a covered peril. The bed was covered by two insurance policies: one from ABC Insurance for $3,000 and one from XYZ Insurance for $2,000. The ABC policy contains the other insurance condition. How much of this $5,000 loss will the ABC policy pay?
Correct Answer: C. $3,000
Question 9: Jake’s guitar, cameras, and stamp collection are covered under the Personal Articles form. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
Correct Answer: C. The policy provides named peril coverage.
Question 10: Which of the following items could NOT be scheduled in the furs class of a Personal Articles form?
Correct Answer: A. Alligator skin shoes.
Question 11: Bertha insured her piano under a Personal Articles form. A few months later, she decided to earn extra money by giving piano lessons to children in the neighborhood. One day, there was a fire in Bertha’s home and the piano was damaged. What will the insurance company do?
Correct Answer: B. Not pay for the damages unless the policy was endorsed to include professional use and an additional premium was paid for this coverage.
Question 12: Someone broke into the insured’s apartment and stole a gold watch valued at $800. How much will the insured be paid for this loss under the basic special limit of a Personal Property form?
Correct Answer: B. $500
Question 13: Dr. Foster, the insured, went to a medical convention. Which of the following items belonging to her would be covered by her Personal Effects form?
Correct Answer: C. Medical school class ring
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT correct? Under the transfer of interest condition in a watercraft policy, the insured’s rights and duties may be transferred to
Correct Answer: C. Anyone without the insurance company’s written consent.
Question 15: Which one of the following losses would be covered by most personal watercraft policies?
Correct Answer: C. A short in the marine radio on the insured’s boat started a fire that damaged the boat.
Question 16: In which of the following situations would an unendorsed personal watercraft policy cover damages that might occur to the covered boat?
Correct Answer: C. The insured entered a covered sailboat in a cup race.
Question 17: A boat is insured by a boat owners package policy that covers the personal effects of family members and guests. Which of the following would be covered if it was destroyed by a covered peril?
Correct Answer: C. Clothing
Question 18: Which personal watercraft policy provides physical damage, liability and medical expense coverage?
Correct Answer: B. Boat owners package policy.
Question 19: Under the liability coverage of a boat owners package policy, the insurance company will NOT do which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Pay the full amount of any claim made under the policy, regardless of the policy’s limits of liability.
Question 20: Sue has a $25,000 boat owners package policy. She is legally liable for $25,000 in damages arising from a boating accident and incurred $10,000 in expenses pertaining to the claim at the insurance company’s request. How much will the insurance company pay for the damages and claim expenses?
Correct Answer: C. $35,000
Question 21: Which of the following statements concerning medical expense coverage’s in a boat owners package policy is NOT correct?
Correct Answer: B. The insured must be legally liable for the loss.
Question 22: Which of the following boats would NOT be considered an uninsured watercraft under a boat owners package policy?
Correct Answer: D. A boat owned by a member of the named insured’s family.
Question 23: A boat owners package policy provides $300 in coverage for emergency services. If the insured boat becomes disabled and voluntary help is not available, the policy will NOT pay for which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. The cost of a new battery.
Question 24: What is the basic property coverage provided by a yacht policy?
Correct Answer: A. Hull coverage.
Question 25: Longshore and Harbor Workers’ Compensation coverage protects the insured against liability for injury to which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Casual workers on the yacht only.
Question 1: Which one of the following is an example of a civil violation?
Correct Answer: B. Action was taken against a construction company after the discover that faulty materials used to build a flood wall caused the wall to collapse, resulting in the destruction of five homes.
Question 2: Which one of the following is an example of strict liability?
Correct Answer: A. Jim keeps a police-trained dog in his home for protection against burglars. One day, the dog escaped and attacked a woman who was jogging past the house.
Question 3: Albert failed to clear his driveway after a heavy ice storm, and the newspaper carrier was injured when she slipped and fell on the slick driveway. She sued Albert for damages. What kind of wrongdoing does this example illustrate?
Correct Answer: B. Tort violation.
Question 4: Dr. Hogan, an ophthalmologist, plays golf with friends every Wednesday afternoon. While golfing, to what type of liability is he exposed?
Correct Answer: C. Personal
Question 5: In which of the following cases is there no legal duty owed?
Correct Answer: A. Bill was restoring an antique auto in his garage. While driving by, Jeff slowed to admire the antique, and his car struck a telephone pole. He charged Bill for damages.
Question 6: The purpose of liability insurance is to protect an insured from financial loss arising out of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Liability claims by transferring the burden of financial loss from the individual to the insurance company.
Question 7: Which one of the following would be considered a personal injury?
Correct Answer: B. Calling a client a cheat and a fraud.
Question 8: Which of the following is an example of an occurrence?
Correct Answer: D. Anita’s 4-year-old son was playing with matches and set a neighbor’s garage on fire.
Question 9: The insured has an umbrella liability policy with a $1 million per occurrence limit of insurance. Claims of $75,000, $500,000, and $800,000, respectively, were filed separately during the policy period. Which claim(s) will be paid?
Correct Answer: C. All 3 claims.
Question 10: What does an umbrella liability policy require an insured to notify the insurance company about?
Correct Answer: D. Claims and suits that have actually been filed against the insured and occurrences that may result in a claim or suit against the insured.
Question 11: An insured has a $300,000 underlying liability policy and a $1 million umbrella liability policy with a $300,000 retained limit and a $2,000 self-insured retained limit. An occurrence resulted in $400,000 in personal injury damages that are covered by both policies. Shortly thereafter, the insurer providing the underlying policy became insolvent. How much of the damages will be covered by the umbrella liability policy?
Correct Answer: A. $100,000.
Question 12: In most umbrella policies, if the insurer wants to cancel a policy for nonpayment of premium, how many days’ written notice of cancellation must be provided to the insured?
Correct Answer: C. 10 days.
Question 13: Henry is the first named insured on a $1 million umbrella liability policy. His wife, Dorothy, is also, a named insured. Both Henry and Dorothy were sued for $1 million in separate, unrelated suits by separate third parties. Both insureds lost their suits on the same day. In this situation, the policy will pay which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. $500,000 toward each award.
Question 14: Which of the following individuals would have the greatest need for a personal umbrella liability policy?
Correct Answer: C. Becky, a lawyer who owns a condominium, a boat and a luxury car.
Question 15: Sue’s teenage son, who lives with her, traded his motorcycle to a friend for a speedboat. The boat was never insured by Sue or her son. Which of the following statements pertaining to this situation is CORRECT?
Correct Answer: A. If Sue’s son has a catastrophic accident while driving his boat, her personal umbrella policy would not apply to the claim.
Question 16: Which of the following statements about a typical commercial umbrella liability policy is NOT correct?
Correct Answer: D. It provides continuous coverage with no overlap or gap in coverage for all an insured’s liability claims not coverage by the underlying policy.
Question 17: In which of the following situations is an individual usually considered an insured under a commercial umbrella liability policy?
Correct Answer: B. The brother of a deceased insured has temporary legal custody of the insured’s business property.
Question 18: What types of newly acquired businesses usually qualify as insureds ONLY if shown as a named insured on the declarations of a commercial umbrella liability policy?
Correct Answer: A. Partnerships or joint ventures.
Question 19: On March 4, 2017, Scott was injured in a department store due to the store’s negligence. At the time, he said his injury wasn’t serious and didn’t file a claim against the store. However, in April of 2018, his injury began to bother him again, so he saw a doctor and filed a claim for the injury. The store had an occurrence commercial umbrella policy with XYZ Insurance in 2017 and replaced it with another occurrence form from ABC Insurance in 2018. Scott’s claim would be paid under which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. The XYZ policy.
Question 20: Which of these statements is CORRECT concerning a commercial umbrella insurer’s requirement for underlying limits of insurance?
Correct Answer: C. Most insurers require insureds to carry high limits of coverage.
Question 21: A company has a commercial umbrella liability policy with a $2 million general aggregate limit and a $1 million limit for personal and advertising injury. During the policy year, a $1 million personal and advertising injury suit against the company was paid under the policy. What happens if the insured is sued again for personal and advertising injury by the same individual during the same policy year?
Correct Answer: A. The policy would pay the claim because the per occurrence limit applies to this coverage.
Question 22: An insured has a 3-year commercial umbrella liability policy. Which of the following statements concerning its policy limits is CORRECT?
Correct Answer: C. The limits will apply separately to each consecutive annual period even if the limits have been reduced or exhausted during the preceding 1-year period.
Question 23: A commercial umbrella liability policy usually covers which one of the following situations?
Correct Answer: A. A customer in an upscale department store is arrested for shoplifting. The charges are dropped after a review of the store’s surveillance tape proves the customer is innocent. The customer sues the store for false arrest.
Question 24: The insured’s commercial umbrella liability policy contains an employment-related discrimination exclusion. The insured was sued by a former employee who had been fired, allegedly for poor job performance. If the employee proves the insured actually fired him because of his advanced age and not poor job performance, will the insured’s umbrella policy cover the damages?
Correct Answer: B. Yes, because the discrimination exclusion would not apply. It is not discriminatory to fire someone on the basis of age.
Question 25: Some commercial umbrella liability policies contain an arbitration clause. Which of the following statements regarding arbitration is NOT correct?
Correct Answer: B. An arbitration ruling can usually be appealed.
Question 1: Which one of the following is NOT a component of a Commercial Package Policy that includes Commercial Crime coverage?
Correct Answer: B. Crime special exclusions form
Question 2: When the insured cancels a policy, they are entitled to which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. A premium refund that is slightly less than a pro rate return, to cover the costs of issuing the policy.
Question 3: Who is responsible for paying premiums when there is more than one named insured?
Correct Answer: C. The first named insured
Question 4: What is it called when the cause of loss that involves taking of property from another person by someone who has caused or threatened to cause bodily harm or committed an unlawful act witnessed by that person?
Correct Answer: D. Robbery
Question 5: Which of the following terms describes the act of signing someone else’s name with intent to deceive?
Correct Answer: C. Forgery
Question 6: After a loss attributable to a single occurrence, what happens to the per occurrence limit of insurance?
Correct Answer: A. It is reinstated
Question 7: Which of the following people do NOT qualify as messengers while they are outside the premises?
Correct Answer: D. A customer of the insured
Question 8: Which of the following losses would NOT be covered under the Inside the Premises–Theft of Money and Securities insuring agreement?
Correct Answer: D. Inventory worth $6000 that was stolen from the insured’s warehouse
Question 9: In the commercial crime coverage form, the Transfer of Your Rights of Recovery Against Others to Us condition deals with the principle of
Correct Answer: D. Subrogation
Question 10: The insured’s commercial crime policy is written on a primary basis. Another policy also applies to the loss that is NOT subject to the same terms and conditions as the crime policy. The crime policy will provide
Correct Answer: B. Excess coverage
Question 11: The Inside the Premises-Robbery or Safe Burglary of Other Property insuring agreement
Correct Answer: C. Includes robbery of a custodian and safe burglary coverage
Question 12: Which of the following losses could be covered under an Inside the Premises-Robbery of a Custodian or Safe Burglary of Money and Securities insuring agreement?
Correct Answer: C. Loss of money and securities destroyed in a fire at the insured’s premises
Question 13: Which one of following are covered under the Outside the Premises insuring agreement only up to $5,000?
Correct Answer: B. Furs, jewelry, and accounts receivable records
Question 14: Which of the following losses would be covered under the Inside the Premises- Robbery of a Watchperson or Burglary of other property insuring agreement?
Correct Answer: D. Damage to premises caused by an attempted burglary that was thwarted by the insured’s watchperson
Question 15: The crime and Fidelity Experience and Schedule Rating Plan allows a debt or credit to be applied to a calculated premium based on
Correct Answer: B. The level of supervision given employees
Question 16: The safe depository insuring agreement provides crime insurance protection to?
Correct Answer: C. Insured’s, other than financial institutions, who provide safe deposit box facilities
Question 17: The Insured’s legal expenses related to losses under the commercial crime forms are
Correct Answer: C. Excluded under all of the insuring agreements except Forgery or Alteration coverage
Question 18: Which of the following would be considered “other property” in the commercial crime forms?
Correct Answer: A. Office furniture
Question 19: Under the discovery version of commercial crime forms, a loss (other than one related to employee benefit plan) may be covered under the terminated policy if discovered how long after policy termination?
Correct Answer: B. 60 days
Question 20: Under the terms of the common policy conditions, if the insurance company Is canceling coverage for a reason other than nonpayment of premium, it must provide at LEAST
Correct Answer: B. 30 day’s written notice to the first named insured
Question 21: The primary difference between the loss sustained and discovery versions of the commercial crime forms is
Correct Answer: C. The coverage trigger
Question 22: Rates for crime insuring agreements that are not considered fidelity coverages are based on what?
Correct Answer: B. The units of insurance at all locations
Question 23: An insured that purchases a commercial crime coverage form
Correct Answer: B. Must schedule coverage for the insuring agreements desired in the crime declarations
Question 24: Under the terms of a crime form, the named insured and any relative, partner, or employee of the insured who has custody of covered property outside the premises is
Correct Answer: B. A messenger
Question 25: A broad term used in the crime forms to describe any unlawful taking of property to the deprivation of the insured is what?
Correct Answer: D. Burglary
Question 1: Which of the following is NOT a marine insurance category, as identified in the Nationwide Definition?
Correct Answer: C. Manufactured goods.
Question 2: How may filed classes of inland marine insurance be written?
Correct Answer: D. Either as monoline policies or as part of a commercial package policy.
Question 3: What other name is given to coverages for loss of income and extra expense?
Correct Answer: B. Time element coverages.
Question 4: What is fortuitous loss?
Correct Answer: C. An accidental loss.
Question 5: Which one of the following is NOT a transportation peril?
Correct Answer: A. Malicious mischief.
Question 6: Which one of the following is among the perils that inland marine contracts commonly exclude?
Correct Answer: C. Marring and scratching.
Question 7: Wear and Tear is commonly excluded from coverage by inland marine policies due to which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Because it is a non-fortuitous loss.
Question 8: A truck is carrying a load of Granville Company’s carpeting when the trucker falls asleep at the wheel and has an accident that ruins the cargo. Granville’s insurance company reimburses it for the damaged goods. The insurer then goes to court to obtain reimbursement from the trucking company. What is this an example of?
Correct Answer: D. Subrogation.
Question 9: A policy states the insurance company will not be liable for more than $50,000 in any one loss or casualty. What type of limit of liability is this?
Correct Answer: B. Specific.
Question 10: Which of the following holds itself out to the public as ready and willing to transport cargo and within in capabilities, must serve anyone who chooses to employ it?
Correct Answer: B. Common carrier.
Question 11: For which of the following is a common carrier liable?
Correct Answer: A. Fire.
Question 12: Which one of the following statements about the Uniform Bill of Lading is NOT correct?
Correct Answer: C. It always provides a cargo valuation per 100 pounds.
Question 13: The Mail coverage form is issued to which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Fiduciaries.
Question 14: When a shipper is charged the full, filed tariff under an air waybill, how will the transported goods usually be valued?
Correct Answer: A. At a released valuation of $9.07 per pound.
Question 15: Which one of the following coverages is NOT generally available under bridge and tunnel policies?
Correct Answer: A. Liability Coverage.
Question 16: Warehousers legal liability and processors legal liability insurance are forms of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Bailees insurance.
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT an inland marine equipment form?
Correct Answer: C. Jewelers Block policy.
Question 18: The Film coverage form provides coverage for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Exposed motion picture film or videotape for a specified production.
Question 19: The inland marine Builders Risk-Installation form must insure against which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Perils in addition to fire and extended coverage perils.
Question 20: A Fine Arts floater usually contains what type of valuation clause?
Correct Answer: A. Valued policy.
Question 21: Which of the following are NOT suitable risks for inland marine dealers’ policies?
Correct Answer: D. Automobile dealers.
Question 22: The Equipment Dealers form insures which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Mobile agricultural and construction equipment dealers.
Question 23: Which of the following types of property may NOT be insured under a Valuable Papers and Records coverage form?
Correct Answer: A. Money and Securities.
Question 24: The Annual Transit policy insures which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. The property owner, who may be either the shipper or the consignee.
Question 25: Under a Mail coverage form, how long does an insurer have to make loss payment?
Correct Answer: A. 7 days.
Question 1: Which of the following statements concerning rehabilitation benefits is NOT correct?
Correct Answer: D. Most state workers’ compensation acts do not address rehab benefits.
Question 2: An individual who is completely unable to function for a short time after an injury, after which he or she is fully able to return work, is classified as having a
Correct Answer: A. Temporary total disability.
Question 3: What are scheduled benefits?
Correct Answer: A. Legislated by each individual jurisdiction, so they are different in different states.
Question 4: What is the maximum the insurer will pay in benefits Under Part One of Workers’ Compensation and Employers Liability policy?
Correct Answer: D. Whatever is required by the applicable workers’ compensation law.
Question 5: In addition to workers’ compensation benefits required by law, the insurer will reimburse the insured for which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Travel expenses incurred when the insurance company asks the insured to travel 100 miles to attend a trial.
Question 6: Which one of these statements concerning the exclusive remedy doctrine is NOT correct?
Correct Answer: D. It was designed to make it easier for an employee to prove an employer’s negligence in a court of law.
Question 7: Which one of the following statements is CORRECT according to the inspection policy condition?
Correct Answer: D. The insurance company may inspect property covered by the policy at any reasonable time.
Question 8: How can the terms of the Workers’ Compensation and Employers Liability policy be changed?
Correct Answer: D. By adding a policy endorsement.
Question 9: How many days’ advance notice must the insured employer provide the insurance company when canceling a workers’ compensation policy?
Correct Answer: A. No particular time period is required.
Question 10: Which part of the Workers’ Compensation and Employers Liability policy describes how the policy premium is determined?
Correct Answer: D. Part Five.
Question 11: Which one of the following is NOT a reserving method used for claims that have been reported to the insurer?
Correct Answer: D. Bulk reserves.
Question 12: Which one of the following statements is NOT true concerning the U.S. Longshore and Harbor Workers Compensation Act?
Correct Answer: A. It provides lower benefits than those provided under state law.
Question 13: For employers liability insurance, coverage is excluded if the bodily injury occurs where?
Correct Answer: D. To an employee who is permanently outside the United States, its territories or possessions, and Canada.
Question 14: Which of the following does NOT describe one of the ways the limit of liability under Part Two applies?
Correct Answer: C. An aggregate limit per policy limit with respect to accidents.
Question 15: Under employers liability coverage, when does the insurance company’s obligation to defend the insured’s end?
Correct Answer: D. When the policy’s limits of liability are exhausted.
Question 16: In order to help the insurance company calculate the premium for the insured’s policy, the insured must do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. Maintain payroll and other records for the insurance company’s use.
Question 17: Which one of the following is NOT considered remuneration when determining the premium basis for a workers’ compensation policy?
Correct Answer: C. Tips.
Question 18: All of the following statements are true concerning policy cancellation EXCEPT
Correct Answer: B. If the named insured cancels, the insurance company must be given 10 days’ notice.
Question 19: Claims against employers for injuries arising from wrongful discharge from employment are:
Correct Answer: A. Not covered under the Workers’ Compensation and Employers Liability policy.
Question 20: Under an unendorsed Worker’s Compensation and Employers Liability policy, sole proprietors and partners in businesses are covered as which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Employers.
Question 21: How long is the retroactive period?
Correct Answer: D. A specified number of days of disability after which compensation benefits will be paid going back to every day since the date of injury.
Question 22: Which of the following is the standard limit of liability for bodily injury by accident under the employers liability section of the Workers’ Compensation and Employers Liability policy?
Correct Answer: A. $100,000.
Question 23: What is the purpose of Survivor Benefits?
Correct Answer: A. Compensate the survivor of an employee whose death results from a job-related injury.
Question 24: All of the following are covered under Survivor Benefits EXCEPT
Correct Answer: C. Medical treatment expenses.
Question 25: What is the purpose of a waiting period?
Correct Answer: D. To reduce the number of small claims.
Question 1: Which part of a commercial package policy provides information about who is insured, when she is insured and how she is insured?
Correct Answer: C. Common policy declarations.
Question 2: Cancellation of a commercial auto coverage part by the insurance company for nonpayment of premium must be handled by whom?
Correct Answer: C. Delivering or mailing at least a 10-day notice to the first named insured and returning any remaining premium on a pro rata basis.
Question 3: Marjorie Adams has a Business Auto Coverage Form with a $300,000 limit. A suit against Adams results in a $290,000 bodily injury judgment. Defense costs are $18,000. According to industry practice, how much will Adams’s Business Auto Coverage Form carrier pay for the judgment?
Correct Answer: A. $290,000.
Question 4: Which of the following statements pertaining to legal liability is NOT correct?
Correct Answer: C. The insured’s negligence must not have caused injury to another party.
Question 5: In the Business Auto Coverage Form, policy coverage can be expanded to meet what?
Correct Answer: D. Both higher covered autos liability coverage limit requirements and no-fault requirements in another state.
Question 6: The supplementary payments in the Business Auto Coverage Form?
Correct Answer: D. Do not reduce the limits of insurance available for bodily injury or property damage liability.
Question 7: An insured’s legal liability for an auto accident is based on what principle?
Correct Answer: C. Negligence.
Question 8: Under the Business Auto Coverage Form, the insured can opt to have the comprehensive or specified causes of loss coverage deductible apply to what?
Correct Answer: D. Fire and lightning only.
Question 9: Which of the following losses would be paid under the Business Auto Coverage Form’s comprehensive coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Theft of a covered auto.
Question 10: Ruth Jones has a $250 collision coverage deductible and a $100 comprehensive coverage deductible. She lost control of her car, and it slid off the road and scraped a tree. The total repair bill is $500, which includes $200 for glass replacement. How much will the insurance company pay for this loss if Ruth elects to have the glass breakage paid under comprehensive coverage?
Correct Answer: A. $150.
Question 11: Loss caused by which of the following events would NOT be covered by the specified causes of loss coverage of the Business Auto Coverage Form?
Correct Answer: C. Falling object.
Question 12: Which of the following losses would NOT be paid under specified causes of loss coverage?
Correct Answer: B. A cat jumped in the open window of a covered auto and sharpened its claws on the upholstery.
Question 13: Pat Hughes has a Business Auto Coverage Form with $50 towing coverage. When her company car won’t start, she calls a mechanic, who tows it to the station and makes minor repairs. The towing charge is $25, and the labor charge is $15. How much will the insurance company pay?
Correct Answer: B. $25.
Question 14: Henry has a Business Auto Coverage Form with a $50,000 limit and another liability policy with a $75,000 limit. If Henry is liable for a $20,000 loss and both policies apply to the loss on the same basis, how much will the Business Auto Coverage Form pay for this loss?
Correct Answer: A. $8,000.
Question 15: Which one of the following coverages is NOT included in an unendorsed Auto Dealers Coverage form?
Correct Answer: D. Uninsured motorists coverage.
Question 16: Which of the following vehicles would NOT be considered an uninsured motor vehicle?
Correct Answer: A. Car that is covered by a policy or bond that complies with the State’s financial responsibility law but that has less coverage than that required to pay the driver’s damages.
Question 17: In most states, uninsured motorist’s coverage do what?
Correct Answer: A. Must be endorsed to exclude punitive damages.
Question 18: In general, underinsured motorists coverage pays what?
Correct Answer: C. The difference between the insured’s actual damages for bodily injury and the amount of liability insurance carried by the at-fault driver.
Question 19: A no-fault endorsement must be attached to what?
Correct Answer: D. All commercial auto policies issued in states that have no-fault laws.
Question 20: Symbol 5 is used to designate coverage for what?
Correct Answer: D. All owned autos subject to no-fault insurance requirements.
Question 21: Which of the following businesses is eligible for an Auto Dealers Coverage Form?
Correct Answer: B. Circle City Recreational Vehicle Sales.
Question 22: Which of the following individuals would be insured for covered autos liability coverage under Codson Auto Sales’ Auto Dealers Coverage form?
Correct Answer: A. An employee while driving the car of another employee on an errand for Codson.
Question 23: Symbol 31 may be used to schedule which coverage(s) for dealers’ autos?
Correct Answer: A. Physical damage.
Question 24: The Motor Carrier Coverage Form defines a motor carrier as which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Anyone transporting property by auto in a commercial enterprise.
Question 25: Which of the following is considered an insured contract under the Motor Carrier Coverage Form?
Correct Answer: C. Hold harmless agreement involving a covered auto leased to the insured for use in the insured’s business as a motor carrier for hire.
Question 1: Which endorsements may be used for two or more lines of insurance?
Correct Answer: D. Interline endorsements.
Question 2: Which one of the following statements describes the eligibility requirements for the Business Income coverage form?
Correct Answer: B. Any commercial organization is eligible.
Question 3: For a suspension of business operations to be covered for business income loss under a Business Income coverage form, the suspension must be necessary and what?
Correct Answer: A. Caused by covered direct physical loss of or damage to property as described in the policy.
Question 4: If an insured has the Business Income (and Extra Expense) coverage form, which of the following would NOT be covered by the insured’s Extra Expense coverage?
Correct Answer: A. Expense the insured normally would have incurred if the property damage had not occurred.
Question 5: Which one of the following coverages provides an additional amount of insurance over and above the limits stated in the Declarations?
Correct Answer: B. Newly acquired locations coverage extension.
Question 6: What is the maximum dollar amount that may be applied under the newly acquired locations coverage extension?
Correct Answer: D. $100,000 at each location.
Question 7: Which of the following provisions does NOT apply to extra expense losses under the Business Income (and Extra Expense) coverage form?
Correct Answer: C. The coinsurance condition.
Question 8: A Business Income coverage form is effective on November 14, 2017, and expires on November 14, 2018. Agreed value coverage is added on January 2, 2018. In this situation, the coinsurance condition is suspended through?
Correct Answer: A. November 14, 2018.
Question 9: The Business Income agreed value optional coverage remains in effect for how long?
Correct Answer: B. 12 months or the date the policy expires, whichever is earlier.
Question 10: The extended period of indemnity optional coverage allows the insured to choose a maximum recovery period of up to how long?
Correct Answer: D. 730 additional days.
Question 11: Which of the following forms covers only extra expenses required to keep a business operating after property damage loss?
Correct Answer: C. Extra Expense coverage form.
Question 12: Which one of the following is the term for costs or expenses directly related to generating sales?
Correct Answer: B. Cost of goods sold.
Question 13: One of the categories of manufacturing costs is raw materials. Which of the following is NOT part of raw materials cost?
Correct Answer: B. Manufacturing tools.
Question 14: What is the gradual write off during their useful life of certain types of intangibles for which a development or acquisition cost has been incurred?
Correct Answer: B. Amortization.
Question 15: Which of the following statements about fixed assets in NOT correct?
Correct Answer: C. They are not intended to be sold to customers.
Question 16: What type of risk is a business that generates its earnings by selling merchandise?
Correct Answer: C. A nonmanufacturing risk.
Question 17: What is the profit markup of a company whose gross sales is $1,800,000, and its cost of goods sold is $1,350,000?
Correct Answer: C. 33%
Question 18: Which of the following purchase costs is NOT included in the cost of goods sold calculation for business income loss exposure estimation purposes?
Correct Answer: C. Discounts.
Question 19: Under ISO rules, what is the minimum coinsurance percentage that can be used with the Business Income coverage forms?
Correct Answer: A. 50%
Question 20: What is the result when a manufacturer’s purchase costs are added to its beginning inventory (including raw materials and stock process, but not finished stock)?
Correct Answer: B. Cost of goods available for sale.
Question 21: Which one of the following choices does NOT list a duty of the insured after a loss as described in the Business Income coverages form?
Correct Answer: C. Resume operations quickly, even if there are no plans to reopen the business after the loss.
Question 22: Which one of the following endorsements may NOT be used with the Extra Expense coverage form?
Correct Answer: A. Ordinary Payroll Limitation or Exclusion endorsement.
Question 23: Under the definition used in the Business Income from Dependent Properties endorsement, when an insured would not be able to attract significant business except for the proximity of another business, that other business is called a
Correct Answer: C. Leader location.
Question 24: The Business Income Premium Adjustment endorsement includes four possible limits on the amount the insurance company will pay for loss in any one occurrence. Of these four possibilities, the insurance company will pay the
Correct Answer: C. Smallest amount.
Question 25: A business has an estimated business income loss exposure of $250,000 for 12 months. This risk wants 125% of the 12 months’ estimated loss exposure for 18 months. Based only on the coinsurance provision, the limit of liability required is
Correct Answer: D. $312,500.
Question 1: What part of the personal auto policy describes the policy coverages, exclusions, and conditions?
Correct Answer: B. Policy form.
Question 2: Which of the following would NOT be considered a family member under the personal auto policy?
Correct Answer: B. The named insured’s ex-spouse, who lives in another state.
Question 3: Ned Fulmer loses control of his car and hits a parked car. Which coverage of Fulmer’s personal auto policy will pay for the damage to the parked car?
Correct Answer: B. Part A-Liability Coverage.
Question 4: Assume that all the following people were injured in an auto accident caused by the insured. Whose injuries would be covered under the insured’s liability coverage?
Correct Answer: C. Passengers in the car struck by the insured.
Question 5: Which one of the following is NOT a requirement for liability coverage to apply under a personal auto policy?
Correct Answer: B. The person liable for the accident must be the named insured listed on the declarations.
Question 6: Which of the following losses would be covered under the insured’s liability coverage?
Correct Answer: A. Bobby loses control of his car and crashes into the front porch of his rented vacation home.
Question 7: Which one of the following losses would be covered under the insured’s liability coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Rich loses control of his rented golf cart and knocks over another golfer.
Question 8: Kelli was injured when she lost control of her car and hit an embankment. Which part of her personal auto policy will cover her medical expenses?
Correct Answer: C. Part B – Medical Payments Coverage.
Question 9: Joan has a personal auto policy with a $3,000 single limit on medical payments coverage. She is involved in an accident that results in 2 people making claims under this coverage. Viola has $2,500 in medical expenses; Ralph has $5,000 in expenses. What is the total amount that Joan’s policy will pay for both people?
Correct Answer: C. $5,500
Question 10: If there is other applicable medical payments coverage for a loss that occurs while the insured is driving her covered auto, the insured’s personal auto policy will pay which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Its proportional share of the loss.
Question 11: Which of the following is NOT one of the requirements for a loss to be paid under medical payments coverage?
Correct Answer: D. The insured must be legally liable for the accident that caused the injury.
Question 12: Jamal owns a new Honda and an old Camaro. The Honda has uninsured motorists’ coverage under his personal auto policy; the Camaro does not. While driving the Camaro, Jamal is injured in an accident caused by an uninsured motorist. Will uninsured motorists’ coverage cover his injuries?
Correct Answer: C. No, Jamal was injured while driving an owned auto that does not have uninsured motorists’ coverage under his policy.
Question 13: Stella is involved in an accident with an uninsured motorist while driving a rental car. How will this loss be paid?
Correct Answer: C. The insurance on the rental car is primary and Stella’s coverage is excess.
Question 14: A car insured by a personal auto policy was damaged in a tornado. The cost to repair the damage is $5,000; the ACV of the car is $3,000. How much will the insured be paid for this loss?
Correct Answer: B. $3,000.
Question 15: Which of the following losses can the insured elect to have covered under collision coverage, rather than OTC coverage, if the loss occurs as the result of a collision?
Correct Answer: A. Glass breakage.
Question 16: The insured has to rent a car because her insured vehicle was stolen. When will her personal auto policy start paying the transportation expenses?
Correct Answer: D. 48 hours after the auto was stolen.
Question 17: Which of the following losses would be covered under OTC coverage? (Assume there are no endorsements attached to the policy.)
Correct Answer: D. A permanently installed CD player was damaged in a fire.
Question 18: Which of the following losses would be covered under the physical damage coverage of the personal auto policy?
Correct Answer: B. The on-board computer system used to monitor the operation of the insured auto was destroyed in a fire.
Question 19: Maria’s 2 cars have collision coverage under a personal auto policy. A $500 deductible applies to 1 car; a $1,000 deductible applies to the other. A car Maria rents on vacation sustains $3,000 damage in a collision. How will this loss be paid?
Correct Answer: B. The insurance company will be $2,500 and Maria will pay $500.
Question 20: Janelle, the insured under a personal auto policy; files for bankruptcy on the same day she is sued for causing an auto accident in which 3 people were killed. Will Janelle’s insurance company defend her in this lawsuit?
Correct Answer: D. Yes, the insured’s bankruptcy does not absolve the insurance company of its obligations under the policy.
Question 21: What is the coverage territory of the personal auto policy?
Correct Answer: D. The US, Canada, and Puerto Rico.
Question 22: How many days’ notice of cancellation must an insurance company provide to an insured if the policy is being canceled for nonpayment of premium?
Correct Answer: B. 10 days.
Question 23: Charlie has the Towing and Labor Charges Coverage endorsement attached to his personal auto policy, indicating $50 coverage for his covered auto. When his car breaks down on the highway, he has it towed to a nearby garage, where repairs are made. The towing charge is $25, and the repair charge is $50. How much will his insurance company pay?
Correct Answer: B. $25
Question 24: Leslie’s car is insured in a state that has a no-fault law. While on vacation, she has an accident in a state that does NOT have a no-fault law. It appears that the other driver is liable for the accident. Most no-fault laws would handle this situation by.
Correct Answer: C. Paying Leslie no-fault benefits under her policy.
Question 25: What rating method is used to calculate premiums for personal auto coverage?
Correct Answer: D. Manual/class rating.
Question 1: A person who wants to contest a decision made by a lower federal court must first appeal to which court?
Correct Answer: B. Circuit court.
Question 2: Which one of the following answer choices lists the hierarchy of a typical state court system?
Correct Answer: D. Highest appellate court, intermediate appellate court, court of original jurisdiction.
Question 3: Miguel suffers a loss because of Ying’s actions. However, because Miguel fails to take proper care following this incident to protect himself from further damage, Ying is NOT held liable for any additional damage. This ruling is based on the fact that Miguel is responsible for which one of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Avoidable consequences.
Question 4: What type of legal relationship arises when one-person transfers possession of personal property to another person, with the agreement that the property will be returned to the first party?
Correct Answer: A. Bailment.
Question 5: Name the federal statute that exempts the insurance industry from the Sherman Anti-Trust Act and makes insurance subject to state regulation?
Correct Answer: D. McCarran-Ferguson Act.
Question 6: Which one of the following is NOT one of the elements required to establish a charge of negligence?
Correct Answer: C. Deliberate attempt to cause harm.
Question 7: Which of the following is NOT a requirement for a valid contract?
Correct Answer: D. The contract must be in writing.
Question 8: Daryl is held responsible for damages resulting from the negligent operation of an auto he owns by a member of his family. Which of the following examples are correct?
Correct Answer: A. The family purpose doctrine.
Question 9: What are the names of the two parties to an agency relationship?
Correct Answer: D. Agent and principal.
Question 10: Under a no-fault law, an accident victim’s damages are paid for by which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. The victim’s own insurance company.
Question 11: As a condition of issuing a commercial property policy, an insurance company and a business owner agree that a security guard will always be on duty while the business is closed. The parties further agree that this condition will be met throughout the term of the policy and will be included in the written policy. This agreement is an example of which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. A promissory warranty.
Question 12: A legal agreement between two competent parties that promises a certain performance in exchange for a certain consideration is which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. A contract.
Question 13: Which of the following statements describes a contract of indemnity?
Correct Answer: B. After a loss, the insured will be restored to the approximate financial condition he or she was in before the loss.
Question 14: Which of the following is NOT one of the elements of fraud?
Correct Answer: B. The lie involves withholding, rather than misstating, a material fact.
Question 15: What the primary difference between fraud and misrepresentation?
Correct Answer: B. Fraud is always intentional; misrepresentation may be either unintentional or intentional.
Question 16: A claim handler tells an insured that a claim will be paid. When the insurance company later tries to deny this claim, it is prevented from doing so because of the claim handler’s statement. This is an example of which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. Estoppel.
Question 17: When Sam Files a claim for a vandalism loss to his business, he fails to mention that the store’s security guard had been asleep at the time of loss. Sam’s claim could be invalid based on which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. Concealment.
Question 18: A first party bad faith lawsuit is filed by which of the following?
Correct Answer: B. The insured against his or her insurer for bad faith handling of a first party claim.
Question 19: A third-party bad faith lawsuit is filed by which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. The insured against her insurer for bad faith handling in the defense or settlement of a third-party claim.
Question 20: Which one of the following is NOT included in the category of special damages?
Correct Answer: D. Pain and suffering.
Question 21: A defendant files a motion to prevent a case from going to trail based on her belief that there is no legal remedy provided for the complaint. This type of motion is called which of the following?
Correct Answer: D. A motion for summary judgment.
Question 22: A statute that provides that certain types of suits must be brought within a specified time of the occurrence to be valid under the law is which of the following?
Correct Answer: C. A statute of limitations.
Question 23: Which of the following lists all the criteria required for evidence to be admissible in court?
Correct Answer: B. Material, relevant, competent.
Question 24: An attorney presents a diagram of an auto accident scene as evidence. This is an example of what type of evidence.
Correct Answer: A. Physical/demonstrative.
Question 25: In an appeal, lawyers for both parties file written statements that present legal arguments on the issue on appeal. These statements are called which of the following?
Correct Answer: A. Briefs.
Question 1: A Premium Fund Trust Account CANNOT be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: D. A stock brokerage account.
Question 2: Which of the following statements about premiums, commissions, service fees and late charges is true?
Correct Answer: C. An Insurance Producer can charge a late charge of 1-1/2% per month on an unpaid premium balance within the first 90 days.
Question 3: Which of the following is a penalty for acting without the proper insurance license?
Correct Answer: B. Class A Misdemeanor for soliciting, negotiating, or selling insurance without proper licensing.
Question 4: All the following statements concerning the cancellation of a fire policy are true EXCEPT.
Correct Answer: D. The insured must always receive the notice of cancellation.
Question 5: Which of the following is NOT a form of illegal activity?
Correct Answer: D. Giving small gifts to people who have purchased policies in the past as a token of appreciation.
Question 6: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to obtain an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. 21 years of age.
Question 7: Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: D. The State Insurance Director can issue subpoenas.
Question 8: Which of the following describes a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. An insurance agency.
Question 9: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to be a professional?
Correct Answer: A. High income.
Question 10: Which of the following situations require NO license (which of the following is an exemption from licensing)?
Correct Answer: D. Actuaries.
Question 11: How is the fee for an Insurance Producer license paid?
Correct Answer: A. Two years paid by the producer to the Illinois Department of Insurance.
Question 12: Which of the following situations require an insurance producer license, but NO examination to obtain it?
Correct Answer: C. A non-resident producer or a producer moving to Illinois from another state.
Question 13: Which of the following describes brokering?
Correct Answer: A. Selling insurance issued by a company for which the producer is NOT a regular representative and does not have an agency contract.
Question 14: When an Insurance Producer collects premium monies, to whom is the producer responsible?
Correct Answer: D. To the insurance company.
Question 15: Which of the following statements concerning Mine Subsidence is true?
Correct Answer: A. It is 100% reinsured up to $700,000 by the State Mine Subsidence Fund.
Question 16: What must an insurance company do to have a Temporary Insurance Producer license qualified training program?
Correct Answer: B. Have at least 50% of its Temporary Insurance Producers pass the examination and obtain Insurance Producer licenses prior to the expiration of their Temporary Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 17: When is a license terminated?
Correct Answer: A. When the license renewal fee has not been paid.
Question 18: Which of the following is NOT a requirement that applies when a Property Insurance policy is being cancelled?
Correct Answer: B. If the insured is canceling the policy, the entire premium paid must be refunded.
Question 19: Which of the following statements concerning an application for an Insurance Producer License is true?
Correct Answer: B. The individual applies and pays a two year fee to the Illinois Department of Insurance.
Question 20: What is the one reason for which a fire insurance policy can NEVER be cancelled?
Correct Answer: C. Too many claims.
Question 21: Which of the following would qualify as a form of misappropriation of premium monies?
Correct Answer: D. Not keeping records of the premium money.
Question 1: What must an insurance company do to have a Temporary Insurance Producer license qualified training program?
Correct Answer: B. Have at least 50% of its Temporary Insurance Producers pass the examination and obtain Insurance Producer licenses prior to the expiration of their Temporary Insurance Producer licenses.
Question 2: Which of the following statements concerning Mine Subsidence is true?
Correct Answer: A. It is 100% reinsured up to $700,000 by the State Mine Subsidence Fund.
Question 3: Which of the following is NOT a requirement that applies when a Property Insurance policy is being cancelled?
Correct Answer: B. If the insured is canceling the policy, the entire premium paid must be refunded.
Question 4: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to be a professional?
Correct Answer: A. High income.
Question 5: Which of the following statements concerning the Workers Compensation Assigned Risk Pool is true?
Correct Answer: C. Its purpose is to assure the availability of Workers Compensation insurance to all employers.
Question 6: When an Insurance Producer collects premium monies, to whom is the producer responsible?
Correct Answer: D. To the insurance company.
Question 7: A Premium Fund Trust Account CANNOT be maintained in which of the following types of accounts?
Correct Answer: D. A stock brokerage account.
Question 8: Which of the following describes a Business Entity?
Correct Answer: A. An insurance agency.
Question 9: What is the one reason for which a fire insurance policy can NEVER be cancelled?
Correct Answer: C. Too many claims.
Question 10: Which of the following would qualify as a form of misappropriation of premium monies?
Correct Answer: D. Not keeping records of the premium money.
Question 11: When must the insurance company reduce premium rates?
Correct Answer: D. An insured over age 55 who has successfully completed an approved safe driving course.
Question 12: Which of the following statements is true?
Correct Answer: D. The State Insurance Director can issue subpoenas.
Question 13: How is the fee for an Insurance Producer license paid?
Correct Answer: A. Two years paid by the producer to the Illinois Department of Insurance.
Question 14: Which of the following describes brokering?
Correct Answer: A. Selling insurance issued by a company for which the producer is NOT a regular representative and does not have an agency contract.
Question 15: Which of the following is NOT a quality needed to obtain an Insurance Producer license?
Correct Answer: A. 21 years of age.
Question 16: Which of the following statements concerning the Automobile Insurance Plan is NOT true?
Correct Answer: D. Participation in the Automobile Insurance Plan is voluntary on behalf of the insurance companies.
Question 17: Which of the following situations require NO license (which of the following is an exemption from licensing)?
Correct Answer: D. Actuaries.
Question 18: When is a license terminated?
Correct Answer: A. When the license renewal fee has not been paid.
Question 19: Which of the following is a penalty for acting WITHOUT the proper insurance license?
Correct Answer: B. Class A Misdemeanor for soliciting, negotiating or selling insurance without proper licensing.
Question 20: Which of the following situations require an insurance producer license, but NO examination to obtain it?
Correct Answer: C. A non-resident producer or a producer moving to Illinois from another state.
Question 21: What is the penalty for NOT carrying Workers Compensation Insurance?
Correct Answer: B. Employer loses all Common Law defenses.
Question 22: All the following statements concerning the cancellation of a fire policy are true EXCEPT.
Correct Answer: D. The insured must always receive the notice of cancellation.
Question 23: Which of the following is NOT a form of illegal activity?
Correct Answer: D. Giving small gifts to people who have purchased policies in the past as a token of appreciation.
Question 24: Which of the following statements concerning an application for an Insurance Producer License is true?
Correct Answer: B. The individual applies and pays a two year fee to the Illinois Department of Insurance.
Question 25: Which of the following statements about premiums, commissions, service fees and late charges is true?
Correct Answer: C. An Insurance Producer can charge a late charge of 1-1/2% per month on an unpaid premium balance within the first 90 days.
Question: If your truck's air compressor has its own oil supply, when should you first check the oil level?
Answer: C. Before driving
Explanation: Air compressors are either belt driven or (as is more often the case these days) gear driven directly from the engine. Most modern compressors are cooled by the engine cooling system and are lubricated by engine oil. However, some compressors may still be self lubricated or air cooled. If the compressor has its own oil supply, check the oil level before you drive.
Question: Before you drive a vehicle with a dual air brake system, the air pressure in each brake system should be at least
Answer: C. 100 psi.
Explanation: A dual air brake system has two separate air brake systems. Typically, the primary system operates the brakes on the rear axle(s), and the secondary system operates the brakes on the front axle (and possibly one rear axle). Before driving a vehicle with a dual air brake system, let the air compressor build up a minimum of 100 psi pressure in each of the two brake systems.
Question: Some air brake systems have an alcohol evaporator. What may happen if you don't keep the unit filled with alcohol?
Answer: B. Ice may form in the air storage tanks and cause the brakes to fail.
Explanation: Moisture in the warm, compressed air from the air compressor will condense as the air cools. In below-freezing temperatures, this moisture can freeze. Ice in the tanks and air lines can cause the brakes to stop working. Whenever the air compressor runs, the alcohol evaporator puts alcohol vapor into the air brake system to help prevent water in the lines or valves from freezing. (Alcohol has a lower freezing point than water.)
Question: How many foundation brakes does a typical 18-wheel semi-truck have?
Answer: A. 10
Explanation:
Question: The service brake system applies
Answer: C. the brakes when you depress the brake pedal during normal driving.
Explanation: Air brakes are actually three braking systems in one: the emergency brake, the parking brake, and the service brake. As these terms suggest, when you depress the brake pedal in normal driving, it's the service brake system that applies the brakes.
Question: A dual air brake system has two separate brake systems. Which of the following is true?
Answer: B. Typically, one brake system operates the brakes on the front axle, and the other system operates the brakes on the rear axles.
Explanation: A dual air brake system has two separate air brake systems, each with its own air tanks, hoses, lines, etc. Both systems are controlled by the one brake pedal. Typically, the primary system operates the brakes on the front axle (and possibly one rear axle as well), and the secondary system operates the brakes on the rear axles.
Question: Your tractor-trailer is equipped with air suspension. If a leak or failure occurs in the air suspension system, what will prevent service tank air pressures from falling too far?
Answer: C. Pressure-protection valve
Explanation: Various auxiliary air systems, such as air suspension and the driver and passenger air seats, usually get their air from the service tanks of the air braking system. To prevent the tanks from losing air in the event of a leak or failure in an auxiliary air system, a pressure-protection valve is installed between each auxiliary air system and the service tank. If tank pressure drops below a preset level, the pressure-protection valve will close to stop any more air from flowing to the auxiliary air system.
Question: What is the most important thing you should do if the low air pressure warning signal comes on?
Answer: A. Stop and park safely.
Explanation:
Question: A typical air brake system is fully charged at
Answer: B. 125 psi.
Explanation: A typical air brake system will be fully charged at 125 psi. Check the manufacturer's specifications for the actual figure for your vehicle. The air compressor should stop pumping air at that point.
Question: Your dump truck has 4 axles, including one lift axle. Under federal regulations, how many brakes must it have?
Answer: B. 8
Explanation: A CMV has two foundation brakes per axle (one on each side). According to FMCSA, even a lift axle must have brakes when it is in contact with the roadway. Therefore, a truck with 4 axles must have 4 × 2 = 8 foundation brakes, even if one axle is a lift axle.
Question: What determines how effective the spring emergency brakes or the parking brakes are?
Answer: D. It depends on the adjustment of the service brakes.
Explanation: The braking power of spring brakes depends on the brakes being in adjustment. If the brakes are not adjusted properly, neither the service brakes nor the emergency or parking brakes will work right.
Question: Repeatedly pressing and releasing (fanning) the brake pedal may result in
Answer: C. a loss of brake air pressure.
Explanation: Each time you release the brakes, some compressed air leaves the system and must be replenished by the air compressor. If you keep pressing and releasing the brake pedal, air may leave the system faster than the air compressor can replenish it. The air pressure may drop to the point that the brakes won't work.
Question: In a tractor-trailer, an anti-compounding valve is connected to
Answer: C. the service brake valve and the parking brake valve.
Explanation: A spring parking brake can exert a force of up to 2,000 pounds, and a Type 30 service brake chamber can exert a force of 3,000 pounds or more. If both forces were applied at the same time (which is called compounding the service and parking brakes), the combined force could damage parts of the braking system. To prevent this, most modern commercial vehicles employ an anti-compounding valve. One input port of this valve is connected to the service brake valve (foot valve), and another input port is connected to the parking brake valve (yellow knob). Suppose you set the parking brakes by pulling out the yellow knob. That valve will send air to the anti-compounding valve. If you also press the brake pedal, the foot valve will also send air to the anti-compounding valve. Then the anti-compounding valve will partially release the parking brakes by the same amount of force that the foot valve has applied.
Question: With S-cam drum brakes, when the brake chamber fills with air, air pressure pushes the pushrod out, moving the ________ and thus rotating the ________.
Answer: A. slack adjuster; brake camshaft
Explanation:
Question: When you release the service brakes after applying them, what happens to that compressed air?
Answer: C. It is exhausted from the system.
Explanation: Each time you release the brakes, some compressed air leaves the system and must be replenished by the air compressor.
Question: Which of the following can cause brakes to fade or fail?
Answer: B. Overheating, low air pressure, and not relying on the engine braking effect
Explanation: Brake fade and failure are usually due to incorrect use of the brakes that causes overheating. This may be caused by incorrect brake adjustment, not enough reliance on engine braking, excessive use of the service brakes, another mechanical factor, or human error. Air brakes will also fail if air pressure drops too low.
Question: In a vehicle equipped with air brakes, where is the safety valve located?
Answer: A. In the first tank to which the air compressor pumps air
Explanation:
Question: If you must adjust an automatic slack adjuster that has a hexagonal (six-sided) adjusting bolt, you should first turn the adjusting bolt in which direction?
Answer: B. Clockwise until the bolt stops turning
Explanation: Adjusting an automatic slack adjuster is an emergency procedure that you should perform only if your brakes have failed on the road. Most automatic slack adjusters have a hexagonal (six-sided) adjusting bolt. For this type of slack adjuster, first turn the bolt clockwise until it stops turning. If the slack adjuster has a square adjusting bolt, first turn the bolt counterclockwise until it stops turning. Then with either type of bolt, back it off about half a turn in the opposite direction.
Question: You are driving down a steep downgrade. You have reached your "safe" speed of 40 mph. Now you should apply the service brakes until your speed drops to
Answer: A. 35 mph.
Explanation:
Question: The driver must be able to see a warning before air pressure in the service air tanks falls below
Answer: C. 55 to 60 psi.
Explanation: A low pressure warning signal visible to the driver must come on before the pressure in the service air tank falls below 55 psi (or one-half the air compressor governor cutout air pressure on older vehicles).
Question: To use antilock brakes properly, you should
Answer: B. brake normally.
Explanation: Antilock brakes will automatically keep your wheels from locking so you can brake normally.
Question: Under which conditions are front wheel brakes good?
Answer: B. All weather conditions
Explanation: Front wheel brakes have been shown to be ideal under all weather and driving conditions. Front wheel braking is unlikely to cause a skid even on icy roads.
Question: Why should you NOT fan the brakes when you're driving on a long downgrade?
Answer: A. It won't allow the brakes to cool.
Explanation:
Question: All vehicles with air brakes have
Answer: C. a supply pressure gauge.
Explanation: A supply pressure gauge is connected to a service tank (or possibly to both service tanks in a dual air brake system). It shows the amount of air pressure in the service tank.
Question: For semi-trucks, what is the most common cause of air loss in the semi-trailer?
Answer: B. Leaky glad hand seals
Explanation: Glad hands have rubber or urethane seals to form a tight connection and prevent air from escaping. The glad hands are constantly being connected and disconnected, so the seals tend to wear out over time. Leaky seals can cause loss of air pressure.
Question: The total stopping distance for air brakes is longer than that for hydraulic brakes because of
Answer: B. brake lag.
Explanation: When you depress the brake pedal on a vehicle with air brakes, there will be a lag of about a half second before the air flows through the lines to reach the brakes. This will add to your total stopping distance.
Question: According to federal regulations on air brakes, the brake linings of drum brakes must be at least _______ thick.
Answer: C. 1/4 inch
Explanation: According to federal regulations on air brakes, the brake linings of non-steering-axle brakes must be at least 1/8 inch thick for disc brakes or at least 1/4 inch thick for drum brakes. The brake linings of steering-axle drum brakes can be thinner.
Question: Compressed air exhaust is
Answer: C. hazardous in direct exposure.
Explanation: The compressed air that is used in air brake systems can be hazardous if you get near it when it is being exhausted from the vehicle. Compressed air leaving the vehicle travels at a very high speed and carries moisture, oil, dirt, and dust. To avoid exposing yourself to it, learn about all the places where the compressed air can be exhausted from your vehicle (such as the exhaust ports of brake valves).
Question: When you press the brake pedal,
Answer: B. compressed air enters the brake chambers.
Explanation: Pressing down on the brake pedal lets air into each brake chamber, forcing the brake pads against the inside of the drum (or the rotor for disc brakes).
Question: If the air tanks are not drained,
Answer: A. your brakes may fail because of water freezing.
Explanation:
Question: At what measurement is the safety valve USUALLY set to open?
Answer: C. 150 psi
Explanation: The safety valve, which protects the system from excessive pressure, is usually set to open when the system reaches 150 psi.
Question: In a vehicle equipped with air brakes, what does the service line do?
Answer: D. It carries air from the foot brake or the trailer hand brake.
Explanation: Every vehicle equipped with air brakes has two air lines, the service line and the emergency line. The service line (also called the control line or signal line) carries air, which is controlled by the foot brake or the trailer hand brake. The harder you press the foot brake or pull the hand brake, the greater the pressure in the service line.
Question: When draining the air tanks, you should drain the supply tank first. How can you tell which tank is the supply tank?
Answer: C. The dashboard air pressure gauges won't drop when it's drained.
Explanation: It may be difficult to visually identify the supply tank. Instead, remember that your dashboard air pressure gauges monitor the air pressure in the primary and secondary service tanks. (In some vehicles, there are two gauges, one for each service tank; in other vehicles, there is one gauge with two needles.) Draining the service tanks will cause the gauges to show a drop in air pressure in those tanks. The supply tank is the tank that does NOT drop the gauges when it's drained.
Question: Cracks in a brake drum or brake disc must not be longer than _______ the width of the friction area.
Answer: B. one-half
Explanation: During your walk-around inspection, check the brake drums or brake discs to be sure that no cracks are longer than half the width of the friction area.
Question: For a bus or straight truck, the air-loss rate with the engine off and the brakes released should be less than
Answer: C. 2 psi per minute.
Explanation: Perform the first test of air leakage with the engine off and the brakes released. The air-loss rate should be less than 3 psi per minute for a combination vehicle and less than 2 psi per minute for a bus or straight truck. After you've tested this initial drop, now test air leakage with the engine off and the foot brake fully applied. This time, the air-loss rate should be less than 4 psi per minute for a combination vehicle and less than 3 psi per minute for a bus or straight truck.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of the drum brake?
Answer: C. Safety valve
Explanation: Drum brakes are on each of your vehicle's axles and contain about 10 different parts, including the return spring, slack adjuster, and brake drum itself. While a safety valve is part of an air brake system, it is not part of the drum brake.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of the braking process when driving a tractor-trailer combination vehicle with an anti-lock braking system (ABS)?
Answer: B. You should drive faster so that you will be able to keep the trailer and tractor straight.
Explanation: When driving a tractor-trailer combination that has ABS, drive the same way that you always have. Do not drive any differently just because of ABS. Only use the braking necessary to keep control, pay attention when you slow down, and brake the same way regardless of what you're driving. Never speed up unless it is part of the safe driving process already.
Question: In controlled braking, you
Answer: B. brake in a straight line.
Explanation: In controlled braking, you brake as hard as you can without locking the wheels. As you do this, keep your vehicle going relatively straight.
Question: To drive a tractor-trailer with air brakes, you must have
Answer: A. a Class A CDL without an air brakes restriction.
Explanation:
Question: An anti-lock braking system (ABS)
Answer: A. activates when the wheels are about to lock up.
Explanation:
Question: When should you use the parking brake?
Answer: C. Whenever your vehicle is parked
Explanation: You should always use your parking brake except when the brakes are very hot or they are wet and at risk of freezing.
Question: What is the best way to test if your vehicle's spring brakes come on automatically?
Answer: D. All of the above are correct.
Explanation: On both tractor-trailers and single vehicles, to test whether the spring brakes will come on automatically, use the same method you use for testing the low air pressure warning signal: Step on and off the brake pedal, this time until you reach an even lower psi reading and the parking brake valve closes or pops out.
Question: The air leakage rate for a straight truck or bus with the engine off and the service brakes on should not exceed
Answer: C. 3 psi per minute.
Explanation: After the initial drop, the maximum acceptable leakage rates with the service brakes on are 3 psi per minute for single vehicles and 4 psi per minute for combination vehicles. If the leakage rate is higher, check for leaks and correct them.
Question: What is a supply pressure gauge used for?
Answer: A. To show how much pressure is in the air tanks.
Explanation:
Question: If you need to stop quickly and your vehicle lacks antilock brakes, you can use
Answer: C. either (a) or (b).
Explanation: If you need to stop quickly, use either the "controlled braking" method or the "stab braking" method. However, if your vehicle has antilock brakes, stab braking won't work because the wheels won't lock. Use controlled braking instead.
Question: To correct a drive-wheel braking skid, you should
Answer: C. stop braking, turn quickly, and countersteer.
Explanation: To recover from a drive-wheel braking skid, first stop braking. The rear wheels will unlock and roll again so there will be no more tendency to slide sideways. Then quickly steer your vehicle back on course. You may find that your vehicle will overshoot and keep on turning, possibly skidding in the opposite direction. Countersteer to counteract this. Note: This maneuver takes some practice. You should become proficient in it before you actually need to use it.
Question: What is an advantage of automatic slack adjusters?
Answer: D. They help maintain correct pushrod stroke.
Explanation: An automatic slack adjuster automatically compensates for normal brake lining wear by adjusting pushrod stroke. Automatic slack adjusters should not normally require manual adjustment of pushrod stroke. However, they still require lubrication at regular intervals.
Question: When you apply the brake pedal, the brake shoes and linings are pressed against the
Answer: C. brake drum.
Explanation: In North America, the most common type of foundation brake is the S-cam drum brake. The brake shoes and linings press against the inside of the brake drum, which causes friction to slow the wheel.
Question: During your final air brake check, if the air pressure does not build up fast enough,
Answer: A. the air pressure may drop too low during driving.
Explanation:
Question: How can you tell if your vehicle is equipped with an anti-lock braking system (ABS)?
Answer: C. The vehicle was manufactured after 1998.
Explanation: Vehicles manufactured after 1998 are required to have anti-lock brakes. They also have a yellow ABS malfunction lamp.
Question: A low pressure warning signal is required on
Answer: A. vehicles with air brakes.
Explanation:
Question: To test the static air leakage rate, you should
Answer: B. turn off the engine, release the parking brake, and let the system settle.
Explanation: To test for an air leak, turn off the engine, release the parking brake (i.e., push the parking brake control knob in), and see how fast the air pressure drops. The air pressure should drop less than 2 psi in one minute for a single vehicle and less than 3 psi for a combination vehicle.
Question: Excessive use of the service brakes may result in overheating, which can lead to
Answer: A. expansion of the brake drums.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following will be true about your brake function if your anti-lock braking system (ABS) fails?
Answer: D. You will still have normal brake function and will just need to get the ABS repaired soon.
Explanation: Losing the ABS function does not change the basic parts of your truck, so you will still have the same brakes that you have always had. Simply use them and get the ABS repaired as soon as possible. There is no need to panic, unless your system shows other and more serious warnings.
Question: In stab braking, you
Answer: B. press the brake pedal as hard as you can, release the brakes when the wheels lock, and apply the brakes again when the wheels start to roll.
Explanation: To stop with stab braking, brake hard, release the brakes once the wheels lock, and then brake hard once the wheels start to roll again. (Note that this method won't work if your vehicle has antilock brakes, because the wheels won't lock. Use controlled braking instead.)
Question: The air compressor should start pumping air at about
Answer: A. 100 psi.
Explanation:
Question: What is the first thing you should do if the low air pressure warning signal comes on?
Answer: C. Stop.
Explanation: If the low air pressure warning comes on, there may be a leak in the system. Pull over and park your vehicle as soon as possible. If the air pressure drops too low, the spring brakes will come on automatically, which will stop your vehicle – but not necessarily in a safe way. Sudden application of the spring brakes while you're driving might result in a skid.
Question: If 100 psi of air pressure is applied to a Type 30 brake chamber, what will the resulting pushrod force be?
Answer: C. 3,000 pounds.
Explanation: The most common type of air brake chamber in trucks and trailers is the Type 30. The type number gives the area of the diaphragm. Thus, the diaphragm in a Type 30 brake chamber has an area of 30 square inches. If a force of 100 psi (pounds per square inch) is applied to the diaphragm, the resulting pushrod force will equal 100 × 30 = 3,000 pounds.
Question: The air compressor will stop pumping air into the air tanks at ____ psi.
Answer: C. 125
Explanation: The air compressor will start pumping air into the air tanks at about 100 psi and stop at about 125 psi. This action is controlled by the air compressor governor.
Question: Air brakes use _________ to make the brakes work.
Answer: C. compressed air
Explanation: Air brakes use compressed air to make the brakes work.
Question: The purpose of a supply pressure gauge is
Answer: A. to tell you how much air is in the tank.
Explanation:
Question: In which of the following situations should you NOT apply the parking brakes?
Answer: B. If the brakes are very hot
Explanation: If the brakes are too hot, avoid using the parking brakes because the heat may warp and damage the brakes. Also avoid using the parking brakes if they are wet and at risk of freezing. If the parking brakes freeze, your vehicle will be immobilized. In both of these situations, use wheel chocks instead.
Question: What is the purpose of an alcohol evaporator?
Answer: C. To prevent a buildup of ice in the air brake system
Explanation: When the air compressor runs, an alcohol evaporator puts alcohol vapor into the air brake system to help prevent water in the lines or valves from freezing. Ice in the lines or valves can cause them to stop working.
Question: If a slack adjuster has more than ________ of free play when you pull hard on it, the slack adjuster may need adjustment.
Answer: B. 1 inch
Explanation: During the walk-around inspection, pull hard on each slack adjuster that you can reach. If it moves more than an inch, it probably needs adjustment.
Question: Your vehicle has a dual air brake system. If a low air pressure warning comes on for just one of the two systems, what should you do?
Answer: C. Stop and park safely. Continue only after the system has been fixed.
Explanation: A dual air brake system has two separate air brake systems, each with its own air tanks, hoses, lines, etc. Typically, one system operates the brakes on the rear axle(s), and the other system operates the brakes on the front axle. If one of the systems loses air pressure (causing the low air pressure warning), either the front or the rear brakes won't work properly. As a result, your vehicle's braking distance will increase. If this happens, stop your vehicle and get the system fixed.
Question: Your vehicle has a dual air brake system. One of the systems loses air pressure. What will happen?
Answer: B. Either the front or rear brakes will not be fully operational.
Explanation: A dual air brake system has two separate air brake systems, each with its own air tanks, hoses, lines, etc. Typically, one system operates the brakes on the rear axle(s), and the other system operates the brakes on the front axle. If one of the systems loses air pressure, either the front or the rear brakes won't work properly. As a result, your vehicle's braking distance will increase. If this happens, stop your vehicle and get the system fixed. Continued braking would soon cause the spring brakes to come on.
Question: The braking system that applies the brakes when the driver presses the brake pedal is the ________ brake system.
Answer: C. service
Explanation: Air brakes are really three braking systems in one: the emergency brake, the parking brake, and the service brake. As these names suggest, when you depress the brake pedal in normal driving, it's the service brake system that applies the brakes.
Question: Air braking takes more time than hydraulic braking because air
Answer: C. takes longer than hydraulic fluid to flow through the lines.
Explanation: With hydraulic brakes, hydraulic fluid is always in the system, so the brakes will be applied instantly when you depress the brake pedal. With air brakes, the compressed air must flow through a complex series of lines, valves, etc., to reach and fill the brake chambers before the brakes can begin to slow your vehicle. This "brake lag" can take at least a half second.
Question: The low air pressure warning signal will come on before the pressure in the air tanks falls below
Answer: A. 60 - 55 psi.
Explanation:
Question: If you must make an emergency stop, brake so that
Answer: B. your vehicle will stay in a straight line.
Explanation: If you must brake in an emergency, brake in a way that keeps your vehicle in a straight line while still letting you turn if necessary. You can use the "controlled braking" method or (in a vehicle without antilock brakes) the "stab braking" method.
Question: Where is the air dryer located?
Answer: B. Between the air compressor and the supply ("wet") tank
Explanation: The supply ("wet") tank tends to get most of the moisture because moisture condenses there as the hot air from the compressor cools. To help alleviate this situation, the air dryer dries the air from the compressor before it enters the supply tank. Note: Today's air dryer technology is so effective that a "wet" tank may not be needed anymore. In a modern Air Dryer Integrated System (ADIS), air from the air dryer goes directly into the primary and secondary service ("dry") tanks.
Question: Tractor and straight truck spring brakes will come on if the air pressure drops to a range of
Answer: C. 20 to 45 psi.
Explanation: An air leak in your brake system can cause your air brakes to fail. If the air pressure drops to the manufacturer's specification (typically 20–45 psi), your spring brakes will come on automatically. You can avoid this by pulling over and checking the air brakes if the low pressure warning light ever comes on.
Question: The air leakage rate for a straight truck or bus with the engine off and the service brakes released should not exceed
Answer: B. 2 psi per minute.
Explanation: To test the static air leakage rate, turn off the engine, release the parking brake (i.e., push the parking brake control knob in), and see how fast the air pressure drops. The air pressure should drop less than 2 psi in one minute for a single vehicle and less than 3 psi in one minute for a combination vehicle.
Question: To test the service brakes,
Answer: C. brake firmly while slowly moving forward.
Explanation: To test the service brakes, wait for normal air pressure. Then move your vehicle forward slowly (at about 5 mph) and brake hard. Check whether your vehicle stops promptly without pulling to one side or the other.
Question: Are front wheel brakes good under all conditions?
Answer: C. Yes, so keep them on the "normal" setting.
Explanation: Front wheel braking is good under all conditions. Tests have shown front wheel skids from braking are not likely even on ice. Make sure the control is in the “normal” position to have normal stopping power.
Question: If your vehicle has an alcohol evaporator, you should __________ daily in cold weather.
Answer: B. check the alcohol level
Explanation: Alcohol vapor from the alcohol evaporator helps keep ice from forming in the lines and valves of the air brake system. Check the alcohol level daily and refill as needed.
Question: What does caging a brake chamber do?
Answer: B. It disables the spring brake.
Explanation: If your vehicle's service brakes fail, the emergency (spring) brakes will activate and stop your vehicle. Then to tow your vehicle for repairs, it will be necessary to disable the spring brakes. A technician can manually compress or "cage" the spring in each spring brake chamber. Obviously, the vehicle will be undrivable at this point because it will have no working brakes at all.
Question: The application pressure gauge shows the amount of air pressure
Answer: A. that you are applying to the brakes.
Explanation:
Question: How would you check your truck's slack adjusters?
Answer: B. Park on level ground, turn off the parking brakes, and pull hard on each slack adjuster.
Explanation: To check the slack adjusters, try to pull on them manually while wearing gloves. If there is an inch or more of "give," then there is an issue and they should be fixed.
Question: S-cam drum brakes have an S-cam in each brake. Why is it called an "S-cam?"
Answer: C. It is shaped like the letter "S."
Explanation: The S-cam really is S-shaped. As it rotates, it forces the brake shoes away from each other and toward the inside of the brake drum.
Question: If the low air pressure warning signal is not working,
Answer: B. it may lead to sudden emergency braking in a single-circuit air system.
Explanation: The low pressure warning signal should come on before the air pressure falls below 60 psi. If it fails to do so, the air pressure may keep falling without your knowing it. In a single-circuit air system, your spring (emergency) brakes may come on suddenly. In a dual air system, either the front or the rear brakes won't work properly, the braking distance of your vehicle will increase, and continued braking will soon cause the spring brakes to come on.
Question: Before starting down a hill, you should be in the proper gear
Answer: A. so you only have to apply the brakes just hard enough to feel a definite slowdown.
Explanation:
Question: As part of your vehicle inspection test, if your vehicle is equipped with air brakes and has a trailer, you will inspect the air connections between the truck or tractor and the trailer. Make sure that the ________ are locked in place and free of damage or air leaks.
Answer: A. glad hands
Explanation:
Question: The air loss rate for a straight truck or bus with the engine off and the brakes on should not be more than
Answer: A. 3 psi in one minute.
Explanation:
Question: When can you leave your truck unattended without first applying the parking brakes or chocking the wheels?
Answer: C. Never
Explanation: Never leave your vehicle unattended without first applying the parking brakes or chocking the wheels. Your vehicle might roll away and hit something – or someone.
Question: The S-cam
Answer: A. forces the brake shoes against the inside of the brake drum.
Explanation:
Question: How do you adjust a manual slack adjuster?
Answer: C. Turn the adjusting nut to move the end of the slack adjuster until the brake shoes contact the inside of the brake drum. Then turn the nut the other way to move the brake shoes away from the brake drum.
Explanation: To adjust a manual slack adjuster, turn the adjusting nut so that the S-cam rotates in the same direction as when the brakes are applied. Keep turning the nut until the nut stops turning. At this point, the brake shoes should be pressing tight against the inside of the brake drum. Then turn the nut the other way about one-third of a turn to move the brake shoes away from the inside of the brake drum. Note: This procedure may not be described in your CDL manual.
Question: How would you check your truck's slack adjusters?
Answer: B. Use gloves and pull hard on each slack adjuster you can reach.
Explanation: To check the slack adjusters, try to pull on them manually while wearing gloves. If there is an inch or more of "give," there is an issue and they should be fixed.
Question: On large, heavy vehicles, the parking or emergency brakes must be held on by something that cannot leak away, such as
Answer: B. spring pressure.
Explanation: Federal safety regulations require buses and trucks to have parking and emergency brakes that don't rely on compressed air or hydraulic fluid to work (because these can leak away). Hence, the parking and emergency brakes rely on mechanical force such as springs.
Question: Which of these statements is true of spring brakes?
Answer: D. They are not as strong as service brakes.
Explanation: Spring brakes start to drag as pressure drops to about 60 psi, and they release as pressure rises to about 60 psi. Yet a full service brake application can be 100 psi. The coil spring in most spring parking brake chambers can exert a force of between 1,500 and 2,000 pounds. With a full service brake application of 100 psi, a typical Type 30 brake chamber can produce a force of 30 × 100 = 3,000 pounds.
Question: With the "controlled braking" method, you
Answer: B. apply the brakes as hard as you can without locking the wheels.
Explanation: With controlled braking, you brake as hard as you can without locking the wheels, and keep steering to a minimum. If the wheels do lock or you need to steer more than this, release the brakes and reapply them as soon as you can.
Question: Air tanks must be drained
Answer: B. to drain moisture and oil out of the tanks.
Explanation: Water and oil from the compressor can collect at the bottoms of the air tanks. If the air tanks are not drained, the water and oil can freeze or coagulate and cause brake failure.
Question: Foundation brakes are located
Answer: B. at all wheels.
Explanation: Foundation brakes are found at each wheel. The most common type of foundation brake is the S-cam drum brake.
Question: To check the slack adjusters on S-cam drum brakes, you should first
Answer: C. park on level ground, chock the wheels, and release the parking brakes.
Explanation: Chock the wheels so you can release the parking brakes safely. Then put on gloves and pull hard on each slack adjuster you can reach. If it moves more than about one inch, it needs to be adjusted.
Question: How should you test your service brakes?
Answer: C. Brake firmly while slowly moving forward on level ground.
Explanation: To test the service brakes, wait to build up normal air pressure. Then move your vehicle forward slowly (at about 5 mph) and brake hard. Check whether your vehicle stops promptly without pulling to one side or the other.
Question: The safety valve is set to automatically reduce pressure at
Answer: C. 150 psi.
Explanation: The safety valve, which protects the system from excessive pressure, is usually set to open when the system reaches 150 psi.
Question: If a malfunction causes the air compressor to stop working,
Answer: C. you will still have enough air in the storage tanks to apply the air brakes several times.
Explanation: The air storage tanks hold enough air for you to apply the air brakes several times.
Question: If your truck or bus has dual parking control valves, you can use air pressure from a separate tank to
Answer: B. release the spring brakes.
Explanation: When main air pressure is lost, the spring brakes come on and stop your vehicle. Some vehicles such as buses have a separate air tank with enough air to release the spring brakes in case the vehicle must be moved temporarily in an emergency. (The tank holds only enough air to do this a few times, however.) You control this action with the dual parking control valve.
Question: The air compressor governor controls
Answer: A. when air is pumped into the air storage tanks.
Explanation:
Question: If your truck or bus has dual parking control valves, you can use air pressure from a separate tank to
Answer: C. release the spring brakes.
Explanation: Even after loss of air pressure has caused the spring brakes to come on, you may need to move the vehicle again in an emergency. Some vehicles such as buses have a separate air tank that can be used to release the spring brakes. You can then move the vehicle, after which you can set the spring brakes again. This action is controlled by dual parking control valves: One valve lets air flow from this air tank to release the spring brakes, and the other valve sets them again.
Question: In an S-cam drum brake, the brake spider is connected to
Answer: A. the brake shoes.
Explanation:
Question: In a vehicle equipped with air brakes, which of the following activates the stop light switch when you brake?
Answer: A. Air pressure
Explanation:
Question: If your vehicle has a properly functioning dual air brake system and minimum-sized air tanks, the air pressure should build from 85 to 100 psi within ____ seconds.
Answer: C. 45
Explanation: In dual air systems with minimum-sized air tanks, the pressure should build from 85 to 100 psi within 45 seconds. (With larger air tanks, it can take longer. Check the manufacturer's specifications for the expected amount of time.) If it takes longer than it should, there may be a problem with your system that may cause you to lose air pressure while you're driving.
Question: Before checking the free play of slack adjusters on S-cam brakes, you should
Answer: A. park on level ground, chock the wheels, and release the parking brakes.
Explanation:
Question: After the initial drop, the maximum acceptable leakage rates per minute are
Answer: D. 3 psi for single vehicles and 4 psi for combination vehicles.
Explanation: After the initial drop, the maximum acceptable leakage rates per minute are 3 psi for single vehicles and 4 psi for combination vehicles. If the leakage rate is higher, check for leaks and correct them.
Question: What is the best way to test your vehicle's low air pressure warning signal?
Answer: C. With the engine off, step on and off the brake pedal to lower the air pressure below 60 psi.
Explanation: The best way to test the low air pressure warning signal is to release the parking brake (all vehicles), release the tractor protection valve (on combination vehicles), and turn off the engine of your vehicle while leaving the electrical power on. Then step on and off the brake pedal. The low air pressure warning signal should come on when the pressure falls below 60 psi. You should never need to get down to 30 psi.
Question: Where are a CMV's air tanks located?
Answer: A. Under or around the frame
Explanation:
Question: You'll know that your brakes are fading if
Answer: C. you have to press the brake pedal harder than usual to control your speed.
Explanation: If your brakes begin to fade, you'll notice that you have to depress the brake pedal harder to achieve the same braking effect as before. If your vehicle is so equipped, check the application pressure gauge to see just how much pedal effort you are employing. If the brakes continue to fade, you may not be able to slow down or stop at all.
Question: Every vehicle equipped with air brakes must have
Answer: B. a supply pressure gauge.
Explanation: Every vehicle with air brakes has a supply pressure gauge, which shows how much air pressure is in the air tanks. Some vehicles also have an application pressure gauge, which shows how much air pressure you are applying to the brakes. Older vehicles also had a manual front brake limiting valve, which allowed the driver to cut front brake air pressure in half as a way of preventing front-wheel skids. However, tests have shown that full front-wheel braking is safe.
Question: To apply the parking brakes under normal conditions,
Answer: B. let the air out of the brake chambers.
Explanation: The parking brake control allows you to evacuate air from the brake chambers. With the air gone, the spring brakes will come on automatically and hold your vehicle in place.
Question: The parking brake control
Answer: A. lets the air out of the brake chambers.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following are true about a dual air brake system?
Answer: D. All of the above are true.
Explanation: A dual air brake system is a system designed for safety and is used on most heavy-duty vehicles. It uses one set of controls. Typically, the "primary" system operates the regular brakes on the rear axle, and the "secondary" system operates the regular brakes on the front axle.
Question: Which of the following can cause brakes to fail or fade?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Fade and fail are usually due to incorrect use of the brakes that causes excess heat. This may be caused by incorrect brake adjustment, not enough reliance on engine braking, excessive use of the service brakes, or another mechanical factor or human error.
Question: In wet, freezing weather, you notice that some of the brake linings in your parked trailer have gotten frozen to the brake drums. What should you do?
Answer: A. Tap on the brake drums.
Explanation:
Question: When should you disconnect the steering axle brakes?
Answer: A. Never
Explanation:
Question: The modulating control valve allows you to control the
Answer: A. spring brakes.
Explanation:
Question: The tractor protection valve
Answer: D. does all of the above.
Explanation: The tractor protection valve protects your air brake system by providing the air supply, closing automatically if the air supply drops too low, and closing if you apply the parking brakes on your vehicle.
Question: With air brake-equipped vehicles, the parking brakes should be used
Answer: C. whenever you leave the vehicle unattended.
Explanation: Because air pressure can leak when you're away from your vehicle, it should be set with the parking brake, to keep it from rolling. There is an exception to this rule: if the brakes are too hot or wet, use wheel chocks instead, to avoid brake damage or freezing.
Question: The driver must be able to see a low pressure warning signal, which comes on before pressure in the service air tank falls below
Answer: B. 60 psi.
Explanation: A low pressure warning signal visible to the driver must come on before the pressure in the service air tank falls below 60 psi (or one-half the air compressor governor cutout air pressure on older vehicles).
Question: A CMV's brakes are designed to withstand temperatures of up to
Answer: C. about 250 °C.
Explanation: Brakes are designed to withstand quite a lot of heat. The brake components can withstand temperatures up to about 250° C (482 °F) under hard braking.
Question: When should you use the parking brake?
Answer: B. Every time you leave your vehicle, with a few exceptions
Explanation: You should always use your parking brake except when the brakes are very hot or they are wet and at risk of freezing.
Question: If you're driving a vehicle with a front brake limiting valve, you should
Answer: B. always keep it on the "normal" setting.
Explanation: Some older vehicles have a manually controlled front brake limiting valve to reduce air pressure to the front brakes when traveling on slippery roads. However, tests have since shown that front wheel braking is unlikely to cause a skid even on slippery roads. And reducing the air pressure reduces the vehicle's stopping power. Keep the front brake limiting valve on the "normal" setting at all times.
Question: When should you manually adjust an automatic slack adjuster?
Answer: C. Only if it's not working properly
Explanation: Once properly installed and lubricated, an automatic slack adjuster should not need manual adjustment. If it does, it may be malfunctioning or there may be a problem with the foundation brake itself. Find the problem and correct it.
Question: If the air tanks are not drained,
Answer: D. your brakes may fail because of water freezing.
Explanation: Your air tanks hold a mixture of water and compressor oil. If left in to collect at the bottom, the water may freeze and cause brake failure.
Question: If the air compressor should develop a leak, what will keep the air in the tanks?
Answer: A. The one-way check valve
Explanation:
Question: Slack adjusters are
Answer: D. all of the above.
Explanation: Slack adjusters are an important part of your air brake system that allows you to adjust the brakes to ensure that they are safe. They are located in different places, depending on the type of brakes that you have.
Question: The use of air brakes on a downgrade is only a supplement to the
Answer: A. braking effect of the engine.
Explanation:
Question: Which type of trailer can be towed before its service tanks are full?
Answer: B. (b) Spring brake priority
Explanation: Instead of providing air pressure to both the service brakes and the spring brakes at the same time, trailer brake subsystems give priority to one or the other. Trailers with spring brake priority supply compressed air to the spring brakes (to release them) before the service tanks have filled. Trailers with service brake priority fill the service tanks before supplying air to the spring brakes. When coupling your tractor to a trailer with service brake priority, you must wait until the service tanks are full before you can release the trailer's parking brakes. Trailers more than 25 years old were more likely to implement service brake priority. Today's modern trailers are more likely to implement spring brake priority. Ask your employer or a qualified person whether your trailer uses spring brake priority or service brake priority.
Question: On a long or steep downgrade, your service brakes are only a supplement to
Answer: B. the braking effect of the engine.
Explanation: When you drive down long, steep downgrades, the braking effect of your engine is what's most important, and your service brakes are only a supplement to being in the proper low gear. They cannot compensate for your vehicle being in an unsafe high gear without putting too much pressure on your brakes.
Question: If oil and water collect in the air tanks, what could happen to the brakes?
Answer: A. The brakes could fail.
Explanation:
Question: In the event of a brake system failure, the emergency brake system uses __________ to stop the vehicle.
Answer: A. parts of the service brakes and parking brakes
Explanation:
Question: In large commercial vehicles, most air brake systems use automatic valves to
Answer: B. reduce air pressure at the front wheels.
Explanation: Most modern tractors are equipped with an automatic front axle ratio valve, which supersedes the manual front brake limiting valve in older tractors. In light-to-moderate braking, the ratio valve automatically reduces air pressure (and hence braking force) to the front wheels to reduce the chance of front-wheel lockup (which could result in a skid) on slippery roads.
Question: A slack adjuster may need adjustment if it moves more than ______ when you pull on it.
Answer: B. 1 inch
Explanation: The slack adjusters won't move if the parking brakes are on. To check the slack adjusters, park on level ground, chock the wheels, and then release the parking brakes. Use gloves and pull hard on each slack adjuster that you can reach. If a slack adjuster moves more than about one inch where the pushrod attaches to it, it probably needs adjustment.
Question: Excessive heat caused by overuse of the service brakes can cause
Answer: C. the brakes to fade.
Explanation: Excessive heat caused by overuse of the brakes can expand the brake drums away from the brake pads or shoes and affect the brake linings, reducing friction. The brakes will fade (lose their effectiveness). On a long or steep downgrade, rely on engine braking more than the service brakes.
Question: The braking power of the spring brakes
Answer: B. depends on whether the service brakes are in proper adjustment.
Explanation: The braking power of the spring brakes depends on whether the service brakes are in proper adjustment. If they are not, neither the service brakes nor the emergency/parking brakes will work properly.
Question: The system that uses parts of the service and parking brake systems to stop the vehicle in a brake system failure is called
Answer: C. the emergency brake system.
Explanation: The system that uses parts of the service and parking brake systems to stop the vehicle in a brake system failure is called the emergency brake system.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of the air brake system?
Answer: A. Radio signal system
Explanation:
Question: In a vehicle equipped with air brakes, the brake pedal
Answer: A. controls the air pressure applied to the service brakes.
Explanation:
Question: When should you use the parking brakes and air brakes at the same time?
Answer: B. Never
Explanation: Never try to apply the brake pedal when the spring brakes are on. The combined force of the springs and the air pressure could damage the brakes. However, the brake systems on some (but not all) vehicles are designed to prevent this from happening.
Question: Which of the following statements about brakes are true?
Answer: A. The heavier the vehicle or the faster it's traveling, the more heat the brakes have to absorb to stop it.
Explanation:
Question: For a bus or straight truck equipped with air brakes, the maximum allowable leakage rate without the foot brake applied is
Answer: C. 2 psi per minute.
Explanation: One of the tests you must make of the air brake system is a test of the leakage rate without the foot brake applied. Fully charge the air brake system, turn off the engine, and release the parking brake. The air pressure should not drop more than 2 psi per minute for a straight vehicle or 3 psi per minute for a combination vehicle. If it is greater, check for leaks in the system.
Question: When should you drain your air tanks?
Answer: B. At the end of each working day
Explanation: Unless your vehicle automatically drains the air tanks, you should drain them at the end of each working day so that the moisture and oil will not freeze or coagulate and cause your brakes to fail.
Question: Where is the air dryer located?
Answer: D. Between the compressor and the first air tank
Explanation: An air dryer may be installed in the compressor discharge line between the compressor and the first air tank. Its purpose is to remove water vapor and contaminants from compressor air before the air enters the first tank. The first tank has usually been the supply or "wet" tank, so called because moisture accumulated in that tank before the air flowed from there to the service tanks. However, today's air dryer technology is so effective that a "wet" tank may not be needed anymore. In a modern Air Dryer Integrated System (AD-IS®), the air compressor governor and the air dryer are combined into a single unit. Air from the air dryer goes directly into the primary and secondary service ("dry") tanks. There is no supply ("wet") tank.
Question: All vehicles equipped with air brakes have
Answer: A. a supply pressure gauge.
Explanation:
Question: At 55 mph on dry pavement, air brake lag adds about _______ to your stopping distance.
Answer: B. 32 feet
Explanation: 55 mph = 81 feet per second. Air brake lag typically lasts about 0.4 seconds. Therefore, the lag distance equals 81 feet per second × 0.4 seconds = 32 feet.
Question: You can test the air compressor governor by
Answer: A. by increasing and decreasing the air pressure.
Explanation:
Question: Modern air brake systems are three different systems combined: service brakes, parking brakes, and _______ brakes.
Answer: C. emergency
Explanation: The emergency brake system utilizes parts of the service brakes and the parking brakes in case your regular brakes fail and you need to come to a stop.
Question: There is a two-way check valve connected to the primary and secondary service tanks. What does this valve do?
Answer: B. It supplies compressed air from the service tank with the highest pressure.
Explanation: A two-way check valve allows compressed air from two different sources to flow through the same air line. The valve will select the source with the higher pressure. In this case, a two-way check valve is connected to both the primary and secondary service tanks to always draw air from the tank with the higher pressure and send it to the parking brake control valve. This arrangement ensures that the higher pressure is available to release the spring parking brakes. It also ensures that the spring parking brakes will not activate if pressure is lost in just one of the two tanks.
Question: A commercial vehicle equipped with antilock brakes (ABS) will have a _______ ABS malfunction lamp on the instrument panel.
Answer: B. yellow
Explanation: If your vehicle has ABS, there will be a yellow ABS malfunction lamp on the instrument panel. When you start the engine, the ABS malfunction lamp will come on momentarily to show that the lamp works. But if the lamp comes on and stays on, it means there is a problem with the ABS.
Question: If the spring brakes are on, when should you depress the brake pedal?
Answer: A. Never
Explanation:
Question: The low air pressure warning signal should come on before the pressure in the air tanks falls below ____ psi.
Answer: B. 60
Explanation: The low air pressure warning light must come on before the air pressure falls below 60 psi. On some vehicles, the warning light will come on at a higher air pressure. Check the manufacturer's specifications.
Question: Which vehicles must have low air pressure warning signals?
Answer: B. All vehicles with air brakes currently in operation
Explanation: All vehicles on the road that have air brakes must have low air pressure warning signals.
Question: Why must you study air brakes in the state of Illinois?
Answer: B. Otherwise, you will have to get a CDL with restrictions.
Explanation: In Illinois, if you have not studied and passed the section of the CDL exam on air brakes, you will only be able to get a CDL that restricts you to driving vehicles without air brakes. So good luck!
Question: To make an emergency stop with the "stab braking" method, you should
Answer: B. depress the brake pedal as hard as you can, release the brakes when the wheels lock, and apply the brakes again when the wheels start to roll.
Explanation: To stop with stab braking, brake hard, release the brakes once the wheels lock, and then brake hard once the wheels start to roll again. (Clearly, this method won't work if your vehicle has antilock brakes, because the wheels won't lock. Use controlled braking instead.)
Question: A modern Air Dryer Integrated System (AD-IS) includes which of the following components?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: A modern Air Dryer Integrated System (AD-IS) combines the governor, air dryer, and safety valve into one system. Compressed air from the air compressor goes to the AD-IS, which removes moisture and contaminants from the air. The clean, dry air then goes to fill the primary and secondary service tanks.
Question: How do you perform controlled braking?
Answer: B. Apply the brakes as hard as you can without locking the wheels.
Explanation: In controlled braking, you apply the brakes as hard as you can without locking the wheels. Keep steering wheel movements very small while doing this. This method of emergency braking does not require you to lock the wheels. Hence it is compatible with antilock brakes (ABS).
Question: The stop light switch
Answer: C. turns on the brake lights when you brake.
Explanation: The stop light switch is an electric switch triggered by air pressure. When you apply the service brakes, the stop light switch turns on the brake lights.
Question: Your vehicle has a dual air brake system. If a low air pressure warning comes on for the secondary system, what should you do?
Answer: A. Bring the vehicle to a safe stop and continue only after the system is fixed.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following is the most important thing about hard braking?
Answer: B. Don't lock the wheels for longer than an instant.
Explanation: When braking hard, don't lock the wheels for longer than an instant (which is done in stab braking). If the wheels stay locked, they will lose the grip of the road and your vehicle may skid or even jackknife.
Question: What is the most important reason to know which parts of the air brake system exhaust air?
Answer: D. Because it can be dangerous
Explanation: Compressed air may be exhausted from several different ports in the air braking system. This air travels at a very high speed from the vehicle and carries moisture, oil, dirt, and dust. It can be dangerous if it hits your eyes or ears. Know the location of all air exhaust ports so you can keep away from them, such as when you're draining the air tanks.
Question: A converter dolly with antilock brakes (ABS) is required to have
Answer: A. a yellow lamp on the left side.
Explanation:
Question: If you do not have an automatic tank drain, when should you drain your air tanks?
Answer: B. At the end of each working day
Explanation: Oil and water can start to collect in the bottom of an air tank and can cause brake failure if it's not drained. Unless your vehicle automatically drains the air tanks, you should drain them at the end of each working day so the moisture and oil will not freeze or coagulate and cause your brakes to fail.
Question: At 55 mph on dry pavement, the air brake lag distance is about
Answer: A. 32 feet.
Explanation:
Question: Can an air brake system include both an air dryer and an alcohol evaporator (injector)?
Answer: A. Yes, but only if the alcohol evaporator is located downstream from the air dryer.
Explanation:
Question: For a combination vehicle equipped with air brakes, the maximum allowable leakage rate without the foot brake applied is
Answer: C. 3 psi per minute.
Explanation: One of the tests you must make of the air brake system is a test of the leakage rate without the foot brake applied. Fully charge the air brake system, turn off the engine, and release the parking brake. The air pressure should not drop more than 2 psi per minute for a straight vehicle or 3 psi per minute for a combination vehicle. If it is greater, check for leaks in the system.
Question: Which of the following statements about antilock brakes (ABS) is true?
Answer: B. With ABS, you do emergency braking differently than without ABS.
Explanation: Without ABS, hard braking can lock the wheels, resulting in a skid. Therefore, to do emergency braking without ABS, you should use the "stab braking" method or the "controlled braking" method. With ABS, go ahead and brake hard; the ABS computer will prevent your wheels from locking.
Question: How do brakes work on a long, steep downgrade?
Answer: C. They work as a supplement to the braking effect of your engine.
Explanation: When you drive down long, steep downgrades, the braking effect of your engine is what's most important, and your brakes are only a supplement to being in the proper low gear. They cannot compensate for your vehicle being in an unsafe high gear without putting too much pressure on your brakes.
Question: Bobtail proportioning valves _________ when the tractor is bobtailed.
Answer: D. reduce drive-axle braking
Explanation: A tractor's drive-axle brakes are designed to be powerful enough to handle a fully loaded trailer. However, a bobtail tractor doesn't have the weight of a trailer over the drive axles. This increases the chance that the powerful drive-axle brakes will lock the wheels when you brake the tractor. To help prevent this, bobtail proportioning valves significantly reduce drive-axle braking when the tractor is bobtailed.
Question: On a long or steep downgrade, once you have reached your "safe" speed, brake until you are traveling
Answer: C. 5 mph slower.
Explanation: On a steep downgrade, don't keep applying your brakes continuously because this might cause them to fade (become less effective). Instead, apply your brakes sparingly as a supplement to engine braking. Select a "safe" speed. Let your vehicle reach this speed. Brake gently until you are going 5 mph slower. Then let your speed increase back to the "safe" speed. Keep varying your speed up and down this way. This technique is known as snub braking or snubbing.
Question: To comply with federal safety regulations, the parking or emergency brakes of large commercial vehicles must be held on by
Answer: B. spring pressure.
Explanation: Federal safety regulations require buses and trucks to have parking and emergency brakes that don't work on compressed air or hydraulic fluid (because these can leak away). Hence, the parking and emergency brakes rely on mechanical force, such as springs.
Question: How should you test whether the spring brakes come on when air pressure in the system drops below a certain level?
Answer: A. Park on level ground. Chock the wheels. Release the parking brake when you have enough air pressure. Shut off the engine. Repeatedly press and release the brake pedal.
Explanation:
Question: During normal driving, spring brakes are usually held back by
Answer: B. air pressure.
Explanation: Spring brakes contain powerful springs that are normally held back by air pressure. If the pressure drops too low, the spring brakes will automatically kick in.
Question: The ABS malfunction light on the dashboard indicates a problem with your vehicle's ABS. What should you do?
Answer: B. Drive normally until the ABS is repaired.
Explanation: Losing the ABS function does not change the basic parts of your truck, so you will still have the same brakes that you have always had. Simply use them and get the ABS repaired as soon as possible.
Question: Spring brakes are
Answer: D. all of the above.
Explanation: Spring brakes are an important backup system: powerful springs that automatically apply the brakes if they sense that air pressure has been lost for some reason, such as a leak. They will also apply the brakes if the psi gets too low, although ideally, you should take control of your brakes before that happens.
Question: Under ideal conditions, the average driver of a truck or bus equipped with air brakes and traveling at 55 mph would require what stopping distance?
Answer: B. More than 400 feet
Explanation: The stopping distance equals the sum of the perception distance, reaction distance, brake lag distance, and braking distance. Under ideal conditions, the average driver of a bus or large truck equipped with air brakes and traveling at 55 mph would require about 451 feet to come to a complete stop. The length of a football field including the two end zones is 360 feet.
Question: The most common type of foundation brake found on vehicles with air brakes is the
Answer: A. S-cam drum brake.
Explanation:
Question: How can you determine applied pushrod stroke?
Answer: D. (b) or (c)
Explanation: Before measuring pushrod stroke, chock the wheels of your vehicle. For an accurate measurement, make sure that tank air pressures are 90–100 psi. Here are two different methods for measuring pushrod stroke: (1) Make a mark on the pushrod where it exits the brake chamber, and see how far it moves from the brake chamber when the service brakes are applied. (2) Measure the length of the part of the pushrod from the brake chamber to the center of the clevis pin, and see how much it increases when the brakes are applied. To perform either method efficiently, two people may be needed: one to apply the service brakes, and one to make the appropriate measurements before and after the brakes are applied. There are also various pushrod stroke measuring tools available commercially that you can use.
Question: If your vehicle has an AD-IS system, it won't have
Answer: C. a supply tank.
Explanation: An Integrated Solution Air Dryer (AD-IS®) and Reservoir System provides an integrated air dryer, purge reservoir, governor, and a number of the charging valve components in a module. The air dryer is so efficient that a supply ("wet") tank is not needed. Instead, the AD-IS sends air directly to the primary and secondary service ("dry") tanks.
Question: What are spring brakes?
Answer: B. They are springs that apply the brakes if air pressure drops too low.
Explanation: Spring brakes are an important backup system: powerful springs that automatically apply the brakes if they sense that air pressure has dropped too low for effective braking. The spring brakes are also used as parking brakes.
Question: To apply the parking brakes, you need to do which of the following?
Answer: A. Evacuate the air from the brake chambers.
Explanation:
Question: The brake pedal
Answer: D. controls the air pressure to operate the brakes.
Explanation: When you press the brake pedal in a CMV equipped with air brakes, the foot valve underneath the pedal opens to allow compressed air to flow to the brake chambers. The brake chambers exert mechanical force to operate the foundation brakes.
Question: Which of the following should you do before leaving your vehicle unattended?
Answer: D. Do all of the above.
Explanation: To ensure that your truck will be safe when you leave it unattended, apply the parking brakes and chock the wheels. Removing the keys is a simple safety tip for any vehicle, even a passenger car.
Question: During your walk-around inspection, check the brake drums to be sure that no cracks are longer than ________ the width of the friction area.
Answer: C. one-half
Explanation: During your walk-around inspection, check the brake drums to be sure that no cracks are longer than half the width of the friction area.
Question: Which vehicles must have low air pressure warning signals?
Answer: D. All vehicles with air brakes currently in operation
Explanation: All vehicles on the road that have air brakes must have low air pressure warning signals.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of the braking process when driving a tractor-trailer combination vehicle with an anti-lock braking system (ABS)?
Answer: D. You should drive faster so that you will be able to keep the trailer and tractor straight.
Explanation: When driving a tractor-trailer combination that has ABS, drive the same way that you always have. Do not drive any differently just because of ABS. Only use the braking necessary to keep control, pay attention when you slow down, and brake the same way regardless of what you're driving. Never speed up unless it is part of the safe driving process already.
Question: When should you use the parking brake?
Answer: A. Every time you leave your vehicle, with a few exceptions
Explanation: You should always use your parking brake except when the brakes are very hot or they are wet and at risk of freezing.
Question: What is the best way to test if your vehicle's spring brakes come on automatically?
Answer: D. All of the above are correct.
Explanation: On both tractor-trailers and single vehicles, to test whether the spring brakes will come on automatically, use the same method you use for testing the low air pressure warning signal: Step on and off the brake pedal, this time until you reach an even lower psi reading and the parking brake valve closes or pops out.
Question: How do brakes work on a long, steep downgrade?
Answer: C. They work as a supplement to the braking effect of your engine.
Explanation: When you drive down long, steep downgrades, the braking effect of your engine is what's most important, and your brakes are only a supplement to being in the proper low gear. They cannot compensate for your vehicle being in an unsafe high gear without putting too much pressure on your brakes.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of the drum brake?
Answer: B. Safety valve
Explanation: Drum brakes are on each of your vehicle's axles and contain about 10 different parts, including the return spring, slack adjuster, and brake drum itself. While a safety valve is part of an air brake system, it is not part of the drum brake.
Question: The use of air brakes on a downgrade is only a supplement to the
Answer: C. braking effect of the engine.
Explanation: Going down a hill, you should keep your engine in a low gear to keep your speed low, and use the air brakes as a supplemental tool to slow down.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of the air brake system?
Answer: C. Radio signal system
Explanation: The air brakes are made up of three systems: the service brake, the parking brake, and the emergency brake. Before your exam, review the CDL Study Guide to familiarize yourself with what each one does.
Question: Slack adjusters are
Answer: D. all of the above.
Explanation: Slack adjusters are an important part of your air brake system that allows you to adjust the brakes to ensure that they are safe. They are located in different places, depending on the type of brakes that you have.
Question: When should you drain your air tanks?
Answer: B. At the end of each working day
Explanation: Unless your vehicle automatically drains the air tanks, you should drain them at the end of each working day so that the moisture and oil will not freeze or coagulate and cause your brakes to fail.
Question: At what measurement is the safety valve USUALLY set to open?
Answer: A. 150 psi
Explanation: The safety valve, which protects the system from excessive pressure, is usually set to open when the system reaches 150 psi.
Question: Under which conditions are front wheel brakes good?
Answer: B. All weather conditions
Explanation: Front wheel brakes have been shown to be ideal under all weather and driving conditions. Front wheel braking is unlikely to cause a skid even on icy roads.
Question: Which of the following are true about a dual air brake system?
Answer: D. All of the above are true.
Explanation: A dual air brake system is a system designed for safety and is used on most heavy-duty vehicles. It uses one set of controls. Typically, the "primary" system operates the regular brakes on the rear axle, and the "secondary" system operates the regular brakes on the front axle.
Question: With air brake-equipped vehicles, the parking brakes should be used
Answer: C. whenever you leave the vehicle unattended.
Explanation: Because air pressure can leak when you're away from your vehicle, it should be set with the parking brake, to keep it from rolling. There is an exception to this rule: if the brakes are too hot or wet, use wheel chocks instead, to avoid brake damage or freezing.
Question: If the air tanks are not drained,
Answer: A. your brakes may fail because of water freezing.
Explanation: Your air tanks hold a mixture of water and compressor oil. If left in to collect at the bottom, the water may freeze and cause brake failure.
Question: A low pressure warning signal is required on
Answer: C. vehicles with air brakes.
Explanation: A low air pressure warning signal is required on vehicles with air brakes. The warning is usually a red light. A buzzer may also come on. Another type of warning is the “wig wag.” This device drops a mechanical arm into your view when the pressure in the system drops between the dangerous levels.
Question: An anti-lock braking system (ABS)
Answer: B. activates when the wheels are about to lock up.
Explanation: ABS does not have much effect on your everyday driving. It does not affect your braking capability or shorten your stopping distance. It just helps you keep your vehicle in control by activating when your wheels are about to lock up.
Question: How would you check your truck's slack adjusters?
Answer: A. Use gloves and pull hard on each slack adjuster you can reach.
Explanation: To check the slack adjusters, try to pull on them manually while wearing gloves. If there is an inch or more of "give," there is an issue and they should be fixed.
Question: The low air pressure warning signal will come on before the pressure in the air tanks falls below
Answer: C. 60 - 55 psi.
Explanation: The low air pressure warning light must come on before the air pressure falls below 60 - 55 psi. On some vehicles, the warning light will come on at a higher air pressure. Check the manufacturer's specifications.
Question: Spring brakes are
Answer: D. all of the above.
Explanation: Spring brakes are an important backup system: powerful springs that automatically apply the brakes if they sense that air pressure has been lost for some reason, such as a leak. They will also apply the brakes if the psi gets too low, although ideally, you should take control of your brakes before that happens.
Question: How can you tell if your vehicle is equipped with an anti-lock braking system (ABS)?
Answer: D. The vehicle was manufactured after 1998.
Explanation: Vehicles manufactured after 1998 are required to have anti-lock brakes. They also have a yellow ABS malfunction lamp.
Question: The tractor protection valve
Answer: D. does all of the above.
Explanation: The tractor protection valve protects your air brake system by providing the air supply, closing automatically if the air supply drops too low, and closing if you apply the parking brakes on your vehicle.
Question: Which of the following can cause brakes to fail or fade?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Fade and fail are usually due to incorrect use of the brakes that causes excess heat. This may be caused by incorrect brake adjustment, not enough reliance on engine braking, excessive use of the service brakes, or another mechanical factor or human error.
Question: Which of the following will be true about your brake function if your anti-lock braking system (ABS) fails?
Answer: A. You will still have normal brake function and will just need to get the ABS repaired soon.
Explanation: Losing the ABS function does not change the basic parts of your truck, so you will still have the same brakes that you have always had. Simply use them and get the ABS repaired as soon as possible. There is no need to panic, unless your system shows other and more serious warnings.
Question: What is the best way to test your vehicle's low air pressure warning signal?
Answer: C. With the engine off, step on and off the brake pedal to lower the air pressure below 60 psi.
Explanation: The best way to test the low air pressure warning signal is to release the parking brake (all vehicles), release the tractor protection valve (on combination vehicles), and turn off the engine of your vehicle while leaving the electrical power on. Then step on and off the brake pedal. The low air pressure warning signal should come on when the pressure falls below 60 psi. You should never need to get down to 30 psi.
Question: After the initial drop, the maximum acceptable leakage rates per minute are
Answer: B. 3 psi for single vehicles and 4 psi for combination vehicles.
Explanation: After the initial drop, the maximum acceptable leakage rates per minute are 3 psi for single vehicles and 4 psi for combination vehicles. If the leakage rate is higher, check for leaks and correct them.
Question: Which of the following should you do before leaving your vehicle unattended?
Answer: D. Do all of the above.
Explanation: To ensure that your truck will be safe when you leave it unattended, apply the parking brakes and chock the wheels. Removing the keys is a simple safety tip for any vehicle, even a passenger car.
Question: The purpose of a supply pressure gauge is
Answer: B. to tell you how much air is in the tank.
Explanation: The supply pressure gauge tells you how much air is in the tank at all times. In some vehicles, it may be connected to a warning bell or light.
Question: All vehicles equipped with air brakes have
Answer: A. a supply pressure gauge.
Explanation: Every vehicle equipped with air brakes must have a supply pressure gauge that shows how much air pressure is available for braking.
Question: Why must you study air brakes in the state of Illinois?
Answer: A. Otherwise, you will have to get a CDL with restrictions.
Explanation: In Illinois, if you have not studied and passed the section of the CDL exam on air brakes, you will only be able to get a CDL that restricts you to driving vehicles without air brakes. So good luck!
Question: If your truck or bus has dual parking control valves, you can use air pressure from a separate tank to
Answer: B. release the spring brakes.
Explanation: When main air pressure is lost, the spring brakes come on and stop your vehicle. Some vehicles such as buses have a separate air tank with enough air to release the spring brakes in case the vehicle must be moved temporarily in an emergency. (The tank holds only enough air to do this a few times, however.) You control this action with the dual parking control valve.
Question: The braking power of the spring brakes
Answer: C. depends on whether the service brakes are in proper adjustment.
Explanation: The braking power of the spring brakes depends on whether the service brakes are in proper adjustment. If they are not, neither the service brakes nor the emergency/parking brakes will work properly.
Question: On large, heavy vehicles, the parking or emergency brakes must be held on by something that cannot leak away, such as
Answer: C. spring pressure.
Explanation: Federal safety regulations require buses and trucks to have parking and emergency brakes that don't rely on compressed air or hydraulic fluid to work (because these can leak away). Hence, the parking and emergency brakes rely on mechanical force such as springs.
Question: With S-cam drum brakes, when the brake chamber fills with air, air pressure pushes the pushrod out, moving the ________ and thus rotating the ________.
Answer: C. slack adjuster; brake camshaft
Explanation: To apply the S-cam drum brakes, air is let into each brake chamber. Air pressure pushes the pushrod out, moving the slack adjuster, thus rotating the brake camshaft. As the S-cam on the camshaft rotates, it forces the brake shoes against the inside of the brake drum.
Question: With the "controlled braking" method, you
Answer: A. apply the brakes as hard as you can without locking the wheels.
Explanation: With controlled braking, you brake as hard as you can without locking the wheels, and keep steering to a minimum. If the wheels do lock or you need to steer more than this, release the brakes and reapply them as soon as you can.
Question: The stop light switch
Answer: A. turns on the brake lights when you brake.
Explanation: The stop light switch is an electric switch triggered by air pressure. When you apply the service brakes, the stop light switch turns on the brake lights.
Question: The air loss rate for a straight truck or bus with the engine off and the brakes on should not be more than
Answer: B. 3 psi in one minute.
Explanation: When testing for an air leak, make sure the system is fully charged, turn off the engine, fully apply the foot (service) brake, and hold the brake for one minute. The air pressure should not drop more than 3 psi for a single vehicle or more than 4 psi for a combination vehicle. If it does, check for an air leak somewhere.
Question: The application pressure gauge shows the amount of air pressure
Answer: B. that you are applying to the brakes.
Explanation: If your vehicle is so equipped, the application pressure gauge will show how much air pressure you are applying to the brakes. If you have to apply more pressure than before to achieve the same braking effect, your brakes are fading (becoming less effective).
Question: The modulating control valve allows you to control the
Answer: B. spring brakes.
Explanation: In some vehicles, a control handle on the dashboard may be used to apply the spring brakes gradually. This is called a modulating valve. It is spring-loaded so you have a feel for the braking action. The more you move the control lever, the harder the spring brakes come on. They work this way so you can control the spring brakes if the service brakes fail. When parking a vehicle with a modulating control valve, move the lever as far as it will go and hold it in place with the locking device.
Question: If your vehicle has an alcohol evaporator, you should __________ daily in cold weather.
Answer: A. check the alcohol level
Explanation: Alcohol vapor from the alcohol evaporator helps keep ice from forming in the lines and valves of the air brake system. Check the alcohol level daily and refill as needed.
Question: If your vehicle has a properly functioning dual air brake system and minimum-sized air tanks, the air pressure should build from 85 to 100 psi within ____ seconds.
Answer: A. 45
Explanation: In dual air systems with minimum-sized air tanks, the pressure should build from 85 to 100 psi within 45 seconds. (With larger air tanks, it can take longer. Check the manufacturer's specifications for the expected amount of time.) If it takes longer than it should, there may be a problem with your system that may cause you to lose air pressure while you're driving.
Question: On a long or steep downgrade, once you have reached your "safe" speed, brake until you are traveling
Answer: A. 5 mph slower.
Explanation: On a steep downgrade, don't keep applying your brakes continuously because this might cause them to fade (become less effective). Instead, apply your brakes sparingly as a supplement to engine braking. Select a "safe" speed. Let your vehicle reach this speed. Brake gently until you are going 5 mph slower. Then let your speed increase back to the "safe" speed. Keep varying your speed up and down this way. This technique is known as snub braking or snubbing.
Question: The driver must be able to see a low pressure warning signal, which comes on before pressure in the service air tank falls below
Answer: C. 60 psi.
Explanation: A low pressure warning signal visible to the driver must come on before the pressure in the service air tank falls below 60 psi (or one-half the air compressor governor cutout air pressure on older vehicles).
Question: The safety valve is set to automatically reduce pressure at
Answer: B. 150 psi.
Explanation: The safety valve, which protects the system from excessive pressure, is usually set to open when the system reaches 150 psi.
Question: According to federal regulations on air brakes, the brake linings of drum brakes must be at least _______ thick.
Answer: C. 1/4 inch
Explanation: According to federal regulations on air brakes, the brake linings of non-steering-axle brakes must be at least 1/8 inch thick for disc brakes or at least 1/4 inch thick for drum brakes. The brake linings of steering-axle drum brakes can be thinner.
Question: Your vehicle has a dual air brake system. If a low air pressure warning comes on for just one of the two systems, what should you do?
Answer: B. Stop and park safely. Continue only after the system has been fixed.
Explanation: A dual air brake system has two separate air brake systems, each with its own air tanks, hoses, lines, etc. Typically, one system operates the brakes on the rear axle(s), and the other system operates the brakes on the front axle. If one of the systems loses air pressure (causing the low air pressure warning), either the front or the rear brakes won't work properly. As a result, your vehicle's braking distance will increase. If this happens, stop your vehicle and get the system fixed.
Question: What is a supply pressure gauge used for?
Answer: C. To show how much pressure is in the air tanks.
Explanation: The air supply pressure gauge is connected to the air tank (or possibly to both tanks in a dual air tank system). It shows how much air pressure is in the air tanks.
Question: The S-cam
Answer: A. forces the brake shoes against the inside of the brake drum.
Explanation: When the S-cam rotates, it forces the brake shoes apart and against the inside of the brake drum. Friction will slow the rotation of the wheel.
Question: The service brake system applies
Answer: A. the brakes when you depress the brake pedal during normal driving.
Explanation: Air brakes are actually three braking systems in one: the emergency brake, the parking brake, and the service brake. As these terms suggest, when you depress the brake pedal in normal driving, it's the service brake system that applies the brakes.
Question: With air brake-equipped vehicles, the parking brakes should be used
Answer: B. whenever you leave the vehicle unattended.
Explanation: Because air pressure can leak when you're away from your vehicle, it should be set with the parking brake, to keep it from rolling. There is an exception to this rule: if the brakes are too hot or wet, use wheel chocks instead, to avoid brake damage or freezing.
Question: At 55 mph on dry pavement, the air brake lag distance is about
Answer: C. 32 feet.
Explanation: When you depress the brake pedal, it will take perhaps a half second for the air to reach the brakes. At 55 mph, your vehicle will travel about 32 feet in that time before the brakes kick in. This will add to your total stopping distance.
Question: The most common type of foundation brake found on vehicles with air brakes is the
Answer: A. S-cam drum brake.
Explanation: Foundation brakes are present on each wheel. In North America as of this writing, S-cam drum brakes are much more common than wedge or disc brakes.
Question: In a vehicle equipped with air brakes, the brake pedal
Answer: A. controls the air pressure applied to the service brakes.
Explanation: The brake pedal controls the amount of air pressure applied to the service brakes. The harder the pedal is pushed, the more air pressure is applied to the brakes.
Question: The air compressor governor controls
Answer: A. when air is pumped into the air storage tanks.
Explanation: The air compressor runs at all times while the engine is running. To keep the air pressure from eventually rising too high, the air compressor governor controls when the compressed air from the air compressor should flow into the air reservoirs. When air pressure drops to a certain level (typically 100 psi), the governor "cuts in" and routes the compressed air into the storage tanks. When air pressure rises to a certain level (typically 125 psi), the governor "cuts out" and routes the compressed air out of the system, into the atmosphere.
Question: If a malfunction causes the air compressor to stop working,
Answer: A. you will still have enough air in the storage tanks to apply the air brakes several times.
Explanation: The air storage tanks hold enough air for you to apply the air brakes several times.
Question: The braking system that applies the brakes when the driver presses the brake pedal is the ________ brake system.
Answer: C. service
Explanation: Air brakes are really three braking systems in one: the emergency brake, the parking brake, and the service brake. As these names suggest, when you depress the brake pedal in normal driving, it's the service brake system that applies the brakes.
Question: The parking brake control
Answer: C. lets the air out of the brake chambers.
Explanation: When you apply the parking brake control, air is released from the brake chambers, causing the springs to apply the brakes and hold your vehicle in place.
Question: In the event of a brake system failure, the emergency brake system uses __________ to stop the vehicle.
Answer: B. parts of the service brakes and parking brakes
Explanation: Spring brakes use powerful springs to apply the brakes. Normally, air pressure in the brake chambers holds back the springs. Should air pressure drop too low because of a leak, the springs will apply the brakes and stop the vehicle. To apply the parking brakes, you release air from the brake chambers manually.
Question: To drive a tractor-trailer with air brakes, you must have
Answer: B. a Class A CDL without an air brakes restriction.
Explanation: To legally pull a trailer whose gross vehicle weight rating (GCWR) exceeds 10,000 pounds, you'll have to obtain a Class A CDL. If you don't pass a knowledge test on air brakes, your CDL will include a restriction limiting you to driving only vehicles without air brakes.
Question: The total stopping distance for air brakes is longer than that for hydraulic brakes because of
Answer: C. brake lag.
Explanation: When you depress the brake pedal on a vehicle with air brakes, there will be a lag of about a half second before the air flows through the lines to reach the brakes. This will add to your total stopping distance.
Question: When you apply the brake pedal, the brake shoes and linings are pressed against the
Answer: A. brake drum.
Explanation: In North America, the most common type of foundation brake is the S-cam drum brake. The brake shoes and linings press against the inside of the brake drum, which causes friction to slow the wheel.
Question: If a slack adjuster has more than ________ of free play when you pull hard on it, the slack adjuster may need adjustment.
Answer: A. 1 inch
Explanation: During the walk-around inspection, pull hard on each slack adjuster that you can reach. If it moves more than an inch, it probably needs adjustment.
Question: To make an emergency stop with the "stab braking" method, you should
Answer: A. depress the brake pedal as hard as you can, release the brakes when the wheels lock, and apply the brakes again when the wheels start to roll.
Explanation: To stop with stab braking, brake hard, release the brakes once the wheels lock, and then brake hard once the wheels start to roll again. (Clearly, this method won't work if your vehicle has antilock brakes, because the wheels won't lock. Use controlled braking instead.)
Question: If you do not have an automatic tank drain, when should you drain your air tanks?
Answer: B. At the end of each working day
Explanation: Oil and water can start to collect in the bottom of an air tank and can cause brake failure if it's not drained. Unless your vehicle automatically drains the air tanks, you should drain them at the end of each working day so the moisture and oil will not freeze or coagulate and cause your brakes to fail.
Question: Repeatedly pressing and releasing (fanning) the brake pedal may result in
Answer: C. a loss of brake air pressure.
Explanation: Each time you release the brakes, some compressed air leaves the system and must be replenished by the air compressor. If you keep pressing and releasing the brake pedal, air may leave the system faster than the air compressor can replenish it. The air pressure may drop to the point that the brakes won't work.
Question: A typical air brake system is fully charged at
Answer: A. 125 psi.
Explanation: A typical air brake system will be fully charged at 125 psi. Check the manufacturer's specifications for the actual figure for your vehicle. The air compressor should stop pumping air at that point.
Question: Excessive use of the service brakes may result in overheating, which can lead to
Answer: A. expansion of the brake drums.
Explanation: Overusing the service brakes can cause overheating and expansion of the brake drums. The brake shoes will have to move farther to contact the brake drums, making braking harder or eventually impossible (brake fade).
Question: If the air tanks are not drained,
Answer: B. your brakes may fail because of water freezing.
Explanation: Oil and water can start to collect at the bottom of an air tank, which can lead to brake failure. Unless your vehicle automatically drains the air tanks, you should drain them at the end of each working day so the moisture and oil will not freeze or coagulate and cause your brakes to fail.
Question: To apply the parking brakes under normal conditions,
Answer: C. let the air out of the brake chambers.
Explanation: The parking brake control allows you to evacuate air from the brake chambers. With the air gone, the spring brakes will come on automatically and hold your vehicle in place.
Question: Foundation brakes are located
Answer: B. at all wheels.
Explanation: Foundation brakes are found at each wheel. The most common type of foundation brake is the S-cam drum brake.
Question: If you're driving a vehicle with a front brake limiting valve, you should
Answer: C. always keep it on the "normal" setting.
Explanation: Some older vehicles have a manually controlled front brake limiting valve to reduce air pressure to the front brakes when traveling on slippery roads. However, tests have since shown that front wheel braking is unlikely to cause a skid even on slippery roads. And reducing the air pressure reduces the vehicle's stopping power. Keep the front brake limiting valve on the "normal" setting at all times.
Question: The air compressor will stop pumping air into the air tanks at ____ psi.
Answer: C. 125
Explanation: The air compressor will start pumping air into the air tanks at about 100 psi and stop at about 125 psi. This action is controlled by the air compressor governor.
Question: The low air pressure warning signal should come on before the pressure in the air tanks falls below ____ psi.
Answer: B. 60
Explanation: The low air pressure warning light must come on before the air pressure falls below 60 psi. On some vehicles, the warning light will come on at a higher air pressure. Check the manufacturer's specifications.
Question: What is the first thing you should do if the low air pressure warning signal comes on?
Answer: B. Stop.
Explanation: If the low air pressure warning comes on, there may be a leak in the system. Pull over and park your vehicle as soon as possible. If the air pressure drops too low, the spring brakes will come on automatically, which will stop your vehicle – but not necessarily in a safe way. Sudden application of the spring brakes while you're driving might result in a skid.
Question: To check the slack adjusters on S-cam drum brakes, you should first
Answer: C. park on level ground, chock the wheels, and release the parking brakes.
Explanation: Chock the wheels so you can release the parking brakes safely. Then put on gloves and pull hard on each slack adjuster you can reach. If it moves more than about one inch, it needs to be adjusted.
Question: If you must make an emergency stop, brake so that
Answer: A. your vehicle will stay in a straight line.
Explanation: If you must brake in an emergency, brake in a way that keeps your vehicle in a straight line while still letting you turn if necessary. You can use the "controlled braking" method or (in a vehicle without antilock brakes) the "stab braking" method.
Question: If your truck or bus has dual parking control valves, you can use air pressure from a separate tank to
Answer: C. release the spring brakes.
Explanation: Even after loss of air pressure has caused the spring brakes to come on, you may need to move the vehicle again in an emergency. Some vehicles such as buses have a separate air tank that can be used to release the spring brakes. You can then move the vehicle, after which you can set the spring brakes again. This action is controlled by dual parking control valves: One valve lets air flow from this air tank to release the spring brakes, and the other valve sets them again.
Question: If the air compressor should develop a leak, what will keep the air in the tanks?
Answer: A. The one-way check valve
Explanation: Federal regulations require a one-way check valve or an equivalent device to be located at the entrance to the first air tank. (In a dual air brake system, there must be a one-way check valve at the entrance to both the primary and secondary air tanks.) If the air compressor or the line connecting it to the air tank develops a leak, the one-way check valve will prevent the air from going out. (Note: The Illinois Commercial Driver's License Study Guide does not discuss this topic.) [49 CFR § 571.121]
Question: If the spring brakes are on, when should you depress the brake pedal?
Answer: A. Never
Explanation: Applying the spring brakes and the air brakes at the same time may put too much force on the brakes and can actually damage them.
Question: Your vehicle has a dual air brake system. One of the systems loses air pressure. What will happen?
Answer: A. Either the front or rear brakes will not be fully operational.
Explanation: A dual air brake system has two separate air brake systems, each with its own air tanks, hoses, lines, etc. Typically, one system operates the brakes on the rear axle(s), and the other system operates the brakes on the front axle. If one of the systems loses air pressure, either the front or the rear brakes won't work properly. As a result, your vehicle's braking distance will increase. If this happens, stop your vehicle and get the system fixed. Continued braking would soon cause the spring brakes to come on.
Question: During normal driving, spring brakes are usually held back by
Answer: B. air pressure.
Explanation: Spring brakes contain powerful springs that are normally held back by air pressure. If the pressure drops too low, the spring brakes will automatically kick in.
Question: Tractor and straight truck spring brakes will come on if the air pressure drops to a range of
Answer: A. 20 to 45 psi.
Explanation: An air leak in your brake system can cause your air brakes to fail. If the air pressure drops to the manufacturer's specification (typically 20–45 psi), your spring brakes will come on automatically. You can avoid this by pulling over and checking the air brakes if the low pressure warning light ever comes on.
Question: Excessive heat caused by overuse of the service brakes can cause
Answer: C. the brakes to fade.
Explanation: Excessive heat caused by overuse of the brakes can expand the brake drums away from the brake pads or shoes and affect the brake linings, reducing friction. The brakes will fade (lose their effectiveness). On a long or steep downgrade, rely on engine braking more than the service brakes.
Question: When should you manually adjust an automatic slack adjuster?
Answer: A. Only if it's not working properly
Explanation: Once properly installed and lubricated, an automatic slack adjuster should not need manual adjustment. If it does, it may be malfunctioning or there may be a problem with the foundation brake itself. Find the problem and correct it.
Question: If the low air pressure warning signal is not working,
Answer: B. it may lead to sudden emergency braking in a single-circuit air system.
Explanation: The low pressure warning signal should come on before the air pressure falls below 60 psi. If it fails to do so, the air pressure may keep falling without your knowing it. In a single-circuit air system, your spring (emergency) brakes may come on suddenly. In a dual air system, either the front or the rear brakes won't work properly, the braking distance of your vehicle will increase, and continued braking will soon cause the spring brakes to come on.
Question: You'll know that your brakes are fading if
Answer: A. you have to press the brake pedal harder than usual to control your speed.
Explanation: If your brakes begin to fade, you'll notice that you have to depress the brake pedal harder to achieve the same braking effect as before. If your vehicle is so equipped, check the application pressure gauge to see just how much pedal effort you are employing. If the brakes continue to fade, you may not be able to slow down or stop at all.
Question: When should you use the parking brakes and air brakes at the same time?
Answer: A. Never
Explanation: Never try to apply the brake pedal when the spring brakes are on. The combined force of the springs and the air pressure could damage the brakes. However, the brake systems on some (but not all) vehicles are designed to prevent this from happening.
Question: In which of the following situations should you NOT apply the parking brakes?
Answer: C. If the brakes are very hot
Explanation: If the brakes are too hot, avoid using the parking brakes because the heat may warp and damage the brakes. Also avoid using the parking brakes if they are wet and at risk of freezing. If the parking brakes freeze, your vehicle will be immobilized. In both of these situations, use wheel chocks instead.
Question: Air braking takes more time than hydraulic braking because air
Answer: C. takes longer than hydraulic fluid to flow through the lines.
Explanation: With hydraulic brakes, hydraulic fluid is always in the system, so the brakes will be applied instantly when you depress the brake pedal. With air brakes, the compressed air must flow through a complex series of lines, valves, etc., to reach and fill the brake chambers before the brakes can begin to slow your vehicle. This "brake lag" can take at least a half second.
Question: To use antilock brakes properly, you should
Answer: A. brake normally.
Explanation: Antilock brakes will automatically keep your wheels from locking so you can brake normally.
Question: If oil and water collect in the air tanks, what could happen to the brakes?
Answer: A. The brakes could fail.
Explanation: Water and oil from the compressor can collect at the bottoms of the air tanks. If the air tanks are not drained regularly, the water and oil can freeze or coagulate and cause brake failure.
Question: What are spring brakes?
Answer: B. They are springs that apply the brakes if air pressure drops too low.
Explanation: Spring brakes are an important backup system: powerful springs that automatically apply the brakes if they sense that air pressure has dropped too low for effective braking. The spring brakes are also used as parking brakes.
Question: For a combination vehicle equipped with air brakes, the maximum allowable leakage rate without the foot brake applied is
Answer: D. 3 psi per minute.
Explanation: One of the tests you must make of the air brake system is a test of the leakage rate without the foot brake applied. Fully charge the air brake system, turn off the engine, and release the parking brake. The air pressure should not drop more than 2 psi per minute for a straight vehicle or 3 psi per minute for a combination vehicle. If it is greater, check for leaks in the system.
Question: During your walk-around inspection, check the brake drums to be sure that no cracks are longer than ________ the width of the friction area.
Answer: C. one-half
Explanation: During your walk-around inspection, check the brake drums to be sure that no cracks are longer than half the width of the friction area.
Question: Modern air brake systems are three different systems combined: service brakes, parking brakes, and _______ brakes.
Answer: C. emergency
Explanation: The emergency brake system utilizes parts of the service brakes and the parking brakes in case your regular brakes fail and you need to come to a stop.
Question: What is the purpose of an alcohol evaporator?
Answer: B. To prevent a buildup of ice in the air brake system
Explanation: When the air compressor runs, an alcohol evaporator puts alcohol vapor into the air brake system to help prevent water in the lines or valves from freezing. Ice in the lines or valves can cause them to stop working.
Question: Are front wheel brakes good under all conditions?
Answer: C. Yes, so keep them on the "normal" setting.
Explanation: Front wheel braking is good under all conditions. Tests have shown front wheel skids from braking are not likely even on ice. Make sure the control is in the “normal” position to have normal stopping power.
Question: In controlled braking, you
Answer: B. brake in a straight line.
Explanation: In controlled braking, you brake as hard as you can without locking the wheels. As you do this, keep your vehicle going relatively straight.
Question: If you need to stop quickly and your vehicle lacks antilock brakes, you can use
Answer: C. either (a) or (b).
Explanation: If you need to stop quickly, use either the "controlled braking" method or the "stab braking" method. However, if your vehicle has antilock brakes, stab braking won't work because the wheels won't lock. Use controlled braking instead.
Question: To test the service brakes,
Answer: A. brake firmly while slowly moving forward.
Explanation: To test the service brakes, wait for normal air pressure. Then move your vehicle forward slowly (at about 5 mph) and brake hard. Check whether your vehicle stops promptly without pulling to one side or the other.
Question: You can test the air compressor governor by
Answer: B. by increasing and decreasing the air pressure.
Explanation: The air compressor governor should cut in when a lower air pressure is reached and cut out when a higher air pressure is reached. (Check your manufacturer's specifications for these pressures.) To test this, run the engine at a fast idle to raise the air pressure until the air compressor governor cuts out. Then keep stepping on and off the brake pedal to reduce the air pressure until the air compressor governor cuts in.
Question: A converter dolly with antilock brakes (ABS) is required to have
Answer: B. a yellow lamp on the left side.
Explanation: A converter dolly with antilock brakes is required to have a yellow ABS lamp on its left side. All converter dollies built since March 1, 1998 have antilock brakes.
Question: For a bus or straight truck equipped with air brakes, the maximum allowable leakage rate without the foot brake applied is
Answer: C. 2 psi per minute.
Explanation: One of the tests you must make of the air brake system is a test of the leakage rate without the foot brake applied. Fully charge the air brake system, turn off the engine, and release the parking brake. The air pressure should not drop more than 2 psi per minute for a straight vehicle or 3 psi per minute for a combination vehicle. If it is greater, check for leaks in the system.
Question: The system that uses parts of the service and parking brake systems to stop the vehicle in a brake system failure is called
Answer: B. the emergency brake system.
Explanation: The system that uses parts of the service and parking brake systems to stop the vehicle in a brake system failure is called the emergency brake system.
Question: How do you adjust a manual slack adjuster?
Answer: B. Turn the adjusting nut to move the end of the slack adjuster until the brake shoes contact the inside of the brake drum. Then turn the nut the other way to move the brake shoes away from the brake drum.
Explanation: To adjust a manual slack adjuster, turn the adjusting nut so that the S-cam rotates in the same direction as when the brakes are applied. Keep turning the nut until the nut stops turning. At this point, the brake shoes should be pressing tight against the inside of the brake drum. Then turn the nut the other way about one-third of a turn to move the brake shoes away from the inside of the brake drum. Note: This procedure may not be described in your CDL manual.
Question: Air tanks must be drained
Answer: C. to drain moisture and oil out of the tanks.
Explanation: Water and oil from the compressor can collect at the bottoms of the air tanks. If the air tanks are not drained, the water and oil can freeze or coagulate and cause brake failure.
Question: To correct a drive-wheel braking skid, you should
Answer: A. stop braking, turn quickly, and countersteer.
Explanation: To recover from a drive-wheel braking skid, first stop braking. The rear wheels will unlock and roll again so there will be no more tendency to slide sideways. Then quickly steer your vehicle back on course. You may find that your vehicle will overshoot and keep on turning, possibly skidding in the opposite direction. Countersteer to counteract this. Note: This maneuver takes some practice. You should become proficient in it before you actually need to use it.
Question: Which of the following is the most important thing about hard braking?
Answer: C. Don't lock the wheels for longer than an instant.
Explanation: When braking hard, don't lock the wheels for longer than an instant (which is done in stab braking). If the wheels stay locked, they will lose the grip of the road and your vehicle may skid or even jackknife.
Question: When you press the brake pedal,
Answer: A. compressed air enters the brake chambers.
Explanation: Pressing down on the brake pedal lets air into each brake chamber, forcing the brake pads against the inside of the drum (or the rotor for disc brakes).
Question: During your final air brake check, if the air pressure does not build up fast enough,
Answer: B. the air pressure may drop too low during driving.
Explanation: The manufacturer's specifications should state how fast the air pressure should build up once the engine has reached normal operating speed. If the air pressure does not build up fast enough during your final air brake check, the air pressure may not replenish quickly enough during normal braking either. Don't drive the vehicle until the cause has been found and corrected.
Question: As part of your vehicle inspection test, if your vehicle is equipped with air brakes and has a trailer, you will inspect the air connections between the truck or tractor and the trailer. Make sure that the ________ are locked in place and free of damage or air leaks.
Answer: C. glad hands
Explanation: As part of your vehicle inspection test, if your vehicle is equipped with air brakes and has a trailer, you will inspect the air connections between the truck or tractor and the trailer. These connections are made with hose couplers (commonly called "glad hands" because they vaguely resemble shaking hands). These glad hands have rubber seals to form a tight connection and prevent air from escaping. Make sure that the glad hands are locked in place and free of damage or air leaks.
Question: A dual air brake system has two separate brake systems. Which of the following is true?
Answer: A. Typically, one brake system operates the brakes on the front axle, and the other system operates the brakes on the rear axles.
Explanation: A dual air brake system has two separate air brake systems, each with its own air tanks, hoses, lines, etc. Both systems are controlled by the one brake pedal. Typically, the primary system operates the brakes on the front axle (and possibly one rear axle as well), and the secondary system operates the brakes on the rear axles.
Question: Before starting down a hill, you should be in the proper gear
Answer: B. so you only have to apply the brakes just hard enough to feel a definite slowdown.
Explanation: When starting down a downgrade, shift into a low gear and use engine braking to slow your vehicle. Apply the brakes just enough to keep your vehicle near your safe speed.
Question: S-cam drum brakes have an S-cam in each brake. Why is it called an "S-cam?"
Answer: A. It is shaped like the letter "S."
Explanation: The S-cam really is S-shaped. As it rotates, it forces the brake shoes away from each other and toward the inside of the brake drum.
Question: When can you leave your truck unattended without first applying the parking brakes or chocking the wheels?
Answer: A. Never
Explanation: Never leave your vehicle unattended without first applying the parking brakes or chocking the wheels. Your vehicle might roll away and hit something – or someone.
Question: Under ideal conditions, the average driver of a truck or bus equipped with air brakes and traveling at 55 mph would require what stopping distance?
Answer: C. More than 400 feet
Explanation: The stopping distance equals the sum of the perception distance, reaction distance, brake lag distance, and braking distance. Under ideal conditions, the average driver of a bus or large truck equipped with air brakes and traveling at 55 mph would require about 451 feet to come to a complete stop. The length of a football field including the two end zones is 360 feet.
Question: How would you check your truck's slack adjusters?
Answer: A. Park on level ground, turn off the parking brakes, and pull hard on each slack adjuster.
Explanation: To check the slack adjusters, try to pull on them manually while wearing gloves. If there is an inch or more of "give," then there is an issue and they should be fixed.
Question: To test the static air leakage rate, you should
Answer: B. turn off the engine, release the parking brake, and let the system settle.
Explanation: To test for an air leak, turn off the engine, release the parking brake (i.e., push the parking brake control knob in), and see how fast the air pressure drops. The air pressure should drop less than 2 psi in one minute for a single vehicle and less than 3 psi for a combination vehicle.
Question: Which of the following can cause brakes to fade or fail?
Answer: A. Overheating, low air pressure, and not relying on the engine braking effect
Explanation: Brake fade and failure are usually due to incorrect use of the brakes that causes overheating. This may be caused by incorrect brake adjustment, not enough reliance on engine braking, excessive use of the service brakes, another mechanical factor, or human error. Air brakes will also fail if air pressure drops too low.
Question: Air brakes use _________ to make the brakes work.
Answer: A. compressed air
Explanation: Air brakes use compressed air to make the brakes work.
Question: If your truck's air compressor has its own oil supply, when should you first check the oil level?
Answer: C. Before driving
Explanation: Air compressors are either belt driven or (as is more often the case these days) gear driven directly from the engine. Most modern compressors are cooled by the engine cooling system and are lubricated by engine oil. However, some compressors may still be self lubricated or air cooled. If the compressor has its own oil supply, check the oil level before you drive.
Question: Where is the air dryer located?
Answer: C. Between the air compressor and the supply ("wet") tank
Explanation: The supply ("wet") tank tends to get most of the moisture because moisture condenses there as the hot air from the compressor cools. To help alleviate this situation, the air dryer dries the air from the compressor before it enters the supply tank. Note: Today's air dryer technology is so effective that a "wet" tank may not be needed anymore. In a modern Air Dryer Integrated System (ADIS), air from the air dryer goes directly into the primary and secondary service ("dry") tanks.
Question: In a tractor-trailer, an anti-compounding valve is connected to
Answer: D. the service brake valve and the parking brake valve.
Explanation: A spring parking brake can exert a force of up to 2,000 pounds, and a Type 30 service brake chamber can exert a force of 3,000 pounds or more. If both forces were applied at the same time (which is called compounding the service and parking brakes), the combined force could damage parts of the braking system. To prevent this, most modern commercial vehicles employ an anti-compounding valve. One input port of this valve is connected to the service brake valve (foot valve), and another input port is connected to the parking brake valve (yellow knob). Suppose you set the parking brakes by pulling out the yellow knob. That valve will send air to the anti-compounding valve. If you also press the brake pedal, the foot valve will also send air to the anti-compounding valve. Then the anti-compounding valve will partially release the parking brakes by the same amount of force that the foot valve has applied.
Question: A commercial vehicle equipped with antilock brakes (ABS) will have a _______ ABS malfunction lamp on the instrument panel.
Answer: B. yellow
Explanation: If your vehicle has ABS, there will be a yellow ABS malfunction lamp on the instrument panel. When you start the engine, the ABS malfunction lamp will come on momentarily to show that the lamp works. But if the lamp comes on and stays on, it means there is a problem with the ABS.
Question: The air compressor should start pumping air at about
Answer: C. 100 psi.
Explanation: In a typical air brake system, pumping by the air compressor should start at about 100 psi and stop at about 125 psi. (Check the manufacturer's specifications for the actual figures.)
Question: How should you test whether the spring brakes come on when air pressure in the system drops below a certain level?
Answer: A. Park on level ground. Chock the wheels. Release the parking brake when you have enough air pressure. Shut off the engine. Repeatedly press and release the brake pedal.
Explanation: To test whether the spring brakes come on, release the parking brake (all vehicles), release the tractor protection valve control (on combination vehicles), and turn off the engine while leaving the electrical power on to power the instrument panel. Then step on and off the brake pedal. The low air pressure warning signal should come on when the pressure has fallen below 55 psi. Continue stepping on and off the brake pedal until you reach about 20–45 psi, at which point the parking brake valve should close or pop out.
Question: To comply with federal safety regulations, the parking or emergency brakes of large commercial vehicles must be held on by
Answer: A. spring pressure.
Explanation: Federal safety regulations require buses and trucks to have parking and emergency brakes that don't work on compressed air or hydraulic fluid (because these can leak away). Hence, the parking and emergency brakes rely on mechanical force, such as springs.
Question: The air leakage rate for a straight truck or bus with the engine off and the service brakes on should not exceed
Answer: B. 3 psi per minute.
Explanation: After the initial drop, the maximum acceptable leakage rates with the service brakes on are 3 psi per minute for single vehicles and 4 psi per minute for combination vehicles. If the leakage rate is higher, check for leaks and correct them.
Question: Where are a CMV's air tanks located?
Answer: A. Under or around the frame
Explanation: Air from the compressor is stored in air tanks. Located under or around the frame of the vehicle, these tanks are usually made of steel and shaped like cylinders with domed ends.
Question: In large commercial vehicles, most air brake systems use automatic valves to
Answer: D. reduce air pressure at the front wheels.
Explanation: Most modern tractors are equipped with an automatic front axle ratio valve, which supersedes the manual front brake limiting valve in older tractors. In light-to-moderate braking, the ratio valve automatically reduces air pressure (and hence braking force) to the front wheels to reduce the chance of front-wheel lockup (which could result in a skid) on slippery roads.
Question: If your vehicle has an AD-IS system, it won't have
Answer: D. a supply tank.
Explanation: An Integrated Solution Air Dryer (AD-IS®) and Reservoir System provides an integrated air dryer, purge reservoir, governor, and a number of the charging valve components in a module. The air dryer is so efficient that a supply ("wet") tank is not needed. Instead, the AD-IS sends air directly to the primary and secondary service ("dry") tanks.
Question: Why should you NOT fan the brakes when you're driving on a long downgrade?
Answer: B. It won't allow the brakes to cool.
Explanation: Brakes use friction to convert the kinetic energy of your vehicle into heat. Overuse of the brakes won't allow enough time for the brakes to cool. Excessive heat can cause expansion of the brake drums and chemical changes in the brake lining that will reduce friction. The brakes will fade (become less effective).
Question: Your tractor-trailer is equipped with air suspension. If a leak or failure occurs in the air suspension system, what will prevent service tank air pressures from falling too far?
Answer: C. Pressure-protection valve
Explanation: Various auxiliary air systems, such as air suspension and the driver and passenger air seats, usually get their air from the service tanks of the air braking system. To prevent the tanks from losing air in the event of a leak or failure in an auxiliary air system, a pressure-protection valve is installed between each auxiliary air system and the service tank. If tank pressure drops below a preset level, the pressure-protection valve will close to stop any more air from flowing to the auxiliary air system.
Question: In a vehicle equipped with air brakes, where is the safety valve located?
Answer: A. In the first tank to which the air compressor pumps air
Explanation: A safety relief valve is installed in the first tank that the air compressor pumps air to. This tank is known as the supply or "wet" tank. The safety valve protects the tank and the rest of the system from too much pressure. The valve is usually set to open at 150 psi.
Question: In an S-cam drum brake, the brake spider is connected to
Answer: C. the brake shoes.
Explanation: In an S-cam drum brake, the brake spider serves as the main mounting base for the brake shoes. One end of each brake shoe is connected to the brake spider with an anchor pin. The anchor pin allows the brake shoe to pivot as the brake shoes are applied to the brake drum.
Question: A modern Air Dryer Integrated System (AD-IS) includes which of the following components?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: A modern Air Dryer Integrated System (AD-IS) combines the governor, air dryer, and safety valve into one system. Compressed air from the air compressor goes to the AD-IS, which removes moisture and contaminants from the air. The clean, dry air then goes to fill the primary and secondary service tanks.
Question: How can you determine applied pushrod stroke?
Answer: D. (b) or (c)
Explanation: Before measuring pushrod stroke, chock the wheels of your vehicle. For an accurate measurement, make sure that tank air pressures are 90–100 psi. Here are two different methods for measuring pushrod stroke: (1) Make a mark on the pushrod where it exits the brake chamber, and see how far it moves from the brake chamber when the service brakes are applied. (2) Measure the length of the part of the pushrod from the brake chamber to the center of the clevis pin, and see how much it increases when the brakes are applied. To perform either method efficiently, two people may be needed: one to apply the service brakes, and one to make the appropriate measurements before and after the brakes are applied. There are also various pushrod stroke measuring tools available commercially that you can use.
Question: In a vehicle equipped with air brakes, which of the following activates the stop light switch when you brake?
Answer: B. Air pressure
Explanation: Drivers behind you must be warned whenever you brake. The air brake system does this with an electric switch that works by air pressure. The switch turns on the brake lights when you apply the air brakes.
Question: For a bus or straight truck, the air-loss rate with the engine off and the brakes released should be less than
Answer: B. 2 psi per minute.
Explanation: Perform the first test of air leakage with the engine off and the brakes released. The air-loss rate should be less than 3 psi per minute for a combination vehicle and less than 2 psi per minute for a bus or straight truck. After you've tested this initial drop, now test air leakage with the engine off and the foot brake fully applied. This time, the air-loss rate should be less than 4 psi per minute for a combination vehicle and less than 3 psi per minute for a bus or straight truck.
Question: How do you perform controlled braking?
Answer: C. Apply the brakes as hard as you can without locking the wheels.
Explanation: In controlled braking, you apply the brakes as hard as you can without locking the wheels. Keep steering wheel movements very small while doing this. This method of emergency braking does not require you to lock the wheels. Hence it is compatible with antilock brakes (ABS).
Question: Bobtail proportioning valves _________ when the tractor is bobtailed.
Answer: A. reduce drive-axle braking
Explanation: A tractor's drive-axle brakes are designed to be powerful enough to handle a fully loaded trailer. However, a bobtail tractor doesn't have the weight of a trailer over the drive axles. This increases the chance that the powerful drive-axle brakes will lock the wheels when you brake the tractor. To help prevent this, bobtail proportioning valves significantly reduce drive-axle braking when the tractor is bobtailed.
Question: The air leakage rate for a straight truck or bus with the engine off and the service brakes released should not exceed
Answer: A. 2 psi per minute.
Explanation: To test the static air leakage rate, turn off the engine, release the parking brake (i.e., push the parking brake control knob in), and see how fast the air pressure drops. The air pressure should drop less than 2 psi in one minute for a single vehicle and less than 3 psi in one minute for a combination vehicle.
Question: Your dump truck has 4 axles, including one lift axle. Under federal regulations, how many brakes must it have?
Answer: A. 8
Explanation: A CMV has two foundation brakes per axle (one on each side). According to FMCSA, even a lift axle must have brakes when it is in contact with the roadway. Therefore, a truck with 4 axles must have 4 × 2 = 8 foundation brakes, even if one axle is a lift axle.
Question: What does caging a brake chamber do?
Answer: B. It disables the spring brake.
Explanation: If your vehicle's service brakes fail, the emergency (spring) brakes will activate and stop your vehicle. Then to tow your vehicle for repairs, it will be necessary to disable the spring brakes. A technician can manually compress or "cage" the spring in each spring brake chamber. Obviously, the vehicle will be undrivable at this point because it will have no working brakes at all.
Question: When should you disconnect the steering axle brakes?
Answer: B. Never
Explanation: It used to be thought that applying the steering axle brakes on a slippery surface might cause a front-wheel skid. However, more recent tests have shown that front-wheel braking is good under all driving conditions. Front-wheel skids from braking are unlikely even on ice. Therefore, always have front-wheel braking available. If you're driving an old truck equipped with a front brake limiting valve, leave the control set at "normal" to have normal stopping power. The front-wheel brakes provide about 12% of the total stopping power of a loaded combination vehicle.
Question: Every vehicle equipped with air brakes must have
Answer: C. a supply pressure gauge.
Explanation: Every vehicle with air brakes has a supply pressure gauge, which shows how much air pressure is in the air tanks. Some vehicles also have an application pressure gauge, which shows how much air pressure you are applying to the brakes. Older vehicles also had a manual front brake limiting valve, which allowed the driver to cut front brake air pressure in half as a way of preventing front-wheel skids. However, tests have shown that full front-wheel braking is safe.
Question: What is the most important reason to know which parts of the air brake system exhaust air?
Answer: B. Because it can be dangerous
Explanation: Compressed air may be exhausted from several different ports in the air braking system. This air travels at a very high speed from the vehicle and carries moisture, oil, dirt, and dust. It can be dangerous if it hits your eyes or ears. Know the location of all air exhaust ports so you can keep away from them, such as when you're draining the air tanks.
Question: When you release the service brakes after applying them, what happens to that compressed air?
Answer: A. It is exhausted from the system.
Explanation: Each time you release the brakes, some compressed air leaves the system and must be replenished by the air compressor.
Question: A slack adjuster may need adjustment if it moves more than ______ when you pull on it.
Answer: A. 1 inch
Explanation: The slack adjusters won't move if the parking brakes are on. To check the slack adjusters, park on level ground, chock the wheels, and then release the parking brakes. Use gloves and pull hard on each slack adjuster that you can reach. If a slack adjuster moves more than about one inch where the pushrod attaches to it, it probably needs adjustment.
Question: Which type of trailer can be towed before its service tanks are full?
Answer: B. (b) Spring brake priority
Explanation: Instead of providing air pressure to both the service brakes and the spring brakes at the same time, trailer brake subsystems give priority to one or the other. Trailers with spring brake priority supply compressed air to the spring brakes (to release them) before the service tanks have filled. Trailers with service brake priority fill the service tanks before supplying air to the spring brakes. When coupling your tractor to a trailer with service brake priority, you must wait until the service tanks are full before you can release the trailer's parking brakes. Trailers more than 25 years old were more likely to implement service brake priority. Today's modern trailers are more likely to implement spring brake priority. Ask your employer or a qualified person whether your trailer uses spring brake priority or service brake priority.
Question: The driver must be able to see a warning before air pressure in the service air tanks falls below
Answer: A. 55 to 60 psi.
Explanation: A low pressure warning signal visible to the driver must come on before the pressure in the service air tank falls below 55 psi (or one-half the air compressor governor cutout air pressure on older vehicles).
Question: Some air brake systems have an alcohol evaporator. What may happen if you don't keep the unit filled with alcohol?
Answer: A. Ice may form in the air storage tanks and cause the brakes to fail.
Explanation: Moisture in the warm, compressed air from the air compressor will condense as the air cools. In below-freezing temperatures, this moisture can freeze. Ice in the tanks and air lines can cause the brakes to stop working. Whenever the air compressor runs, the alcohol evaporator puts alcohol vapor into the air brake system to help prevent water in the lines or valves from freezing. (Alcohol has a lower freezing point than water.)
Question: Where is the air dryer located?
Answer: B. Between the compressor and the first air tank
Explanation: An air dryer may be installed in the compressor discharge line between the compressor and the first air tank. Its purpose is to remove water vapor and contaminants from compressor air before the air enters the first tank. The first tank has usually been the supply or "wet" tank, so called because moisture accumulated in that tank before the air flowed from there to the service tanks. However, today's air dryer technology is so effective that a "wet" tank may not be needed anymore. In a modern Air Dryer Integrated System (AD-IS®), the air compressor governor and the air dryer are combined into a single unit. Air from the air dryer goes directly into the primary and secondary service ("dry") tanks. There is no supply ("wet") tank.
Question: To apply the parking brakes, you need to do which of the following?
Answer: B. Evacuate the air from the brake chambers.
Explanation: In today's CMVs, you apply or release the parking brakes with the parking brake control on the dashboard. This is a diamond-shaped, yellow, push-pull control knob. To apply the parking brakes, pull out the knob to evacuate the air from each brake chamber, which will cause the spring brakes to come on.
Question: Before checking the free play of slack adjusters on S-cam brakes, you should
Answer: A. park on level ground, chock the wheels, and release the parking brakes.
Explanation: The slack adjusters won't move if the parking brakes are on. To check the slack adjusters, park on level ground, chock the wheels, and then release the parking brakes. Use gloves and pull hard on each slack adjuster that you can reach. If a slack adjuster moves more than about one inch where the pushrod attaches to it, it probably needs adjustment.
Question: In stab braking, you
Answer: C. press the brake pedal as hard as you can, release the brakes when the wheels lock, and apply the brakes again when the wheels start to roll.
Explanation: To stop with stab braking, brake hard, release the brakes once the wheels lock, and then brake hard once the wheels start to roll again. (Note that this method won't work if your vehicle has antilock brakes, because the wheels won't lock. Use controlled braking instead.)
Question: Before you drive a vehicle with a dual air brake system, the air pressure in each brake system should be at least
Answer: B. 100 psi.
Explanation: A dual air brake system has two separate air brake systems. Typically, the primary system operates the brakes on the rear axle(s), and the secondary system operates the brakes on the front axle (and possibly one rear axle). Before driving a vehicle with a dual air brake system, let the air compressor build up a minimum of 100 psi pressure in each of the two brake systems.
Question: Compressed air exhaust is
Answer: B. hazardous in direct exposure.
Explanation: The compressed air that is used in air brake systems can be hazardous if you get near it when it is being exhausted from the vehicle. Compressed air leaving the vehicle travels at a very high speed and carries moisture, oil, dirt, and dust. To avoid exposing yourself to it, learn about all the places where the compressed air can be exhausted from your vehicle (such as the exhaust ports of brake valves).
Question: A CMV's brakes are designed to withstand temperatures of up to
Answer: C. about 250 °C.
Explanation: Brakes are designed to withstand quite a lot of heat. The brake components can withstand temperatures up to about 250° C (482 °F) under hard braking.
Question: When draining the air tanks, you should drain the supply tank first. How can you tell which tank is the supply tank?
Answer: A. The dashboard air pressure gauges won't drop when it's drained.
Explanation: It may be difficult to visually identify the supply tank. Instead, remember that your dashboard air pressure gauges monitor the air pressure in the primary and secondary service tanks. (In some vehicles, there are two gauges, one for each service tank; in other vehicles, there is one gauge with two needles.) Draining the service tanks will cause the gauges to show a drop in air pressure in those tanks. The supply tank is the tank that does NOT drop the gauges when it's drained.
Question: How should you test your service brakes?
Answer: C. Brake firmly while slowly moving forward on level ground.
Explanation: To test the service brakes, wait to build up normal air pressure. Then move your vehicle forward slowly (at about 5 mph) and brake hard. Check whether your vehicle stops promptly without pulling to one side or the other.
Question: What is an advantage of automatic slack adjusters?
Answer: C. They help maintain correct pushrod stroke.
Explanation: An automatic slack adjuster automatically compensates for normal brake lining wear by adjusting pushrod stroke. Automatic slack adjusters should not normally require manual adjustment of pushrod stroke. However, they still require lubrication at regular intervals.
Question: When should you use the parking brake?
Answer: C. Whenever your vehicle is parked
Explanation: You should always use your parking brake except when the brakes are very hot or they are wet and at risk of freezing.
Question: If you must adjust an automatic slack adjuster that has a hexagonal (six-sided) adjusting bolt, you should first turn the adjusting bolt in which direction?
Answer: D. Clockwise until the bolt stops turning
Explanation: Adjusting an automatic slack adjuster is an emergency procedure that you should perform only if your brakes have failed on the road. Most automatic slack adjusters have a hexagonal (six-sided) adjusting bolt. For this type of slack adjuster, first turn the bolt clockwise until it stops turning. If the slack adjuster has a square adjusting bolt, first turn the bolt counterclockwise until it stops turning. Then with either type of bolt, back it off about half a turn in the opposite direction.
Question: Cracks in a brake drum or brake disc must not be longer than _______ the width of the friction area.
Answer: A. one-half
Explanation: During your walk-around inspection, check the brake drums or brake discs to be sure that no cracks are longer than half the width of the friction area.
Question: The brake pedal
Answer: D. controls the air pressure to operate the brakes.
Explanation: When you press the brake pedal in a CMV equipped with air brakes, the foot valve underneath the pedal opens to allow compressed air to flow to the brake chambers. The brake chambers exert mechanical force to operate the foundation brakes.
Question: Which of these statements is true of spring brakes?
Answer: D. They are not as strong as service brakes.
Explanation: Spring brakes start to drag as pressure drops to about 60 psi, and they release as pressure rises to about 60 psi. Yet a full service brake application can be 100 psi. The coil spring in most spring parking brake chambers can exert a force of between 1,500 and 2,000 pounds. With a full service brake application of 100 psi, a typical Type 30 brake chamber can produce a force of 30 × 100 = 3,000 pounds.
Question: You are driving down a steep downgrade. You have reached your "safe" speed of 40 mph. Now you should apply the service brakes until your speed drops to
Answer: B. 35 mph.
Explanation: On a steep downgrade, continuous application of the service brakes might cause them to fade (become less effective). Instead, apply your brakes sparingly as a supplement to engine braking. Select a "safe" speed. Let your vehicle reach this speed. Brake gently until you are going 5 mph slower. (In this case, with a "safe" speed of 40 mph, you should brake gently until your speed drops to 35 mph.) Then let your speed increase back to the "safe" speed. Keep varying your speed up and down this way. This technique is known as snub braking or snubbing.
Question: In wet, freezing weather, you notice that some of the brake linings in your parked trailer have gotten frozen to the brake drums. What should you do?
Answer: D. Tap on the brake drums.
Explanation: If a brake lining has gotten frozen to the brake drum, you should be able to free it by using a hammer to tap on the drum near the brake lining. Be careful not to hit the brake lining because you might damage it. Note that you may also need to free the other brake lining in that drum brake. If the valves or other parts of the air braking system are frozen, you may be able to get them unstuck by putting commercial air brake antifreeze (NOT pure methyl alcohol) into the trailer air supply (red) line. However, this will not free frozen brake linings.
Question: For semi-trucks, what is the most common cause of air loss in the semi-trailer?
Answer: A. Leaky glad hand seals
Explanation: Glad hands have rubber or urethane seals to form a tight connection and prevent air from escaping. The glad hands are constantly being connected and disconnected, so the seals tend to wear out over time. Leaky seals can cause loss of air pressure.
Question: Which of the following statements about antilock brakes (ABS) is true?
Answer: B. With ABS, you do emergency braking differently than without ABS.
Explanation: Without ABS, hard braking can lock the wheels, resulting in a skid. Therefore, to do emergency braking without ABS, you should use the "stab braking" method or the "controlled braking" method. With ABS, go ahead and brake hard; the ABS computer will prevent your wheels from locking.
Question: All vehicles with air brakes have
Answer: B. a supply pressure gauge.
Explanation: A supply pressure gauge is connected to a service tank (or possibly to both service tanks in a dual air brake system). It shows the amount of air pressure in the service tank.
Question: There is a two-way check valve connected to the primary and secondary service tanks. What does this valve do?
Answer: C. It supplies compressed air from the service tank with the highest pressure.
Explanation: A two-way check valve allows compressed air from two different sources to flow through the same air line. The valve will select the source with the higher pressure. In this case, a two-way check valve is connected to both the primary and secondary service tanks to always draw air from the tank with the higher pressure and send it to the parking brake control valve. This arrangement ensures that the higher pressure is available to release the spring parking brakes. It also ensures that the spring parking brakes will not activate if pressure is lost in just one of the two tanks.
Question: If 100 psi of air pressure is applied to a Type 30 brake chamber, what will the resulting pushrod force be?
Answer: B. 3,000 pounds.
Explanation: The most common type of air brake chamber in trucks and trailers is the Type 30. The type number gives the area of the diaphragm. Thus, the diaphragm in a Type 30 brake chamber has an area of 30 square inches. If a force of 100 psi (pounds per square inch) is applied to the diaphragm, the resulting pushrod force will equal 100 × 30 = 3,000 pounds.
Question: What is the most important thing you should do if the low air pressure warning signal comes on?
Answer: B. Stop and park safely.
Explanation: If the low air pressure warning comes on, there may be a leak in the system. Pull over and park your vehicle as soon as possible. If the air pressure drops too low, the spring brakes will come on automatically, which will stop your vehicle – but not necessarily in a safe way. Sudden application of the spring brakes while you're driving might result in a skid.
Question: Your vehicle has a dual air brake system. If a low air pressure warning comes on for the secondary system, what should you do?
Answer: A. Bring the vehicle to a safe stop and continue only after the system is fixed.
Explanation: A dual air brake system has two separate air brake systems. Typically, the primary system operates the brakes on the rear axle(s), and the secondary system operates the brakes on the front axle (and possibly one rear axle). If one of these two systems loses air pressure (causing the low air pressure warning), either the front or the rear brakes won't work properly. As a result, your vehicle's braking distance will increase. If this happens, stop your vehicle and get the system fixed.
Question: How many foundation brakes does a typical 18-wheel semi-truck have?
Answer: A. 10
Explanation: A CMV has two foundation brakes per axle (one on each side). A typical 18-wheeler has five axles: the steering axle, the two tandem drive axles, and the two tandem semi-trailer axles. Therefore, there are 5 × 2 = 10 foundation brakes on the vehicle. Note: According to FMCSA, even a lift axle must have brakes when it is in contact with the roadway.
Question: In a vehicle equipped with air brakes, what does the service line do?
Answer: C. It carries air from the foot brake or the trailer hand brake.
Explanation: Every vehicle equipped with air brakes has two air lines, the service line and the emergency line. The service line (also called the control line or signal line) carries air, which is controlled by the foot brake or the trailer hand brake. The harder you press the foot brake or pull the hand brake, the greater the pressure in the service line.
Question: What determines how effective the spring emergency brakes or the parking brakes are?
Answer: A. It depends on the adjustment of the service brakes.
Explanation: The braking power of spring brakes depends on the brakes being in adjustment. If the brakes are not adjusted properly, neither the service brakes nor the emergency or parking brakes will work right.
Question: At 55 mph on dry pavement, air brake lag adds about _______ to your stopping distance.
Answer: B. 32 feet
Explanation: 55 mph = 81 feet per second. Air brake lag typically lasts about 0.4 seconds. Therefore, the lag distance equals 81 feet per second × 0.4 seconds = 32 feet.
Question: The ABS malfunction light on the dashboard indicates a problem with your vehicle's ABS. What should you do?
Answer: A. Drive normally until the ABS is repaired.
Explanation: Losing the ABS function does not change the basic parts of your truck, so you will still have the same brakes that you have always had. Simply use them and get the ABS repaired as soon as possible.
Question: On a long or steep downgrade, your service brakes are only a supplement to
Answer: A. the braking effect of the engine.
Explanation: When you drive down long, steep downgrades, the braking effect of your engine is what's most important, and your service brakes are only a supplement to being in the proper low gear. They cannot compensate for your vehicle being in an unsafe high gear without putting too much pressure on your brakes.
Question: Which of the following statements about brakes are true?
Answer: B. The heavier the vehicle or the faster it's traveling, the more heat the brakes have to absorb to stop it.
Explanation: Brakes use friction to convert the kinetic energy of your vehicle into heat. A vehicle's kinetic energy is directly proportional to its weight and directly proportional to the square of its speed. If you increase your speed, your brakes will have to absorb much more heat to bring your vehicle to a stop.
Question: Can an air brake system include both an air dryer and an alcohol evaporator (injector)?
Answer: B. Yes, but only if the alcohol evaporator is located downstream from the air dryer.
Explanation: The air dryer contains a desiccant pack. A desiccant is a chemical agent designed to remove moisture. However, alcohol vapor from the alcohol evaporator (injector) can damage the desiccant. Hence, if an alcohol evaporator is installed, it must be located downstream from the air dryer.
Question: You do NOT need to drive slowly to avoid a rollover on
Answer: D. straight stretches of highway.
Explanation: Because of the risk of rollover, you should drive slowly in the following situations: on-ramps, off-ramps, corners, and quick lane changes. Try to avoid fast changes, though.
Question: Which of the following is NOT a part of inspecting the fifth wheel?
Answer: B. Checking the area around the vehicle
Explanation: Checking the area around the vehicle is part of the next step in coupling: "Check Area and Chock Wheels."
Question: Which of the following is NOT a step in backing your trailer?
Answer: D. Backing quickly, if the path is straight
Explanation: Backing quickly will leave you less time to correct issues. Slow and steady does it. Get out of the truck and look at your whole path. Then use all your mirrors to watch as you slowly back up, correcting any drift immediately.
Question: Which of the following off-tracks the most?
Answer: A. The rearmost trailer
Explanation: The farther back the wheels are, the more they off-track. The rearmost wheels (rear wheels on the rearmost trailer) off-track the most, which is why you must turn wide.
Question: What will happen if air doesn't flow all the way to the back?
Answer: C. Your brakes will not work properly.
Explanation: Air flow is responsible for all your brakes working properly, so if the air doesn't flow all the way to the back, your brakes will not work as they should.
Question: Compared with a regular five-axle tractor-trailer, how much more likely is the final trailer of a triple to roll over?
Answer: B. 3.5 times
Explanation: Because of rearward amplification, the last trailer of a triple is 3.5 times more likely to roll over.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of inspecting the sliding fifth wheel?
Answer: C. Making sure the crank handle is in place and safely secured
Explanation: Checking the crank handle is part of inspecting the landing gear, which you should do after inspecting the sliding fifth wheel.
Question: If you must back along a crooked path, which side should you back toward?
Answer: B. Driver's side
Explanation: It is always best to back on a straight path, but if you must back on a crooked path, back toward the driver's side because you can see more.
Question: What should you do if your vehicle gets stuck at a railroad crossing?
Answer: A. Leave the vehicle as quickly as possible and call 911.
Explanation: If you do happen to get stuck, immediately move away from the vehicle and then call 911. Do not stay in the vehicle, attempting to move it. Your life comes first.
Question: Trucks built since 1975 usually have
Answer: D. spring brakes.
Explanation: Trucks manufactured since 1975 have spring brakes. Those built before 1975 do not have spring brakes, just emergency brakes, which come on when either the trailer becomes disconnected or the air line supply knob is pulled out.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of testing the trailer's service brakes?
Answer: A. Putting the trailer air supply control in the "emergency" position
Explanation: Putting the trailer air supply control in the "emergency" position is part of testing the trailer's emergency brakes. The other three choices are part of checking the service brakes: Check, release, move forward slowly.
Question: What does the crack-the-whip effect cause?
Answer: C. Trailer overturning
Explanation: The crack-the-whip effect is caused by changing lanes too quickly. It can cause a trailer to overturn. Take lane changes slow and steady to stay safe.
Question: If there is a major leak in the _________, the tractor protection valve will close and the trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Answer: C. emergency line
Explanation: The trailer air supply valve (which is manually controlled by the red dashboard knob) senses air pressure in the supply (emergency) line. If air pressure in the supply line is lost, the trailer air supply valve will close automatically, and the resulting loss of air pressure in the tractor protection valve will cause it to close as well. And loss of pressure in the supply line will cause the trailer emergency (spring) brakes to come on.
Question: Which of the following is NOT true about an antilock braking system (ABS)?
Answer: B. It increases your normal braking ability.
Explanation: ABS neither increases nor decreases your braking ability. It just kicks in when your wheels are about to lock up and stops that from happening, making a skid less likely.
Question: Since what year have trucks been required to have antilock brake systems (ABS)?
Answer: C. 1998
Explanation: Trucks manufactured after March 1, 1998 have been required to have ABS to assist you if your wheels start to lock up. By keeping your wheels from locking up, ABS can lessen the risk of an accident.
Question: What is the proper following distance for a 60-foot vehicle traveling at 30 mph?
Answer: D. 6 seconds
Explanation: The formula for following distance is one second per 10 feet of vehicle + 1 second if you're traveling over 40 mph. For a 60-foot vehicle traveling at 30 mph, this is 60/10 = 6 seconds.
Question: Which of the following is NOT a part of raising the landing gear?
Answer: C. Using the high gear range (if available) to start raising the landing gear
Explanation: You should only switch to the high gear range once it is free of the landing gear weight. To start raising the landing gear, use the low gear range if available.
Question: Which of these statements is true?
Answer: B. Bobtail tractors can take longer to stop than fully loaded combination vehicles.
Explanation: When a combination vehicle is empty or lightly loaded, its braking distance increases. The very stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it very easy to lock the wheels. Likewise, "bobtail" tractors (tractors without semitrailers) can take longer to stop than a fully loaded tractor-trailer. Be very careful when driving a "bobtail" tractor.
Question: What is the first step in coupling a tractor-semitrailer?
Answer: C. Inspect the fifth wheel.
Explanation: All the choices here are part of the process of coupling a tractor-semitrailer. However, the first step is inspecting the fifth wheel. Then you can secure the tractor, check the trailer's height, and connect all the air lines.
Question: What percentage of truck driver deaths in crashes are the result of truck rollovers?
Answer: D. More than 50%
Explanation: More than half of truck driver deaths in crashes are the result of truck rollovers. To help prevent rollovers, keep your cargo low and centered rather than to one side, and drive slowly and carefully around turns. Lowering the center of gravity is even more important for combination vehicles than for straight trucks.
Question: Which of the following is part of securing the tractor?
Answer: B. Apply the parking brake and put the transmission in neutral.
Explanation: To secure your tractor during the coupling and uncoupling process, you must put your transmission in neutral and apply the parking brake. You check the trailer height and the alignment of the kingpin and fifth wheel in the next step in the process: "Check Trailer Height."
Question: Which of the following makes a rollover more likely?
Answer: B. Driving quickly around turns
Explanation: To help prevent rollovers, keep your cargo low and centered rather than to one side, and drive slowly and carefully around turns. Lowering the center of gravity is even more important for combination vehicles than for straight trucks.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of a trailer air line system?
Answer: C. Kingpin
Explanation: The trailer air line system consists of several parts, including the service air line, the emergency air line, the hose couplers (or glad hands), and the shut-off valves. The kingpin is part of the trailer coupling, not the trailer air line system.
Question: The rear wheels of which vehicle will off-track the most?
Answer: A. A 3-axle tractor towing two 27-foot trailers
Explanation: When any vehicle turns, its rear wheels will follow a shorter path than its front wheels. This is called off-tracking or "cheating." The longer the vehicle, the greater the difference. In a combination vehicle, the trailer's wheels will off-track more than the tractor's rear wheels. In a double or triple combination vehicle, the wheels of the last trailer will off-track the most.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of stopping a trailer skid?
Answer: B. Using the hand brake
Explanation: When braking hard, pay attention to the location of your trailer so you can immediately recognize if it has started to skid. Then stop using the brakes, including the hand brake, and allow the wheels to grip the road again.
Question: Which of the following are likely to get stuck at a railroad crossing?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The two types of combination vehicles most likely to get stuck at a railroad crossing are low-slung units (car carriers, lowboys, moving vans, etc.) and single-axle tractors that are pulling a long trailer with the landing gear set to accommodate a tandem-axle tractor. Be very careful when driving such vehicles at railroad crossings.
Question: Loss of air pressure in the emergency line causes
Answer: C. the trailer's emergency brakes to come on.
Explanation: The trailer air supply valve (which is manually controlled by the red dashboard knob) senses air pressure in the supply (emergency) line. If air pressure in the supply line is lost, the trailer air supply valve will close automatically, and the resulting loss of air pressure in the tractor protection valve will cause it to close as well. And loss of pressure in the supply line will cause the trailer emergency (spring) brakes to come on.
Question: What is the usual range at which the trailer air supply knob will pop out?
Answer: C. 20 –45 psi
Explanation: The typical range for the tractor protection valve control (also called the trailer air supply control) to pop out is 20-45 psi.
Question: What is the proper following distance for a 90-foot vehicle traveling at 50 mph?
Answer: B. 10 seconds
Explanation: The formula for following distance is one second per 10 feet of vehicle + 1 second if you're traveling over 40 mph. For a 90-foot vehicle traveling at 50 mph, this is 90/10 + 1 = 10 seconds.
Question: If you cannot make a right turn without swinging into another lane, what should you do?
Answer: A. Turn wide as you complete the turn.
Explanation: If you swing wide to the left before you turn right, another driver may try to pass you on your right, which can lead to a collision. Instead, start the right turn with the rear of your vehicle as close to the curb as possible and then turn wide as you complete the turn. This will deny drivers room on the right to try to pass you.
Question: In general, the higher your truck's center of gravity, the
Answer: A. easier it is to turn over.
Explanation: When you stack cargo high in a trailer, you raise its center of gravity, which makes the trailer more prone to rolling over. A fully loaded tractor-trailer is ten times more likely to roll over in a crash than an empty one.
Question: You supply air to the trailer tanks by
Answer: C. pushing in the trailer air supply control.
Explanation: On newer vehicles, the trailer air supply control is an eight-sided red knob on the dashboard of the tractor. The knob may be labeled "Pull to exhaust...Push to supply" or something similar. When you push the knob in, air will flow through the trailer's emergency air lines to charge the trailer air brake system.
Question: While you're driving a combination vehicle, the emergency air line breaks or gets pulled apart. Which of the following will happen?
Answer: A. The trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Explanation: The trailer air supply valve (which is manually controlled by the red dashboard knob) senses air pressure in the supply (emergency) line. If air pressure in the supply line is lost, the trailer air supply valve will close automatically, and the resulting loss of air pressure in the tractor protection valve will cause it to close as well. And loss of pressure in the supply line will cause the trailer emergency (spring) brakes to come on.
Question: When you turn suddenly while pulling doubles, which trailer is most likely to turn over?
Answer: B. The rear trailer is twice as likely to turn over as the tractor.
Explanation: Because of rearward amplification, the last trailer on a combination vehicle has the highest probability of rolling over. This is called the crack-the-whip effect.
Question: If you do not do the final air brake check for air leaks and fix them before driving,
Answer: A. your brakes might fail.
Explanation: On a combination vehicle, the brakes on the tractor and all trailers must work properly. If your combination vehicle is equipped with air brakes, check that air flows to all trailers and test both the trailer service brakes and the trailer emergency brakes.
Question: Which of these statements is true?
Answer: C. "Bobtail" tractors can take longer to stop than a combination vehicle loaded to the maximum gross weight.
Explanation: When a combination vehicle is empty or lightly loaded, its braking distance increases. The very stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it very easy to lock the wheels. Likewise, "bobtail" tractors (tractors without semitrailers) can take longer to stop than a fully loaded tractor-trailer. Be very careful when driving a "bobtail" tractor.
Question: You are uncoupling a trailer. After you shut off the trailer air supply and lock the trailer brakes, you should
Answer: C. back up gently to ease pressure on the fifth wheel locking jaws.
Explanation: When uncoupling, ease pressure on the fifth wheel locking jaws by backing up gently. (This will help you release the fifth wheel locking lever.) Then apply the parking brakes while the tractor is pushing against the kingpin.
Question: When you drive a set of doubles, which shut-off valve must be closed in the last trailer?
Answer: C. Rear
Explanation: The shut-off valve should be closed only at the rear of the last trailer so that air will flow to the brakes of all trailers but no farther.
Question: Which type of tractor-trailer has the greatest chance of a "crack-the-whip" rollover?
Answer: A. A tractor pulling three trailers
Explanation: The last trailer of a triple is 3.5 times more likely to roll over than a five-axle tractor. This is known as the crack-the-whip effect. When pulling a triple, increase your following distance, avoid sudden moves, and steer gently. At night, don't drive faster than your headlight range.
Question: A trailer is most likely to jackknife when it is
Answer: B. empty.
Explanation: The weight of a full load adds traction. An empty or lightly loaded trailer is more likely to jackknife than a fully loaded one.
Question: Where are the trailer's shut-off valves located?
Answer: B. In the rear
Explanation: The shut-off valves are located at the rear of a trailer, since that is where they must be located to service the air lines. The shut-off valves are open except in the last trailer, in which they are closed.
Question: What are the other names for the service air line?
Answer: A. Control line and signal line
Explanation: The service air line is also known as the control line or signal line.
Question: The air leakage rate for a combination vehicle with the engine off and the service brakes on should not exceed
Answer: A. 4 psi per minute.
Explanation: After the initial drop, the maximum acceptable leakage rates with the service brakes on are 3 psi per minute for single vehicles and 4 psi per minute for combination vehicles. If the leakage rate is higher, check for leaks and correct them.
Question: Air lines on a combination vehicle are often colored to keep them from getting mixed up. The emergency line is ____ ; the service line is ______.
Answer: C. red; blue
Explanation: To keep the air lines from being mismatched, they can be labeled with metal tags or color coded. Blue is used for the service lines, and red is used for the emergency lines. Couple the air lines of the same color.
Question: Under good driving conditions, you should leave at least one second of following distance behind the vehicle ahead of you for every ____ feet of your vehicle's length.
Answer: C. 10
Explanation: The recommended formula for following distance is one second per ten feet of vehicle length, plus an extra second if you're traveling over 40 mph.
Question: Which of these vehicles off-tracks the most?
Answer: B. A 5-axle tractor towing a 52-foot trailer
Explanation: When any vehicle turns, its rear wheels will follow a shorter path than its front wheels. This is called off-tracking or "cheating." The longer the vehicle, the greater the difference. In a combination vehicle, the trailer's wheels will off-track more than the tractor's rear wheels. In a double or triple combination vehicle, the wheels of the last trailer will off-track the most.
Question: When connecting the glad hands, you should press the two seals together with the couplers at what angle to each other?
Answer: A. 90 degrees
Explanation: When connecting the glad hands, press the two seals together with the couplers at a 90-degree angle to each other. A turn of the glad hand attached to the hose will join and lock the couplers.
Question: What does the emergency air line do?
Answer: A. It controls the emergency brakes on combination vehicles.
Explanation: The emergency air line is often colored red. It supplies air to the trailer air tanks and controls the emergency brakes on combination vehicles.
Question: You should not use the trailer hand valve while driving because
Answer: C. of the danger of making the trailer skid.
Explanation: The trailer hand valve (also known as a trolley valve or Johnson bar) controls only the trailer brakes, not the tractor brakes. If you apply it while you're driving, you'll brake the trailers but not the tractor. This can cause a skid or even a jackknife. Instead, use the foot brake, which sends air to the tractor brakes as well as the trailer brakes.
Question: You should use chocks when parking a trailer without spring brakes because
Answer: B. the brakes will fail if the air supply leaks away.
Explanation: If the trailer lacks spring brakes, make sure you chock the wheels whenever you park. If air pressure leaks away, the trailer's brakes will fail. Without chocks, the trailer could roll away.
Question: To unlock the fifth wheel, pull the release handle to the _______ position.
Answer: B. open
Explanation: When uncoupling, unlock the fifth wheel by raising the release handle lock and pulling the release handle to the open position. When you do this, keep your legs and feet well clear of the tractor's rear wheels in case the vehicle moves.
Question: If the brakes did not release when you pushed the trailer air supply valve, you should
Answer: A. check the air line connections.
Explanation: If you cross the emergency and service air lines, air will flow to the service line instead of the trailer air tanks. Air won't be available to release the spring brakes. Therefore, if the spring brakes don't release when you push the trailer air supply control, check the air line connections.
Question: When you get ready to back under the semi-trailer, you should line up
Answer: A. directly in front of the trailer.
Explanation: When you're ready to couple, position your tractor right in front of the trailer. If you were to back into the trailer at an angle, you might push it sideways and break the landing gear.
Question: You should not use the trailer hand valve to straighten out a jackknifing trailer, because
Answer: A. the brakes on the trailer wheels caused the skid in the first place.
Explanation: The trailer hand valve (also known as a trolley valve or Johnson bar) controls only the trailer brakes, not the tractor brakes. If you're already jackknifing because the trailer wheels locked up, applying the trailer brakes with the hand valve can make it even worse. Instead, stop braking. The rear wheels will start to roll again and you can steer to correct the skid.
Question: You should not back a tractor under a trailer until the whole air system is
Answer: A. at normal pressure.
Explanation: Before backing under a trailer during the coupling process, make sure that the air pressure is at normal levels so you'll be able to brake safely.
Question: The air leakage rate for a combination vehicle with the engine off and the service brakes released should not exceed
Answer: C. 3 psi per minute.
Explanation: To test the static air leakage rate, turn off the engine, release the parking brake (i.e., push the parking brake control knob in), and see how fast the air pressure drops. The air pressure should drop less than 2 psi in one minute for a single vehicle and less than 3 psi in one minute for a combination vehicle.
Question: A trailer with antilock brakes (ABS) is required to have
Answer: A. a yellow malfunction lamp on the left side.
Explanation: A trailer with ABS has a yellow malfunction lamp on either the left front corner or the left rear corner. Make sure you know where to look for it.
Question: When backing a tractor under a trailer, you should
Answer: C. always use the lowest reverse gear.
Explanation: When coupling, use the lowest reverse gear and back slowly to avoid hitting or damaging the kingpin.
Question: Semi-trailers made before 1975 that are equipped with air brakes
Answer: A. often do not have spring brakes.
Explanation: Trailers and converter dollies built before 1975 are not required to have spring brakes. Instead, they rely on emergency brakes that hold using air pressure. Because air pressure can leak away, always use wheel chocks when parking such vehicles.
Question: You wish to turn right from one two-lane, two-way street onto another. Your truck is too long to turn without swinging wide. You should turn as shown in path
Answer: C. B.
Explanation: If you swing wide to the left before you turn right, another vehicle may try to pass you on your right while you are turning. Instead, as shown in path B, make the right turn with the rear of your vehicle as close to the curb as possible and turn wide as you complete the turn. This will deny other vehicles enough room on the right to try to pass you.
Question: When coupling, the proper position of the fifth wheel is
Answer: C. tilted down toward the rear of the tractor.
Explanation: Before coupling, make sure that the fifth wheel is in the proper position. For one thing, it should be tilted down toward the rear of the tractor.
Question: How long does it take a typical tractor-trailer to clear a single railroad track? A double track?
Answer: B. It takes 14 seconds to clear a single track and more than 15 seconds to clear a double track.
Explanation: You can expect it to take more than 15 seconds for a typical tractor-trailer to clear a double track and at least 14 seconds to clear a single track.
Question: What gear should the tractor be in after you've uncoupled the trailer and are inspecting the trailer supports?
Answer: C. Neutral
Explanation: Before you inspect the trailer supports of the landing gear, secure the tractor by applying the parking brake and placing the transmission in Neutral.
Question: Compared with a straight truck or bus, there are _______ things to inspect in combination vehicles.
Answer: A. more
Explanation: There are more things to inspect on a combination vehicle than on a bus or straight truck. First, of course, there is the entire coupling system: the kingpin, the fifth wheel, etc. Next, there is the landing gear of each trailer. Finally, the air brake system is also more complicated than on a bus or straight truck, because compressed air must flow to all trailers so that both the tractor brakes and trailer brakes will work properly.
Question: When coupling a tractor-semitrailer, to test the trailer air brakes, you should place the tractor protection valve control in what position?
Answer: A. Normal
Explanation: To test the trailer air brake system, first charge it with air. Push in the red trailer air supply knob, or place the tractor protection valve control in the "normal" position. Wait until the air pressure reaches normal before you start your tests.
Question: What is the emergency air line for?
Answer: A. To engage the trailer brakes in case of air pressure loss
Explanation: The emergency air line has two main functions: (1) It supplies air to the trailer air tanks to keep the trailer brake system charged. (2) It controls the vehicle's emergency brakes. If air pressure in the emergency air line drops too low (say because of a bad leak or damage due to the trailer breaking loose), the trailer emergency brakes will come on. Also, the tractor protection valve will close to keep air from escaping from the tractor.
Question: More than half of all truck driver deaths are the result of
Answer: B. rollovers.
Explanation: More than half of truck driver deaths in crashes are the result of truck rollovers. A full load increases the weight on the truck, making a jackknife less likely. But a full load also raises the truck's center of gravity, making a rollover more likely. Furthermore, many of America's expressways are old, with curved exit ramps that don't have the banking needed for today's combination vehicles.
Question: While you are driving a combination vehicle, if the service line comes apart but the emergency line stays together, what will happen right away?
Answer: B. Nothing is likely to happen until you try to apply the brakes.
Explanation: If a leak has developed in the service line, air tank pressure may remain close to normal – until you try to brake. Then the air loss from the leak will cause the air pressure to drop quickly. If the air pressure drops far enough, the emergency brakes will come on.
Question: Before backing a combination vehicle, should you ever exit your vehicle?
Answer: C. Yes, if you're not sure of your path of travel.
Explanation: Backing a combination vehicle is potentially hazardous. Before you start to back up, check your intended path of travel. Exit the cab and walk around the vehicle. Check your clearance to the sides and overhead, in and near the path of your vehicle.
Question: When you are uncoupling a loaded trailer, lower the landing gear until it
Answer: C. makes firm contact with the ground.
Explanation: When uncoupling a loaded trailer, lower the landing gear until it makes firm contact with the ground. Then crank the landing gear in low gear for a few more turns – just enough to lift some weight off the tractor, but not so much that you lift the trailer off the fifth wheel. This will make it easier to unlatch the fifth wheel now and couple next time.
Question: When should you use the trailer hand valve to park a combination vehicle?
Answer: A. Never
Explanation: The trailer hand valve (also known as a trolley valve or Johnson bar) controls only the trailer brakes, not the tractor brakes. You can use it to test the trailer brakes. But don't use it as a parking brake, especially if the trailer lacks spring brakes. If a leak causes loss of air pressure, the trailer brakes will fail. Don't use the trailer hand valve while you're driving either. Braking the trailer and not the tractor can cause the trailer to skid.
Question: After you've supplied air to the trailer during the coupling procedure, make sure that the air lines are not crossed. How should you do this?
Answer: B. Apply and release the trailer service brakes while you listen for sounds.
Explanation: If you cross the air lines, supply air will be sent to the service line instead of the supply line and the trailer air tanks. Without a supply of air, the trailer service brakes won't work. Therefore, to make sure that the air lines aren't crossed, send air to the trailer brakes by pushing in the trailer air supply control (red knob). Let the pressure normalize. Then turn off the engine and try the trailer brakes. You should see and hear the brakes in action and then see the air pressure normalize again.
Question: Why must the fifth wheel plate be adequately greased?
Answer: C. To prevent steering problems
Explanation: One of the first steps in coupling a tractor to a trailer is to check that the fifth wheel skid plate is greased as required. If the fifth wheel plate is not properly lubricated, friction between the plate and the trailer apron could cause steering problems.
Question: A tractor with a(n) _______ trailer requires the shortest stopping distance.
Answer: C. fully loaded
Explanation: The weight of cargo helps the wheels get traction. When a combination vehicle is empty or lightly loaded, its braking distance increases. The very stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it very easy to lock the wheels.
Question: When you test the tractor protection valve, the red air supply control knob should go into the ________ position.
Answer: A. emergency
Explanation: To test the tractor protection valve, shut the engine off and step on and off the brake pedal several times to reduce the air pressure in the tanks. When the air pressure has fallen enough (typically into the range 20–45 psi), the trailer air supply control knob should pop out, or the valve control should go from the “normal” to the “emergency” position.
Question: If your vehicle is equipped with dummy couplers, why should you connect the glad hands to them?
Answer: A. It will keep dirt and water out of the lines.
Explanation: Some vehicles are equipped with "dead-end" or dummy couplers. When the air lines are not connected to a trailer, connect the glad hands to the dummy couplers to keep water and dirt out of the glad hands and air lines. If your vehicle doesn't have dummy couplers, you may be able to connect the glad hands to each other.
Question: What is a tractor jackknife?
Answer: B. When you lock the drive wheels on the tractor and the tractor spins out sideways as the trailer continues to push forward
Explanation: A jackknife is usually the result of a drive-wheel skid. The tractor's rear drive wheels lock, and the trailer starts to push the tractor sideways.
Question: You have a major leak in the service line, and you apply the brakes. Service air pressure will escape and cause the
Answer: B. trailer emergency brakes to come on.
Explanation: If air pressure in the emergency air line drops too low (say because of a bad leak in the service line), the trailer emergency brakes will come on. Also, the tractor protection valve will close to keep air from escaping from the tractor.
Question: After you have coupled the trailer, you should start to raise the landing gear by using
Answer: C. low gear.
Explanation: Start to raise the landing gear by using the low gear range (if the landing gear is so equipped). Then switch to the high gear range once the trailer supports are free of weight.
Question: You are coupling a tractor to a semi-trailer. You have backed up but are not yet under the semi-trailer. Before backing under the semi-trailer, you should hook up
Answer: A. the emergency and service air lines.
Explanation: Before backing under the trailer, you must lock the trailer brakes – which means that you first have to make sure that the trailer brakes are working. Connect the emergency and service air lines and test the trailer brakes.
Question: The service line
Answer: A. carries air to a relay valve that allows the trailer brakes to be applied quickly.
Explanation: The service line (also called the control line or signal line) carries air, which is controlled by the foot brake or the trailer hand brake. The service line is connected to relay valves that allow the trailer brakes to be applied more quickly. The relay valves send air to the brake chambers in response to the air pressure in the service line.
Question: You are coupling a tractor to a semi-trailer. You have connected the air lines. Before backing under the trailer, you should
Answer: C. supply air to the trailer system and then pull out the air supply knob.
Explanation: Before backing under the trailer, check that the trailer brakes are working and then lock the trailer brakes. Once you've attached the air lines, there are a number of checks you should make: Check the glad hand seals. Make sure that the air lines won't be caught or crushed when you back under the trailer. Charge the trailer air brake system and verify that it's working without significant air loss. Then set the trailer air supply control to shut off the air and put on the trailer emergency brakes.
Question: The best way to tell if your trailer has started to skid is to
Answer: A. see it in your mirrors.
Explanation: The earliest way to notice that your trailer is jackknifing is to see it swinging out in your mirrors.
Question: When you are uncoupling a loaded trailer, lower the landing gear until it
Answer: A. makes firm contact with the ground and takes some weight off the tractor.
Explanation: When uncoupling a loaded trailer, lower the landing gear until it makes firm contact with the ground. Then crank the landing gear in low gear for a few more turns – just enough to lift some weight off the tractor, but not so much that you lift the trailer off the fifth wheel. This will make it easier to unlatch the fifth wheel now and couple next time.
Question: If you have coupled with a semi-trailer, where should you put the front trailer supports before driving away?
Answer: A. Fully raised with the crank handle secured in its bracket
Explanation: Once you've coupled, raise the landing gear all the way up. If it's only partially raised, it could catch on something, such as the railroad tracks on a raised railroad crossing.
Question: Describe what the trailer air supply control does.
Answer: B. It is used to supply the trailer with air, shut the air off, and apply the trailer emergency brakes.
Explanation: On newer vehicles, the trailer air supply control is an eight-sided red knob on the dashboard of the tractor. The knob may be labeled "Pull to exhaust...Push to supply" or something similar. When you push the knob in, air will flow through the trailer's emergency air lines to charge the trailer air brake system. Pulling out the knob shuts off the flow of air and causes the trailer emergency brakes to come on.
Question: Here are two things that a driver can do to prevent a rollover: Keep the cargo as close to the ground as possible, and
Answer: C. go slowly around turns.
Explanation: Because of rearward amplification, a trailer is more likely to roll over than a tractor. And if you're pulling doubles or triples, the rearmost (last) trailer is even more likely to roll over. To reduce the risk of trailer rollover, steer gently and smoothly, especially if you're pulling a double or triple. Slow down before entering a curve or turn.
Question: You're driving a combination vehicle. You apply the service brakes, but there is a major leak in the service air line. If air pressures keep dropping,
Answer: C. the trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Explanation: If a major leak develops in the service line, you may not notice anything wrong – until you try to apply the service brakes. Then the air loss from the leak will lower the air tank pressure quickly. If it goes low enough, the trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Question: Why should you make sure that the fifth wheel plate is greased as required?
Answer: C. To prevent steering problems
Explanation: There shouldn't be any space between the upper and lower fifth wheel. However, friction could cause steering problems. To reduce friction, make sure that the fifth wheel plate is well lubricated as required.
Question: How much space should there be between the upper and lower fifth wheel after coupling?
Answer: B. None
Explanation: If there is space between the lower and upper fifth wheel after you have finished coupling, something is wrong. Perhaps the kingpin is on top of the closed fifth-wheel jaws, which could result in the trailer coming loose. Don't start to drive until you have identified and fixed the problem.
Question: While you check if the trailer is securely coupled to the tractor, the landing gear should be
Answer: B. slightly raised.
Explanation: After you've backed under the trailer and locked the kingpin into the fifth wheel, raise the landing gear slightly. Then with the trailer brakes still locked, gently pull the tractor forward to check that the trailer is locked onto the tractor.
Question: After you have connected the air lines to the trailer during the coupling process, you should place the tractor protection valve control in what position?
Answer: C. Normal
Explanation: To test the trailer air brake system, first charge it with air. To do this, push in the red trailer air supply knob, or (in older vehicles) move the tractor protection valve control from the "emergency" position to the "normal" position. Wait until the air pressure reaches normal before you check for crossed air lines.
Question: You cross the air lines when hooking up to an old trailer. What will happen?
Answer: B. If the trailer has no spring brakes, you will be able to drive away but you won't have trailer brakes.
Explanation: Trailers built before 1975 are not required to have spring brakes. If you cross the air lines when coupling such a trailer, you may have no air pressure to supply the trailer brakes. You'll be able to drive, but you won't be able to brake the trailer. Always test the trailer air brakes before you start to drive.
Question: If you're towing a trailer and its antilock braking system (ABS) fails, what should you do?
Answer: C. Drive normally and get it fixed later.
Explanation: Losing the ABS function does not change the basic parts of your truck, so you will still have the same brakes that you have always had. Simply use them and get the ABS repaired as soon as possible. There is no need to panic, unless your system shows other and more serious warnings.
Question: After connecting the air lines but before backing under the trailer, you should
Answer: A. supply air to the trailer system and then pull out the air supply knob.
Explanation: First, make sure that the trailer brakes are working properly. Before backing under the trailer, set the trailer air supply control to lock the trailer brakes. You do this by pulling out the red air supply knob (on newer vehicles) or moving the tractor protection valve control to the emergency setting.
Question: The fifth wheel locking lever is not locked after the jaws close around the kingpin. This means that
Answer: B. the coupling is not right and should be fixed before you drive the coupled unit.
Explanation: Don't drive the vehicle until you're sure that the coupling is correct. Check to make sure of the following: There is no space between the upper and lower fifth wheel, the fifth wheel jaws have closed around the shank of the kingpin, the locking lever is in the "lock" position, and the safety latch is in position over the locking lever. If anything isn't right, don't drive the vehicle until you've found and corrected the problem. If you drive it anyway, your trailer could come loose while you're driving.
Question: After you lock the kingpin into the fifth wheel, how should you check the connection?
Answer: C. Pull the tractor ahead gently with the trailer brakes locked.
Explanation: After you've backed under the trailer and locked the kingpin into the fifth wheel, raise the landing gear slightly. Then with the trailer brakes still locked, gently pull the tractor forward to check that the trailer is locked onto the tractor.
Question: After you supply air to the trailer, make sure the air lines are not crossed and the trailer brakes are working. This is done by
Answer: B. applying and releasing the trailer brakes and listening for brake sounds.
Explanation: After you've connected the air lines, double-check the connection and make sure the brakes are working. Shut off the engine so you can hear the brakes. Apply the brakes and listen for the sound of the brakes being applied. Release the brakes and listen for the hiss of escaping air.
Question: You are coupling a semi-trailer to your tractor but have not yet backed under it. The trailer is at the right height if
Answer: A. it will be raised slightly when the tractor is backed under it.
Explanation: Before backing the tractor under the trailer, adjust the landing gear to position the trailer at the proper height. The trailer should be just low enough that it will be raised slightly by the tractor when the tractor backs under it. If the trailer is too low, the tractor may hit and damage the trailer nose; if it's too high, it may not couple properly.
Question: Which statement best illustrates the "crack-the-whip" effect?
Answer: A. When you make a quick lane change or sudden movement of your steering wheel, the rear trailer tends to swing out. The force of the rear trailer becomes amplified, causing it to roll over.
Explanation: A sudden maneuver by the tractor may cause the rearmost (last) trailer to swing violently and possibly roll over. This is known as the crack-the-whip effect. It is caused by rearward amplification: The farther a trailer is from the tractor, the more likely it is to start swinging dangerously out of control.
Question: To stop a trailer skid, you should
Answer: A. release the brakes.
Explanation: Once you realize your vehicle is in a skid, you should release the brakes so that the wheels can grip the road again. The trailer will start to follow the tractor and straighten out.
Question: Glad hands are used to connect the
Answer: A. service and emergency air lines from the truck or tractor to the trailer.
Explanation: Each glad hand has a rubber seal to prevent air from escaping. To connect the glad hands, first clean the seals. Then press the two seals together with the glad hands at a 90-degree angle to each other.
Question: The trailer hand valve should be used
Answer: C. to test the trailer brakes.
Explanation: The trailer hand valve (also known as a trolley valve or Johnson bar) controls only the trailer brakes, not the tractor brakes. You can use it to test the trailer brakes. Don't use it while you're driving, though. If you apply it while you're driving, you'll brake the trailers but not the tractor, which can cause a skid. Instead, use the foot brake, which sends air to the tractor brakes as well as the trailer brakes.
Question: The air and electrical lines from the tractor to the trailer should be
Answer: B. secured but with enough slack for turns.
Explanation: During your walk-around inspection, make sure that the electrical and air lines are secure but have enough slack to stay attached and secure even when the vehicle is turning.
Question: You are driving a combination vehicle when the trailer breaks away, pulling apart both air lines. You would expect the trailer brakes to come on and
Answer: C. the tractor protection valve to close.
Explanation: The tractor protection valve keeps air in the tractor if the trailer breaks away or develops a bad leak. If air pressure drops too low in the service line, the tractor protection valve will close. This stops air from escaping from the tractor and lets air out of the trailer emergency line, causing the trailer emergency brakes to come on.
Question: Where should the tractor be when you inspect the landing gear after uncoupling the trailer?
Answer: C. With the tractor frame under the trailer
Explanation: After you've unlocked the fifth wheel, pull the tractor forward until the fifth wheel is out from under the trailer but the tractor frame is still under the trailer. This will prevent the trailer from falling onto the ground should the landing gear fail to support the trailer.
Question: When should you use chocks to park a trailer not equipped with spring brakes?
Answer: C. Always
Explanation: If there is a leak in the emergency air line, air will eventually leak out of the trailer air tank. If the trailer has air brakes but not spring brakes, the brakes will fail. Use chocks to prevent the trailer from rolling if its brakes fail.
Question: For coupling to be completed, the safety latch for the fifth wheel locking lever must be
Answer: B. over the locking lever.
Explanation: The safety latch should be in position over the fifth wheel locking lever. On some vehicles, you may have to position it manually.
Question: At night, when a vehicle is carrying a load that extends four feet or more beyond the rear of the body, there must be _______ at the extreme end of the load.
Answer: A. two red lights
Explanation: According to federal regulations, if the load projects more than 4 feet behind the rear of the vehicle, the end of the load must be marked as follows: (1) with two red flags, each 18 inches square, in the daytime; or (2) with two red lights at night. There are additional federal requirements on how to illuminate the rest of the load. US states may impose their own additional requirements on the transportation of oversized loads. You can learn about Illinois's detailed requirements by contacting the Illinois Department of Transportation or reviewing their webpage "Oversize/Overweight Permits" (http://idot.illinois.gov/doing-business/permits/Oversize-and-Overweight-Permits/index). [49 CFR 393.11], [49 CFR 393.87]
Question: The trailer hand valve works the trailer brakes. Which of these statements are true?
Answer: C. Both of these statements are true.
Explanation: The trailer hand valve (also known as a trolley valve or Johnson bar) controls only the trailer brakes, not the tractor brakes. You can use it to test the trailer brakes. Don't use it while you're driving, though. If you apply it while you're driving, you'll brake the trailers but not the tractor, which can cause a skid. Instead, use the foot brake, which sends air to the tractor brakes as well as the trailer brakes.
Question: The kingpin is locked into the fifth wheel, the front trailer supports are up, and the trailer is resting on the fifth wheel. Make sure that
Answer: C. there is enough clearance between the tractor frame and the landing gear to accommodate sharp turns.
Explanation: After you've coupled the trailer and fully raised the landing gear, check that there is enough clearance between the rear of the tractor frame and the landing gear so they won't make contact even on sharp turns.
Question: If there is a major leak in the brake line, the tractor protection valve will close and the trailer _______ brakes will come on.
Answer: C. emergency
Explanation: The tractor protection valve keeps air in the tractor if the trailer breaks away or develops a bad leak. If air pressure drops too low in the service line, the tractor protection valve will close. This stops air from escaping from the tractor and lets air out of the trailer emergency line, causing the trailer emergency brakes to come on.
Question: Before you back under a trailer, make sure that
Answer: A. the trailer brakes are locked.
Explanation: During coupling, before backing under the trailer, set the trailer air supply control to shut off the air and lock the trailer brakes. On newer vehicles, this control is an eight-sided red knob. You pull it out to shut off the air.
Question: Fully loaded tractor-trailers are
Answer: C. ten times as likely to roll over in a crash as empty rigs.
Explanation: When you stack cargo high in a trailer, you raise its center of gravity, which makes the trailer more prone to rolling over. A fully loaded tractor-trailer is ten times as likely to roll over in a crash as an empty one.
Question: If you must back a combination vehicle on a curved path, you should try to back
Answer: B. to the driver's side.
Explanation: If you must back your vehicle on a curved path, back toward the driver's side. You'll be able to watch the rear of your vehicle from your driver's-side window.
Question: How should you test the tractor-semitrailer connection for security?
Answer: B. Gently pull forward in low gear against the locked trailer brakes; then look at it carefully.
Explanation: After you've backed under the trailer and locked the kingpin into the fifth wheel, raise the landing gear slightly. Then with the trailer brakes still locked, gently pull the tractor forward to check that the trailer is locked onto the tractor.
Question: While you check if the rear trailer is securely coupled to the front trailer, the landing gear should be
Answer: C. slightly raised.
Explanation: After you've backed under the trailer and locked the kingpin into the fifth wheel, raise the landing gear slightly. Then with the trailer brakes still locked, gently pull the tractor forward to check that the trailer is locked onto the tractor.
Question: Which part of the kingpin should the locking jaws close around?
Answer: A. The shank
Explanation: Don't drive the vehicle until you're sure that the coupling is correct. Check to make sure of the following: There is no space between the upper and lower fifth wheel, the fifth wheel jaws have closed around the shank of the kingpin, the locking lever is in the "lock" position, and the safety latch is in position over the locking lever. If anything isn't right, don't drive the vehicle until you've found and corrected the problem. If you drive it anyway, your trailer could come loose while you're driving.
Question: You are driving with double trailers and must use your brakes to avoid a crash. For emergency braking, you should
Answer: C. use controlled or stab braking.
Explanation: Hard braking and turning at the same time is likely to cause a skid. You should brake in a way that will keep your vehicle in a straight line and allow you to turn if necessary. If you need to brake suddenly to avoid a crash, use controlled braking or stab braking (but don't use stab braking if your vehicle has antilock brakes).
Question: While you are driving, your emergency air line breaks or gets pulled apart. The loss of pressure will cause the
Answer: C. trailer emergency brakes to come on.
Explanation: With the loss of air pressure, the tractor protection valve will close and the trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Question: While you're driving a tractor-trailer, the emergency air line breaks or gets pulled apart. The resulting loss of air pressure will cause which of the following?
Answer: A. The trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Explanation: If the emergency (supply) air line breaks, the tractor protection valve will close to stop any more compressed air from leaving the tractor. Hence, the tractor's service brakes should still work. However, the loss of trailer air pressure from the ruptured line will cause the trailer emergency (spring) brakes to come on.
Question: An antilock braking system (ABS) is useful
Answer: A. whether it is on the tractor or the trailers.
Explanation: ABS can help prevent wheel locking regardless of whether it's on the tractor, the trailer, or both.
Question: The tractor protection valve is designed to close automatically when the air pressure falls into the pressure range specified by the manufacturer, typically
Answer: B. 20 to 45 psi.
Explanation: The tractor protection valve keeps air in the tractor or truck brake system should the trailer break away or develop a bad leak. The tractor protection valve is designed to close automatically when the air pressure falls into the range specified by the manufacturer, typically 20–45 psi.
Question: During uncoupling, you should disconnect the electrical cable and
Answer: A. hang it with the plug down.
Explanation: After you disconnect the electrical cable, hang it with the plug down to keep moisture or rain from getting into it.
Question: A combination vehicle's stopping distance is longest when it is
Answer: C. empty.
Explanation: Trucks brake best when they are used as they were designed: to carry a properly balanced load. When a combination vehicle is empty or lightly loaded, its braking distance increases. The very stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it very easy to lock the wheels.
Question: After having coupled the trailer to the tractor, you fully raise the trailer's landing gear. When the full weight of the trailer is resting on the tractor, you should check which of the following?
Answer: D. Both (a) and (c)
Explanation: When the full weight of the trailer is resting on the tractor, check for enough clearance between the landing gear and the rear of the tractor frame. (When the tractor turns sharply, it must not hit the landing gear.) Also check for enough clearance between the tops of the tractor tires and the nose of the trailer. (When the tractor turns sharply, the front part of the trailer must not hit the tractor's tires.)
Question: As part of your vehicle inspection test, if your vehicle is equipped with air brakes and has a trailer, you will inspect the air connections between the truck or tractor and the trailer. Make sure that the ________ are locked in place and free of damage or air leaks.
Answer: B. glad hands
Explanation: As part of your vehicle inspection test, if your vehicle is equipped with air brakes and has a trailer, you will inspect the air connections between the truck or tractor and the trailer. These connections are made with hose couplers (commonly called "glad hands" because they vaguely resemble shaking hands). These glad hands have rubber seals to form a tight connection and prevent air from escaping. Make sure that the glad hands are locked in place and free of damage or air leaks.
Question: On a trailer, where is the yellow antilock brake (ABS) malfunction lamp located?
Answer: C. On the left front or left rear corner
Explanation: On a trailer, the yellow ABS malfunction lamp is located on the left front or left rear corner. Make sure you know where to look for it.
Question: If you cannot make a right turn without entering another traffic lane, what should you do?
Answer: C. Turn wide as you complete your turn.
Explanation: To turn right, you may need to turn wide to help prevent the rear end of your vehicle from overrunning the curb. However, if you swing wide to the left before you turn right, another driver may try to pass you on your right, which can lead to a collision. Instead, start the right turn with the rear of your vehicle as close to the curb as possible and then turn wide as you complete the turn. This will deny drivers room on the right to try to pass you.
Question: When you're coupling a tractor to a trailer, why must the fifth wheel skid plate be greased as required?
Answer: C. To prevent steering problems
Explanation: One of the first steps in coupling a tractor to a trailer is to check that the fifth wheel skid plate is greased as required. If the fifth wheel plate is not properly lubricated, friction between the plate and the trailer apron could cause steering problems.
Question: You are coupling a trailer to a tractor. What do you check when making a visual check of the coupling?
Answer: B. Upper and lower fifth wheel, air lines, and electrical lines
Explanation: When making a visual check of the coupling, be sure to check the upper and lower fifth wheel, air lines, and electrical lines.
Question: To uncouple a loaded trailer, after the landing gear has made firm contact with the ground, you should
Answer: C. turn the crank a few more times to lift some weight off the tractor.
Explanation: After the landing gear has made firm contact with the ground, turn the crank in low gear a few more times to take some weight off the tractor, but not so much that you lift the trailer off the fifth wheel. This will make it easier to unlatch the fifth wheel and couple the trailer the next time.
Question: Combination vehicles take longer to stop when they are empty than when they are fully loaded, because
Answer: B. there is less traction.
Explanation: Trucks that are empty or only lightly loaded take longer to stop because the stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it easier to lock the wheels.
Question: Which of the following combination vehicles is most likely to roll over in a turn?
Answer: A. A triple 27-foot trailer
Explanation: Because of rearward amplification (causing the crack-the-whip effect), the last trailer in a combination vehicle has the highest probability of rolling over. The last trailer in a triple combination is more likely to roll over than the last trailer in a double combination.
Question: While coupling your tractor to a trailer, you have pushed in the trailer supply valve. You should not move the tractor until the whole air brake system is
Answer: B. at normal pressure.
Explanation: During the coupling process, after you have connected the tractor air lines to the trailer, push in the trailer air supply valve to fully charge the trailer air brake system with compressed air. Make sure that the trailer air brakes are working before you proceed with the rest of the coupling process.
Question: How do you supply air to the trailer air tank?
Answer: A. Push in the trailer air supply valve control.
Explanation: The control for the trailer air supply valve is an eight-sided red knob on the dashboard. You push the knob in to supply compressed air to the trailer air brake system. You pull the knob out to evacuate air from the trailer air brake system (which will set the trailer brakes).
Question: When you're not pulling a trailer, why should you connect the tractor glad hands to each other?
Answer: A. It will keep dirt and water out of the lines.
Explanation: Some vehicles are equipped with "dead-end" or dummy couplers. When the air lines are not connected to a trailer, connect the glad hands to the dummy couplers to keep water and dirt out of the glad hands and air lines. If your vehicle doesn't have dummy couplers, you may be able to connect the glad hands to each other.
Question: If your vehicle gets stuck on a railroad track, you should
Answer: B. get away from your vehicle and call 911 or the posted emergency number.
Explanation: A train traveling at 60 mph can take more than a mile to come to a complete stop. If your vehicle gets stuck on a railroad track, don't spend any time trying to free your vehicle. Get out of your vehicle and walk quickly at about a 45-degree angle to the tracks in the direction from which you expect trains to approach. That way, if your vehicle is hit, you won't be struck by flying debris. Call 911 or the telephone number on the railroad crossing sign for assistance.
Question: When you're coupling a trailer to a tractor, it's a good idea to check which of the following?
Answer: A. (a) The tractor is on level ground.
Explanation: When coupling a trailer to a tractor, it's a good idea to make sure that you're on a level surface free of dips or potholes. If you back the tractor over a large bump, dip, or pothole, you might damage something as you attempt to push the tractor underneath the trailer. On the other hand, the trailer itself need not be perfectly level. You want it to be aligned so that it will be raised slightly when the tractor is backed underneath it.
Question: On a double or triple vehicle, which wheels offtrack the most?
Answer: C. The rear wheels of the last trailer
Explanation: Off-tracking is defined as the different paths taken by the front and rear wheels in a turn. The longer the vehicle, the greater the difference will be. Thus, the wheels on the front trailer will offtrack more than the tractor's rear wheels, and the wheels on the rearmost trailer will offtrack most of all.
Question: To prevent rollover, cargo should be
Answer: C. spread evenly across the rig and as low as possible.
Explanation: More than half of truck driver deaths in accidents are the result of truck rollovers. The higher the truck's center of gravity, the more likely it is to roll over. If the cargo is to one side, it will make the trailer lean, which can also make a rollover more likely. To help prevent rollover, spread your cargo evenly and keep it as low as possible. Drive slowly around curves and turns.
Question: While coupling a trailer to a tractor, you must connect the emergency air line to
Answer: D. the trailer emergency glad hand.
Explanation: During the coupling process, after you've backed the tractor till it's touching the trailer and you've parked the tractor, it's time to connect the air lines. Connect the tractor emergency air line to the trailer emergency glad hand. Connect the tractor service air line to the trailer service glad hand.
Question: If the trailer has antilock brakes (ABS) but the tractor doesn't,
Answer: B. the trailer is still less likely to swing out.
Explanation: Even if only the trailer has ABS, there is less chance that its wheels will lock and it will swing out, though it can still happen. If it does, let up on the brakes until you regain control.
Question: If your test of the tractor protection valve is successful,
Answer: A. the tractor protection valve control (trailer air supply control) will pop out or go from "normal" to "emergency."
Explanation: When you test the tractor protection valve, the tractor protection valve control (also called the trailer air supply control) should pop out or go from the "normal" to the "emergency" position. This shows that the tractor protection valve has closed automatically to keep the air pressure from falling too far.
Question: A tractor towing _________ requires the shortest amount of stopping distance.
Answer: C. a fully loaded trailer
Explanation: Trucks brake best when they are used as they were designed: to carry a properly balanced load. Empty trucks actually have longer stopping distances than loaded trucks because they have less traction. The stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it easier to lock the wheels.
Question: What is the safest way for you to make a turn without entering another traffic lane?
Answer: B. You should turn wide as you complete the turn.
Explanation: To turn right, you must turn wide to help prevent the rear end from overrunning the curb. However, if you start the right turn by swinging wide to the left, another driver may try to pass you on your right while you are turning, which can lead to a collision. Instead, start the right turn with the rear of your vehicle as close to the curb as possible and then turn wide as you complete the turn. This will deny drivers room on the right to try to pass you.
Question: Low-slung vehicles can be risky at railroad crossings because
Answer: A. they are more likely to get stuck on raised railroad crossings.
Explanation: The two types of combination vehicles most likely to get stuck at a raised railroad crossing are low-slung units (car carriers, lowboys, moving vans, etc.) and single-axle tractors that are pulling a long trailer with its landing gear set to accommodate a tandem-axle tractor. Be very careful when driving such vehicles at railroad crossings.
Question: There are two things that a driver can do to prevent a rollover: Go slowly around turns, and
Answer: A. keep the cargo as close to the ground as possible.
Explanation: The higher the truck's center of gravity, the more likely it is to roll over. If the cargo is to one side, it will make the trailer lean, which can also make a rollover more likely. To help prevent a rollover, spread your cargo evenly and keep it as low as possible.
Question: When you're pulling doubles or triples, the shut-off valves should always be
Answer: C. open except for those on the last trailer.
Explanation: The shut-off valves are located at the rear of each trailer to allow you to stop the air flow there. If there is another trailer behind this one, open the valves to allow air to flow to that trailer; otherwise, close the valves.
Question: When you couple a trailer to a tractor, the trailer is at the right height when
Answer: C. the coupling surface of the trailer is just below the middle of the tractor fifth wheel.
Explanation: The tractor fifth wheel should tilt downward toward the trailer. As you start to back the tractor under the trailer, the coupling surface of the trailer should be just below the middle of the tractor fifth wheel.
Question: Before you start to uncouple, you must
Answer: B. make sure the ground is solid and can support the weight of the trailer.
Explanation: Before uncoupling the trailer, be sure you're leaving it on firm ground that can support its weight.
Question: To test the tractor protection valve, charge the trailer air brake system, turn off the engine, and
Answer: A. step on and off the brake pedal several times.
Explanation: To test the tractor protection valve, charge the trailer air brake system, turn off the engine, and lower the air pressure by stepping on and off the brake pedal several times. The tractor protection valve control (also called the trailer air supply control) should pop out (or go from the “normal” to the “emergency” position) when the air pressure falls into the range specified by the manufacturer (typically 20–45 psi).
Question: You can confirm that air is going to all brakes in your trailers by
Answer: A. opening the emergency line shut-off valve and then the service line valve at the rear of the last trailer and listening for air escaping each time.
Explanation: To check whether air is flowing to all trailers, go to the rear of the last trailer and open the emergency line shut-off valve there. If the entire system is charged, you should hear air escaping. Then close that valve and open the service line valve. Again, you should hear air escaping.
Question: Even before antilock braking systems (ABS) were required, some vehicles already had them. How can you check if your vehicle has ABS?
Answer: B. Look under the vehicle for the ECU and wheel speed sensor wires coming from the back of the brakes.
Explanation: You can tell if your vehicle has ABS by looking under the vehicle for the electronic control unit (ECU) and wheel speed sensor wires leading from the back of the brakes.
Question: After coupling, make sure that the air lines are not crossed. How should you do this?
Answer: C. Adjust the air supply knob to send air to the trailer brakes. Turn off the engine once the air pressure normalizes. Then listen for the sound of escaping air as the brakes are released.
Explanation: After coupling, make sure that the air lines are not crossed. To do this, send air to the trailer brakes by adjusting the "air supply" knob to normal. Let the pressure normalize. Then turn off the engine and test the brakes. You should see and hear the brakes in action and then see the air pressure normalize again.
Question: To drive a triple combination vehicle, you must have
Answer: A. a Class A CDL with a Doubles/Triples (T) endorsement.
Explanation: To legally pull a trailer whose gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) exceeds 10,000 pounds, you'll have to obtain a Class A CDL. To pull triples, you'll also have to obtain a Doubles/Triples (T) endorsement on your CDL. Note: If you don't also pass a knowledge test on air brakes, your CDL will include a restriction limiting you to driving only vehicles without air brakes.
Question: If you go into a trailer skid, should you apply the trailer hand brake?
Answer: C. No, because the brakes on the trailer wheels caused the skid to begin with.
Explanation: The trailer skid was caused by the brakes locking the wheels. Applying the trailer hand brake might make that even worse. Instead, release the brakes so the trailer wheels can roll again and regain traction.
Question: In normal driving, some drivers use the hand valve before the brake pedal to prevent a jackknife. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: B. It should not be done.
Explanation: The trailer hand valve (also known as a spike, a trolley valve, or a Johnson bar) controls only the trailer brakes, not the tractor brakes. If you apply it while you're driving, you'll brake the trailers but not the tractor. This can cause a trailer skid.
Question: Which of the following is part of securing the tractor?
Answer: C. Apply the parking brake and put the transmission in neutral.
Explanation: To secure your tractor during the coupling and uncoupling process, you must put your transmission in neutral and apply the parking brake. You check the trailer height and the alignment of the kingpin and fifth wheel in the next step in the process: "Check Trailer Height."
Question: If you cannot make a right turn without entering another traffic lane, what should you do?
Answer: A. Turn wide as you complete your turn.
Explanation:
Question: Air lines on a combination vehicle are often colored to keep them from getting mixed up. The emergency line is ____ ; the service line is ______.
Answer: B. red; blue
Explanation: To keep the air lines from being mismatched, they can be labeled with metal tags or color coded. Blue is used for the service lines, and red is used for the emergency lines. Couple the air lines of the same color.
Question: Which statement best illustrates the "crack-the-whip" effect?
Answer: B. When you make a quick lane change or sudden movement of your steering wheel, the rear trailer tends to swing out. The force of the rear trailer becomes amplified, causing it to roll over.
Explanation: A sudden maneuver by the tractor may cause the rearmost (last) trailer to swing violently and possibly roll over. This is known as the crack-the-whip effect. It is caused by rearward amplification: The farther a trailer is from the tractor, the more likely it is to start swinging dangerously out of control.
Question: When backing a tractor under a trailer, you should
Answer: C. always use the lowest reverse gear.
Explanation: When coupling, use the lowest reverse gear and back slowly to avoid hitting or damaging the kingpin.
Question: A trailer is most likely to jackknife when it is
Answer: A. empty.
Explanation:
Question: What gear should the tractor be in after you've uncoupled the trailer and are inspecting the trailer supports?
Answer: B. Neutral
Explanation: Before you inspect the trailer supports of the landing gear, secure the tractor by applying the parking brake and placing the transmission in Neutral.
Question: Which of the following is NOT a step in backing your trailer?
Answer: A. Backing quickly, if the path is straight
Explanation:
Question: If you go into a trailer skid, should you apply the trailer hand brake?
Answer: C. No, because the brakes on the trailer wheels caused the skid to begin with.
Explanation: The trailer skid was caused by the brakes locking the wheels. Applying the trailer hand brake might make that even worse. Instead, release the brakes so the trailer wheels can roll again and regain traction.
Question: Which of the following is NOT a part of raising the landing gear?
Answer: B. Using the high gear range (if available) to start raising the landing gear
Explanation: You should only switch to the high gear range once it is free of the landing gear weight. To start raising the landing gear, use the low gear range if available.
Question: When you're coupling a trailer to a tractor, it's a good idea to check which of the following?
Answer: A. (a) The tractor is on level ground.
Explanation:
Question: What is a tractor jackknife?
Answer: B. When you lock the drive wheels on the tractor and the tractor spins out sideways as the trailer continues to push forward
Explanation: A jackknife is usually the result of a drive-wheel skid. The tractor's rear drive wheels lock, and the trailer starts to push the tractor sideways.
Question: Under good driving conditions, you should leave at least one second of following distance behind the vehicle ahead of you for every ____ feet of your vehicle's length.
Answer: C. 10
Explanation: The recommended formula for following distance is one second per ten feet of vehicle length, plus an extra second if you're traveling over 40 mph.
Question: After connecting the air lines but before backing under the trailer, you should
Answer: A. supply air to the trailer system and then pull out the air supply knob.
Explanation:
Question: The trailer hand valve works the trailer brakes. Which of these statements are true?
Answer: C. Both of these statements are true.
Explanation: The trailer hand valve (also known as a trolley valve or Johnson bar) controls only the trailer brakes, not the tractor brakes. You can use it to test the trailer brakes. Don't use it while you're driving, though. If you apply it while you're driving, you'll brake the trailers but not the tractor, which can cause a skid. Instead, use the foot brake, which sends air to the tractor brakes as well as the trailer brakes.
Question: Describe what the trailer air supply control does.
Answer: A. It is used to supply the trailer with air, shut the air off, and apply the trailer emergency brakes.
Explanation:
Question: You wish to turn right from one two-lane, two-way street onto another. Your truck is too long to turn without swinging wide. You should turn as shown in path
Answer: B. B.
Explanation: If you swing wide to the left before you turn right, another vehicle may try to pass you on your right while you are turning. Instead, as shown in path B, make the right turn with the rear of your vehicle as close to the curb as possible and turn wide as you complete the turn. This will deny other vehicles enough room on the right to try to pass you.
Question: Why must the fifth wheel plate be adequately greased?
Answer: A. To prevent steering problems
Explanation:
Question: In general, the higher your truck's center of gravity, the
Answer: B. easier it is to turn over.
Explanation: When you stack cargo high in a trailer, you raise its center of gravity, which makes the trailer more prone to rolling over. A fully loaded tractor-trailer is ten times more likely to roll over in a crash than an empty one.
Question: Which of the following makes a rollover more likely?
Answer: B. Driving quickly around turns
Explanation: To help prevent rollovers, keep your cargo low and centered rather than to one side, and drive slowly and carefully around turns. Lowering the center of gravity is even more important for combination vehicles than for straight trucks.
Question: You are coupling a trailer to a tractor. What do you check when making a visual check of the coupling?
Answer: A. Upper and lower fifth wheel, air lines, and electrical lines
Explanation:
Question: Even before antilock braking systems (ABS) were required, some vehicles already had them. How can you check if your vehicle has ABS?
Answer: B. Look under the vehicle for the ECU and wheel speed sensor wires coming from the back of the brakes.
Explanation: You can tell if your vehicle has ABS by looking under the vehicle for the electronic control unit (ECU) and wheel speed sensor wires leading from the back of the brakes.
Question: To uncouple a loaded trailer, after the landing gear has made firm contact with the ground, you should
Answer: C. turn the crank a few more times to lift some weight off the tractor.
Explanation: After the landing gear has made firm contact with the ground, turn the crank in low gear a few more times to take some weight off the tractor, but not so much that you lift the trailer off the fifth wheel. This will make it easier to unlatch the fifth wheel and couple the trailer the next time.
Question: The air leakage rate for a combination vehicle with the engine off and the service brakes on should not exceed
Answer: C. 4 psi per minute.
Explanation: After the initial drop, the maximum acceptable leakage rates with the service brakes on are 3 psi per minute for single vehicles and 4 psi per minute for combination vehicles. If the leakage rate is higher, check for leaks and correct them.
Question: A tractor with a(n) _______ trailer requires the shortest stopping distance.
Answer: B. fully loaded
Explanation: The weight of cargo helps the wheels get traction. When a combination vehicle is empty or lightly loaded, its braking distance increases. The very stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it very easy to lock the wheels.
Question: A combination vehicle's stopping distance is longest when it is
Answer: B. empty.
Explanation: Trucks brake best when they are used as they were designed: to carry a properly balanced load. When a combination vehicle is empty or lightly loaded, its braking distance increases. The very stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it very easy to lock the wheels.
Question: You do NOT need to drive slowly to avoid a rollover on
Answer: B. straight stretches of highway.
Explanation: Because of the risk of rollover, you should drive slowly in the following situations: on-ramps, off-ramps, corners, and quick lane changes. Try to avoid fast changes, though.
Question: While you check if the rear trailer is securely coupled to the front trailer, the landing gear should be
Answer: C. slightly raised.
Explanation: After you've backed under the trailer and locked the kingpin into the fifth wheel, raise the landing gear slightly. Then with the trailer brakes still locked, gently pull the tractor forward to check that the trailer is locked onto the tractor.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of inspecting the sliding fifth wheel?
Answer: B. Making sure the crank handle is in place and safely secured
Explanation: Checking the crank handle is part of inspecting the landing gear, which you should do after inspecting the sliding fifth wheel.
Question: To drive a triple combination vehicle, you must have
Answer: B. a Class A CDL with a Doubles/Triples (T) endorsement.
Explanation: To legally pull a trailer whose gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) exceeds 10,000 pounds, you'll have to obtain a Class A CDL. To pull triples, you'll also have to obtain a Doubles/Triples (T) endorsement on your CDL. Note: If you don't also pass a knowledge test on air brakes, your CDL will include a restriction limiting you to driving only vehicles without air brakes.
Question: Before you start to uncouple, you must
Answer: B. make sure the ground is solid and can support the weight of the trailer.
Explanation: Before uncoupling the trailer, be sure you're leaving it on firm ground that can support its weight.
Question: You are coupling a semi-trailer to your tractor but have not yet backed under it. The trailer is at the right height if
Answer: C. it will be raised slightly when the tractor is backed under it.
Explanation: Before backing the tractor under the trailer, adjust the landing gear to position the trailer at the proper height. The trailer should be just low enough that it will be raised slightly by the tractor when the tractor backs under it. If the trailer is too low, the tractor may hit and damage the trailer nose; if it's too high, it may not couple properly.
Question: If the trailer has antilock brakes (ABS) but the tractor doesn't,
Answer: B. the trailer is still less likely to swing out.
Explanation: Even if only the trailer has ABS, there is less chance that its wheels will lock and it will swing out, though it can still happen. If it does, let up on the brakes until you regain control.
Question: When should you use the trailer hand valve to park a combination vehicle?
Answer: A. Never
Explanation:
Question: How should you test the tractor-semitrailer connection for security?
Answer: A. Gently pull forward in low gear against the locked trailer brakes; then look at it carefully.
Explanation:
Question: While you are driving a combination vehicle, if the service line comes apart but the emergency line stays together, what will happen right away?
Answer: C. Nothing is likely to happen until you try to apply the brakes.
Explanation: If a leak has developed in the service line, air tank pressure may remain close to normal – until you try to brake. Then the air loss from the leak will cause the air pressure to drop quickly. If the air pressure drops far enough, the emergency brakes will come on.
Question: After having coupled the trailer to the tractor, you fully raise the trailer's landing gear. When the full weight of the trailer is resting on the tractor, you should check which of the following?
Answer: D. Both (a) and (c)
Explanation: When the full weight of the trailer is resting on the tractor, check for enough clearance between the landing gear and the rear of the tractor frame. (When the tractor turns sharply, it must not hit the landing gear.) Also check for enough clearance between the tops of the tractor tires and the nose of the trailer. (When the tractor turns sharply, the front part of the trailer must not hit the tractor's tires.)
Question: When coupling a tractor-semitrailer, to test the trailer air brakes, you should place the tractor protection valve control in what position?
Answer: B. Normal
Explanation: To test the trailer air brake system, first charge it with air. Push in the red trailer air supply knob, or place the tractor protection valve control in the "normal" position. Wait until the air pressure reaches normal before you start your tests.
Question: You are driving with double trailers and must use your brakes to avoid a crash. For emergency braking, you should
Answer: A. use controlled or stab braking.
Explanation:
Question: Fully loaded tractor-trailers are
Answer: A. ten times as likely to roll over in a crash as empty rigs.
Explanation:
Question: When you test the tractor protection valve, the red air supply control knob should go into the ________ position.
Answer: C. emergency
Explanation: To test the tractor protection valve, shut the engine off and step on and off the brake pedal several times to reduce the air pressure in the tanks. When the air pressure has fallen enough (typically into the range 20–45 psi), the trailer air supply control knob should pop out, or the valve control should go from the “normal” to the “emergency” position.
Question: Loss of air pressure in the emergency line causes
Answer: A. the trailer's emergency brakes to come on.
Explanation:
Question: After you supply air to the trailer, make sure the air lines are not crossed and the trailer brakes are working. This is done by
Answer: C. applying and releasing the trailer brakes and listening for brake sounds.
Explanation: After you've connected the air lines, double-check the connection and make sure the brakes are working. Shut off the engine so you can hear the brakes. Apply the brakes and listen for the sound of the brakes being applied. Release the brakes and listen for the hiss of escaping air.
Question: When should you use chocks to park a trailer not equipped with spring brakes?
Answer: B. Always
Explanation: If there is a leak in the emergency air line, air will eventually leak out of the trailer air tank. If the trailer has air brakes but not spring brakes, the brakes will fail. Use chocks to prevent the trailer from rolling if its brakes fail.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of a trailer air line system?
Answer: A. Kingpin
Explanation:
Question: If your test of the tractor protection valve is successful,
Answer: A. the tractor protection valve control (trailer air supply control) will pop out or go from "normal" to "emergency."
Explanation:
Question: While coupling a trailer to a tractor, you must connect the emergency air line to
Answer: D. the trailer emergency glad hand.
Explanation: During the coupling process, after you've backed the tractor till it's touching the trailer and you've parked the tractor, it's time to connect the air lines. Connect the tractor emergency air line to the trailer emergency glad hand. Connect the tractor service air line to the trailer service glad hand.
Question: Which of the following is NOT a part of inspecting the fifth wheel?
Answer: C. Checking the area around the vehicle
Explanation: Checking the area around the vehicle is part of the next step in coupling: "Check Area and Chock Wheels."
Question: How long does it take a typical tractor-trailer to clear a single railroad track? A double track?
Answer: C. It takes 14 seconds to clear a single track and more than 15 seconds to clear a double track.
Explanation: You can expect it to take more than 15 seconds for a typical tractor-trailer to clear a double track and at least 14 seconds to clear a single track.
Question: You should not back a tractor under a trailer until the whole air system is
Answer: B. at normal pressure.
Explanation: Before backing under a trailer during the coupling process, make sure that the air pressure is at normal levels so you'll be able to brake safely.
Question: The fifth wheel locking lever is not locked after the jaws close around the kingpin. This means that
Answer: B. the coupling is not right and should be fixed before you drive the coupled unit.
Explanation: Don't drive the vehicle until you're sure that the coupling is correct. Check to make sure of the following: There is no space between the upper and lower fifth wheel, the fifth wheel jaws have closed around the shank of the kingpin, the locking lever is in the "lock" position, and the safety latch is in position over the locking lever. If anything isn't right, don't drive the vehicle until you've found and corrected the problem. If you drive it anyway, your trailer could come loose while you're driving.
Question: The tractor protection valve is designed to close automatically when the air pressure falls into the pressure range specified by the manufacturer, typically
Answer: A. 20 to 45 psi.
Explanation:
Question: After you lock the kingpin into the fifth wheel, how should you check the connection?
Answer: B. Pull the tractor ahead gently with the trailer brakes locked.
Explanation: After you've backed under the trailer and locked the kingpin into the fifth wheel, raise the landing gear slightly. Then with the trailer brakes still locked, gently pull the tractor forward to check that the trailer is locked onto the tractor.
Question: Where should the tractor be when you inspect the landing gear after uncoupling the trailer?
Answer: C. With the tractor frame under the trailer
Explanation: After you've unlocked the fifth wheel, pull the tractor forward until the fifth wheel is out from under the trailer but the tractor frame is still under the trailer. This will prevent the trailer from falling onto the ground should the landing gear fail to support the trailer.
Question: A tractor towing _________ requires the shortest amount of stopping distance.
Answer: B. a fully loaded trailer
Explanation: Trucks brake best when they are used as they were designed: to carry a properly balanced load. Empty trucks actually have longer stopping distances than loaded trucks because they have less traction. The stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it easier to lock the wheels.
Question: Which of the following off-tracks the most?
Answer: D. The rearmost trailer
Explanation: The farther back the wheels are, the more they off-track. The rearmost wheels (rear wheels on the rearmost trailer) off-track the most, which is why you must turn wide.
Question: Which of the following is NOT true about an antilock braking system (ABS)?
Answer: C. It increases your normal braking ability.
Explanation: ABS neither increases nor decreases your braking ability. It just kicks in when your wheels are about to lock up and stops that from happening, making a skid less likely.
Question: When you are uncoupling a loaded trailer, lower the landing gear until it
Answer: B. makes firm contact with the ground and takes some weight off the tractor.
Explanation: When uncoupling a loaded trailer, lower the landing gear until it makes firm contact with the ground. Then crank the landing gear in low gear for a few more turns – just enough to lift some weight off the tractor, but not so much that you lift the trailer off the fifth wheel. This will make it easier to unlatch the fifth wheel now and couple next time.
Question: Which of the following combination vehicles is most likely to roll over in a turn?
Answer: C. A triple 27-foot trailer
Explanation: Because of rearward amplification (causing the crack-the-whip effect), the last trailer in a combination vehicle has the highest probability of rolling over. The last trailer in a triple combination is more likely to roll over than the last trailer in a double combination.
Question: The air leakage rate for a combination vehicle with the engine off and the service brakes released should not exceed
Answer: B. 3 psi per minute.
Explanation: To test the static air leakage rate, turn off the engine, release the parking brake (i.e., push the parking brake control knob in), and see how fast the air pressure drops. The air pressure should drop less than 2 psi in one minute for a single vehicle and less than 3 psi in one minute for a combination vehicle.
Question: Where are the trailer's shut-off valves located?
Answer: C. In the rear
Explanation: The shut-off valves are located at the rear of a trailer, since that is where they must be located to service the air lines. The shut-off valves are open except in the last trailer, in which they are closed.
Question: Combination vehicles take longer to stop when they are empty than when they are fully loaded, because
Answer: B. there is less traction.
Explanation: Trucks that are empty or only lightly loaded take longer to stop because the stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it easier to lock the wheels.
Question: There are two things that a driver can do to prevent a rollover: Go slowly around turns, and
Answer: B. keep the cargo as close to the ground as possible.
Explanation: The higher the truck's center of gravity, the more likely it is to roll over. If the cargo is to one side, it will make the trailer lean, which can also make a rollover more likely. To help prevent a rollover, spread your cargo evenly and keep it as low as possible.
Question: If you have coupled with a semi-trailer, where should you put the front trailer supports before driving away?
Answer: A. Fully raised with the crank handle secured in its bracket
Explanation:
Question: To unlock the fifth wheel, pull the release handle to the _______ position.
Answer: B. open
Explanation: When uncoupling, unlock the fifth wheel by raising the release handle lock and pulling the release handle to the open position. When you do this, keep your legs and feet well clear of the tractor's rear wheels in case the vehicle moves.
Question: When you're pulling doubles or triples, the shut-off valves should always be
Answer: C. open except for those on the last trailer.
Explanation: The shut-off valves are located at the rear of each trailer to allow you to stop the air flow there. If there is another trailer behind this one, open the valves to allow air to flow to that trailer; otherwise, close the valves.
Question: What percentage of truck driver deaths in crashes are the result of truck rollovers?
Answer: D. More than 50%
Explanation: More than half of truck driver deaths in crashes are the result of truck rollovers. To help prevent rollovers, keep your cargo low and centered rather than to one side, and drive slowly and carefully around turns. Lowering the center of gravity is even more important for combination vehicles than for straight trucks.
Question: The best way to tell if your trailer has started to skid is to
Answer: B. see it in your mirrors.
Explanation: The earliest way to notice that your trailer is jackknifing is to see it swinging out in your mirrors.
Question: Which of the following are likely to get stuck at a railroad crossing?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The two types of combination vehicles most likely to get stuck at a railroad crossing are low-slung units (car carriers, lowboys, moving vans, etc.) and single-axle tractors that are pulling a long trailer with the landing gear set to accommodate a tandem-axle tractor. Be very careful when driving such vehicles at railroad crossings.
Question: While you're driving a combination vehicle, the emergency air line breaks or gets pulled apart. Which of the following will happen?
Answer: A. The trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Explanation:
Question: In normal driving, some drivers use the hand valve before the brake pedal to prevent a jackknife. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: A. It should not be done.
Explanation:
Question: When you turn suddenly while pulling doubles, which trailer is most likely to turn over?
Answer: C. The rear trailer is twice as likely to turn over as the tractor.
Explanation: Because of rearward amplification, the last trailer on a combination vehicle has the highest probability of rolling over. This is called the crack-the-whip effect.
Question: More than half of all truck driver deaths are the result of
Answer: C. rollovers.
Explanation: More than half of truck driver deaths in crashes are the result of truck rollovers. A full load increases the weight on the truck, making a jackknife less likely. But a full load also raises the truck's center of gravity, making a rollover more likely. Furthermore, many of America's expressways are old, with curved exit ramps that don't have the banking needed for today's combination vehicles.
Question: Which of these statements is true?
Answer: B. Bobtail tractors can take longer to stop than fully loaded combination vehicles.
Explanation: When a combination vehicle is empty or lightly loaded, its braking distance increases. The very stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it very easy to lock the wheels. Likewise, "bobtail" tractors (tractors without semitrailers) can take longer to stop than a fully loaded tractor-trailer. Be very careful when driving a "bobtail" tractor.
Question: While you are driving, your emergency air line breaks or gets pulled apart. The loss of pressure will cause the
Answer: C. trailer emergency brakes to come on.
Explanation: With the loss of air pressure, the tractor protection valve will close and the trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Question: If you're towing a trailer and its antilock braking system (ABS) fails, what should you do?
Answer: A. Drive normally and get it fixed later.
Explanation:
Question: When you couple a trailer to a tractor, the trailer is at the right height when
Answer: A. the coupling surface of the trailer is just below the middle of the tractor fifth wheel.
Explanation:
Question: You supply air to the trailer tanks by
Answer: C. pushing in the trailer air supply control.
Explanation: On newer vehicles, the trailer air supply control is an eight-sided red knob on the dashboard of the tractor. The knob may be labeled "Pull to exhaust...Push to supply" or something similar. When you push the knob in, air will flow through the trailer's emergency air lines to charge the trailer air brake system.
Question: What is the proper following distance for a 60-foot vehicle traveling at 30 mph?
Answer: A. 6 seconds
Explanation:
Question: When you get ready to back under the semi-trailer, you should line up
Answer: A. directly in front of the trailer.
Explanation:
Question: If you must back a combination vehicle on a curved path, you should try to back
Answer: B. to the driver's side.
Explanation: If you must back your vehicle on a curved path, back toward the driver's side. You'll be able to watch the rear of your vehicle from your driver's-side window.
Question: Which of these statements is true?
Answer: C. "Bobtail" tractors can take longer to stop than a combination vehicle loaded to the maximum gross weight.
Explanation: When a combination vehicle is empty or lightly loaded, its braking distance increases. The very stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it very easy to lock the wheels. Likewise, "bobtail" tractors (tractors without semitrailers) can take longer to stop than a fully loaded tractor-trailer. Be very careful when driving a "bobtail" tractor.
Question: You're driving a combination vehicle. You apply the service brakes, but there is a major leak in the service air line. If air pressures keep dropping,
Answer: B. the trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Explanation: If a major leak develops in the service line, you may not notice anything wrong – until you try to apply the service brakes. Then the air loss from the leak will lower the air tank pressure quickly. If it goes low enough, the trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Question: When you're not pulling a trailer, why should you connect the tractor glad hands to each other?
Answer: C. It will keep dirt and water out of the lines.
Explanation: Some vehicles are equipped with "dead-end" or dummy couplers. When the air lines are not connected to a trailer, connect the glad hands to the dummy couplers to keep water and dirt out of the glad hands and air lines. If your vehicle doesn't have dummy couplers, you may be able to connect the glad hands to each other.
Question: You are coupling a tractor to a semi-trailer. You have backed up but are not yet under the semi-trailer. Before backing under the semi-trailer, you should hook up
Answer: B. the emergency and service air lines.
Explanation: Before backing under the trailer, you must lock the trailer brakes – which means that you first have to make sure that the trailer brakes are working. Connect the emergency and service air lines and test the trailer brakes.
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of testing the trailer's service brakes?
Answer: A. Putting the trailer air supply control in the "emergency" position
Explanation:
Question: To prevent rollover, cargo should be
Answer: C. spread evenly across the rig and as low as possible.
Explanation: More than half of truck driver deaths in accidents are the result of truck rollovers. The higher the truck's center of gravity, the more likely it is to roll over. If the cargo is to one side, it will make the trailer lean, which can also make a rollover more likely. To help prevent rollover, spread your cargo evenly and keep it as low as possible. Drive slowly around curves and turns.
Question: While you're driving a tractor-trailer, the emergency air line breaks or gets pulled apart. The resulting loss of air pressure will cause which of the following?
Answer: C. The trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Explanation: If the emergency (supply) air line breaks, the tractor protection valve will close to stop any more compressed air from leaving the tractor. Hence, the tractor's service brakes should still work. However, the loss of trailer air pressure from the ruptured line will cause the trailer emergency (spring) brakes to come on.
Question: The kingpin is locked into the fifth wheel, the front trailer supports are up, and the trailer is resting on the fifth wheel. Make sure that
Answer: A. there is enough clearance between the tractor frame and the landing gear to accommodate sharp turns.
Explanation:
Question: To stop a trailer skid, you should
Answer: C. release the brakes.
Explanation: Once you realize your vehicle is in a skid, you should release the brakes so that the wheels can grip the road again. The trailer will start to follow the tractor and straighten out.
Question: You should use chocks when parking a trailer without spring brakes because
Answer: C. the brakes will fail if the air supply leaks away.
Explanation: If the trailer lacks spring brakes, make sure you chock the wheels whenever you park. If air pressure leaks away, the trailer's brakes will fail. Without chocks, the trailer could roll away.
Question: After you've supplied air to the trailer during the coupling procedure, make sure that the air lines are not crossed. How should you do this?
Answer: C. Apply and release the trailer service brakes while you listen for sounds.
Explanation: If you cross the air lines, supply air will be sent to the service line instead of the supply line and the trailer air tanks. Without a supply of air, the trailer service brakes won't work. Therefore, to make sure that the air lines aren't crossed, send air to the trailer brakes by pushing in the trailer air supply control (red knob). Let the pressure normalize. Then turn off the engine and try the trailer brakes. You should see and hear the brakes in action and then see the air pressure normalize again.
Question: While you check if the trailer is securely coupled to the tractor, the landing gear should be
Answer: B. slightly raised.
Explanation: After you've backed under the trailer and locked the kingpin into the fifth wheel, raise the landing gear slightly. Then with the trailer brakes still locked, gently pull the tractor forward to check that the trailer is locked onto the tractor.
Question: After you have coupled the trailer, you should start to raise the landing gear by using
Answer: B. low gear.
Explanation: Start to raise the landing gear by using the low gear range (if the landing gear is so equipped). Then switch to the high gear range once the trailer supports are free of weight.
Question: The service line
Answer: C. carries air to a relay valve that allows the trailer brakes to be applied quickly.
Explanation: The service line (also called the control line or signal line) carries air, which is controlled by the foot brake or the trailer hand brake. The service line is connected to relay valves that allow the trailer brakes to be applied more quickly. The relay valves send air to the brake chambers in response to the air pressure in the service line.
Question: During uncoupling, you should disconnect the electrical cable and
Answer: A. hang it with the plug down.
Explanation:
Question: To test the tractor protection valve, charge the trailer air brake system, turn off the engine, and
Answer: A. step on and off the brake pedal several times.
Explanation:
Question: When you drive a set of doubles, which shut-off valve must be closed in the last trailer?
Answer: A. Rear
Explanation:
Question: What are the other names for the service air line?
Answer: B. Control line and signal line
Explanation: The service air line is also known as the control line or signal line.
Question: Which type of tractor-trailer has the greatest chance of a "crack-the-whip" rollover?
Answer: B. A tractor pulling three trailers
Explanation: The last trailer of a triple is 3.5 times more likely to roll over than a five-axle tractor. This is known as the crack-the-whip effect. When pulling a triple, increase your following distance, avoid sudden moves, and steer gently. At night, don't drive faster than your headlight range.
Question: For coupling to be completed, the safety latch for the fifth wheel locking lever must be
Answer: B. over the locking lever.
Explanation: The safety latch should be in position over the fifth wheel locking lever. On some vehicles, you may have to position it manually.
Question: Before you back under a trailer, make sure that
Answer: B. the trailer brakes are locked.
Explanation: During coupling, before backing under the trailer, set the trailer air supply control to shut off the air and lock the trailer brakes. On newer vehicles, this control is an eight-sided red knob. You pull it out to shut off the air.
Question: If you do not do the final air brake check for air leaks and fix them before driving,
Answer: B. your brakes might fail.
Explanation: On a combination vehicle, the brakes on the tractor and all trailers must work properly. If your combination vehicle is equipped with air brakes, check that air flows to all trailers and test both the trailer service brakes and the trailer emergency brakes.
Question: Since what year have trucks been required to have antilock brake systems (ABS)?
Answer: D. 1998
Explanation: Trucks manufactured after March 1, 1998 have been required to have ABS to assist you if your wheels start to lock up. By keeping your wheels from locking up, ABS can lessen the risk of an accident.
Question: You are coupling a tractor to a semi-trailer. You have connected the air lines. Before backing under the trailer, you should
Answer: C. supply air to the trailer system and then pull out the air supply knob.
Explanation: Before backing under the trailer, check that the trailer brakes are working and then lock the trailer brakes. Once you've attached the air lines, there are a number of checks you should make: Check the glad hand seals. Make sure that the air lines won't be caught or crushed when you back under the trailer. Charge the trailer air brake system and verify that it's working without significant air loss. Then set the trailer air supply control to shut off the air and put on the trailer emergency brakes.
Question: What will happen if air doesn't flow all the way to the back?
Answer: D. Your brakes will not work properly.
Explanation: Air flow is responsible for all your brakes working properly, so if the air doesn't flow all the way to the back, your brakes will not work as they should.
Question: What is the emergency air line for?
Answer: A. To engage the trailer brakes in case of air pressure loss
Explanation:
Question: At night, when a vehicle is carrying a load that extends four feet or more beyond the rear of the body, there must be _______ at the extreme end of the load.
Answer: B. two red lights
Explanation: According to federal regulations, if the load projects more than 4 feet behind the rear of the vehicle, the end of the load must be marked as follows: (1) with two red flags, each 18 inches square, in the daytime; or (2) with two red lights at night. There are additional federal requirements on how to illuminate the rest of the load. US states may impose their own additional requirements on the transportation of oversized loads. You can learn about Illinois's detailed requirements by contacting the Illinois Department of Transportation or reviewing their webpage "Oversize/Overweight Permits" (http://idot.illinois.gov/doing-business/permits/Oversize-and-Overweight-Permits/index). [49 CFR 393.11], [49 CFR 393.87]
Question: If your vehicle gets stuck on a railroad track, you should
Answer: C. get away from your vehicle and call 911 or the posted emergency number.
Explanation: A train traveling at 60 mph can take more than a mile to come to a complete stop. If your vehicle gets stuck on a railroad track, don't spend any time trying to free your vehicle. Get out of your vehicle and walk quickly at about a 45-degree angle to the tracks in the direction from which you expect trains to approach. That way, if your vehicle is hit, you won't be struck by flying debris. Call 911 or the telephone number on the railroad crossing sign for assistance.
Question: After coupling, make sure that the air lines are not crossed. How should you do this?
Answer: A. Adjust the air supply knob to send air to the trailer brakes. Turn off the engine once the air pressure normalizes. Then listen for the sound of escaping air as the brakes are released.
Explanation:
Question: You cross the air lines when hooking up to an old trailer. What will happen?
Answer: A. If the trailer has no spring brakes, you will be able to drive away but you won't have trailer brakes.
Explanation:
Question: You can confirm that air is going to all brakes in your trailers by
Answer: A. opening the emergency line shut-off valve and then the service line valve at the rear of the last trailer and listening for air escaping each time.
Explanation:
Question: Why should you make sure that the fifth wheel plate is greased as required?
Answer: C. To prevent steering problems
Explanation: There shouldn't be any space between the upper and lower fifth wheel. However, friction could cause steering problems. To reduce friction, make sure that the fifth wheel plate is well lubricated as required.
Question: What is the proper following distance for a 90-foot vehicle traveling at 50 mph?
Answer: C. 10 seconds
Explanation: The formula for following distance is one second per 10 feet of vehicle + 1 second if you're traveling over 40 mph. For a 90-foot vehicle traveling at 50 mph, this is 90/10 + 1 = 10 seconds.
Question: What should you do if your vehicle gets stuck at a railroad crossing?
Answer: D. Leave the vehicle as quickly as possible and call 911.
Explanation: If you do happen to get stuck, immediately move away from the vehicle and then call 911. Do not stay in the vehicle, attempting to move it. Your life comes first.
Question: Trucks built since 1975 usually have
Answer: B. spring brakes.
Explanation: Trucks manufactured since 1975 have spring brakes. Those built before 1975 do not have spring brakes, just emergency brakes, which come on when either the trailer becomes disconnected or the air line supply knob is pulled out.
Question: You have a major leak in the service line, and you apply the brakes. Service air pressure will escape and cause the
Answer: C. trailer emergency brakes to come on.
Explanation: If air pressure in the emergency air line drops too low (say because of a bad leak in the service line), the trailer emergency brakes will come on. Also, the tractor protection valve will close to keep air from escaping from the tractor.
Question: If there is a major leak in the _________, the tractor protection valve will close and the trailer emergency brakes will come on.
Answer: A. emergency line
Explanation:
Question: What is the usual range at which the trailer air supply knob will pop out?
Answer: D. 20 –45 psi
Explanation: The typical range for the tractor protection valve control (also called the trailer air supply control) to pop out is 20-45 psi.
Question: Which of these vehicles off-tracks the most?
Answer: B. A 5-axle tractor towing a 52-foot trailer
Explanation: When any vehicle turns, its rear wheels will follow a shorter path than its front wheels. This is called off-tracking or "cheating." The longer the vehicle, the greater the difference. In a combination vehicle, the trailer's wheels will off-track more than the tractor's rear wheels. In a double or triple combination vehicle, the wheels of the last trailer will off-track the most.
Question: Low-slung vehicles can be risky at railroad crossings because
Answer: C. they are more likely to get stuck on raised railroad crossings.
Explanation: The two types of combination vehicles most likely to get stuck at a raised railroad crossing are low-slung units (car carriers, lowboys, moving vans, etc.) and single-axle tractors that are pulling a long trailer with its landing gear set to accommodate a tandem-axle tractor. Be very careful when driving such vehicles at railroad crossings.
Question: When connecting the glad hands, you should press the two seals together with the couplers at what angle to each other?
Answer: B. 90 degrees
Explanation: When connecting the glad hands, press the two seals together with the couplers at a 90-degree angle to each other. A turn of the glad hand attached to the hose will join and lock the couplers.
Question: Which part of the kingpin should the locking jaws close around?
Answer: A. The shank
Explanation:
Question: How much space should there be between the upper and lower fifth wheel after coupling?
Answer: A. None
Explanation:
Question: If your vehicle is equipped with dummy couplers, why should you connect the glad hands to them?
Answer: B. It will keep dirt and water out of the lines.
Explanation: Some vehicles are equipped with "dead-end" or dummy couplers. When the air lines are not connected to a trailer, connect the glad hands to the dummy couplers to keep water and dirt out of the glad hands and air lines. If your vehicle doesn't have dummy couplers, you may be able to connect the glad hands to each other.
Question: While coupling your tractor to a trailer, you have pushed in the trailer supply valve. You should not move the tractor until the whole air brake system is
Answer: A. at normal pressure.
Explanation:
Question: Here are two things that a driver can do to prevent a rollover: Keep the cargo as close to the ground as possible, and
Answer: A. go slowly around turns.
Explanation:
Question: On a double or triple vehicle, which wheels offtrack the most?
Answer: A. The rear wheels of the last trailer
Explanation:
Question: The rear wheels of which vehicle will off-track the most?
Answer: A. A 3-axle tractor towing two 27-foot trailers
Explanation:
Question: If you must back along a crooked path, which side should you back toward?
Answer: B. Driver's side
Explanation: It is always best to back on a straight path, but if you must back on a crooked path, back toward the driver's side because you can see more.
Question: After you have connected the air lines to the trailer during the coupling process, you should place the tractor protection valve control in what position?
Answer: B. Normal
Explanation: To test the trailer air brake system, first charge it with air. To do this, push in the red trailer air supply knob, or (in older vehicles) move the tractor protection valve control from the "emergency" position to the "normal" position. Wait until the air pressure reaches normal before you check for crossed air lines.
Question: If the brakes did not release when you pushed the trailer air supply valve, you should
Answer: B. check the air line connections.
Explanation: If you cross the emergency and service air lines, air will flow to the service line instead of the trailer air tanks. Air won't be available to release the spring brakes. Therefore, if the spring brakes don't release when you push the trailer air supply control, check the air line connections.
Question: What does the emergency air line do?
Answer: B. It controls the emergency brakes on combination vehicles.
Explanation: The emergency air line is often colored red. It supplies air to the trailer air tanks and controls the emergency brakes on combination vehicles.
Question: When coupling, the proper position of the fifth wheel is
Answer: B. tilted down toward the rear of the tractor.
Explanation: Before coupling, make sure that the fifth wheel is in the proper position. For one thing, it should be tilted down toward the rear of the tractor.
Question: An antilock braking system (ABS) is useful
Answer: A. whether it is on the tractor or the trailers.
Explanation:
Question: When you are uncoupling a loaded trailer, lower the landing gear until it
Answer: B. makes firm contact with the ground.
Explanation: When uncoupling a loaded trailer, lower the landing gear until it makes firm contact with the ground. Then crank the landing gear in low gear for a few more turns – just enough to lift some weight off the tractor, but not so much that you lift the trailer off the fifth wheel. This will make it easier to unlatch the fifth wheel now and couple next time.
Question: Semi-trailers made before 1975 that are equipped with air brakes
Answer: C. often do not have spring brakes.
Explanation: Trailers and converter dollies built before 1975 are not required to have spring brakes. Instead, they rely on emergency brakes that hold using air pressure. Because air pressure can leak away, always use wheel chocks when parking such vehicles.
Question: You are driving a combination vehicle when the trailer breaks away, pulling apart both air lines. You would expect the trailer brakes to come on and
Answer: C. the tractor protection valve to close.
Explanation: The tractor protection valve keeps air in the tractor if the trailer breaks away or develops a bad leak. If air pressure drops too low in the service line, the tractor protection valve will close. This stops air from escaping from the tractor and lets air out of the trailer emergency line, causing the trailer emergency brakes to come on.
Question: Before backing a combination vehicle, should you ever exit your vehicle?
Answer: A. Yes, if you're not sure of your path of travel.
Explanation:
Question: Glad hands are used to connect the
Answer: B. service and emergency air lines from the truck or tractor to the trailer.
Explanation: Each glad hand has a rubber seal to prevent air from escaping. To connect the glad hands, first clean the seals. Then press the two seals together with the glad hands at a 90-degree angle to each other.
Question: Compared with a regular five-axle tractor-trailer, how much more likely is the final trailer of a triple to roll over?
Answer: D. 3.5 times
Explanation: Because of rearward amplification, the last trailer of a triple is 3.5 times more likely to roll over.
Question: The trailer hand valve should be used
Answer: A. to test the trailer brakes.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following is NOT part of stopping a trailer skid?
Answer: B. Using the hand brake
Explanation: When braking hard, pay attention to the location of your trailer so you can immediately recognize if it has started to skid. Then stop using the brakes, including the hand brake, and allow the wheels to grip the road again.
Question: If you cannot make a right turn without swinging into another lane, what should you do?
Answer: B. Turn wide as you complete the turn.
Explanation: If you swing wide to the left before you turn right, another driver may try to pass you on your right, which can lead to a collision. Instead, start the right turn with the rear of your vehicle as close to the curb as possible and then turn wide as you complete the turn. This will deny drivers room on the right to try to pass you.
Question: You are uncoupling a trailer. After you shut off the trailer air supply and lock the trailer brakes, you should
Answer: C. back up gently to ease pressure on the fifth wheel locking jaws.
Explanation: When uncoupling, ease pressure on the fifth wheel locking jaws by backing up gently. (This will help you release the fifth wheel locking lever.) Then apply the parking brakes while the tractor is pushing against the kingpin.
Question: You should not use the trailer hand valve while driving because
Answer: C. of the danger of making the trailer skid.
Explanation: The trailer hand valve (also known as a trolley valve or Johnson bar) controls only the trailer brakes, not the tractor brakes. If you apply it while you're driving, you'll brake the trailers but not the tractor. This can cause a skid or even a jackknife. Instead, use the foot brake, which sends air to the tractor brakes as well as the trailer brakes.
Question: Compared with a straight truck or bus, there are _______ things to inspect in combination vehicles.
Answer: C. more
Explanation: There are more things to inspect on a combination vehicle than on a bus or straight truck. First, of course, there is the entire coupling system: the kingpin, the fifth wheel, etc. Next, there is the landing gear of each trailer. Finally, the air brake system is also more complicated than on a bus or straight truck, because compressed air must flow to all trailers so that both the tractor brakes and trailer brakes will work properly.
Question: What is the safest way for you to make a turn without entering another traffic lane?
Answer: A. You should turn wide as you complete the turn.
Explanation:
Question: What is the first step in coupling a tractor-semitrailer?
Answer: A. Inspect the fifth wheel.
Explanation:
Question: You should not use the trailer hand valve to straighten out a jackknifing trailer, because
Answer: B. the brakes on the trailer wheels caused the skid in the first place.
Explanation: The trailer hand valve (also known as a trolley valve or Johnson bar) controls only the trailer brakes, not the tractor brakes. If you're already jackknifing because the trailer wheels locked up, applying the trailer brakes with the hand valve can make it even worse. Instead, stop braking. The rear wheels will start to roll again and you can steer to correct the skid.
Question: On a trailer, where is the yellow antilock brake (ABS) malfunction lamp located?
Answer: C. On the left front or left rear corner
Explanation: On a trailer, the yellow ABS malfunction lamp is located on the left front or left rear corner. Make sure you know where to look for it.
Question: What does the crack-the-whip effect cause?
Answer: C. Trailer overturning
Explanation: The crack-the-whip effect is caused by changing lanes too quickly. It can cause a trailer to overturn. Take lane changes slow and steady to stay safe.
Question: The air and electrical lines from the tractor to the trailer should be
Answer: C. secured but with enough slack for turns.
Explanation: During your walk-around inspection, make sure that the electrical and air lines are secure but have enough slack to stay attached and secure even when the vehicle is turning.
Question: How do you supply air to the trailer air tank?
Answer: D. Push in the trailer air supply valve control.
Explanation: The control for the trailer air supply valve is an eight-sided red knob on the dashboard. You push the knob in to supply compressed air to the trailer air brake system. You pull the knob out to evacuate air from the trailer air brake system (which will set the trailer brakes).
Question: If there is a major leak in the brake line, the tractor protection valve will close and the trailer _______ brakes will come on.
Answer: B. emergency
Explanation: The tractor protection valve keeps air in the tractor if the trailer breaks away or develops a bad leak. If air pressure drops too low in the service line, the tractor protection valve will close. This stops air from escaping from the tractor and lets air out of the trailer emergency line, causing the trailer emergency brakes to come on.
Question: A trailer with antilock brakes (ABS) is required to have
Answer: C. a yellow malfunction lamp on the left side.
Explanation: A trailer with ABS has a yellow malfunction lamp on either the left front corner or the left rear corner. Make sure you know where to look for it.
Question: When you're coupling a tractor to a trailer, why must the fifth wheel skid plate be greased as required?
Answer: C. To prevent steering problems
Explanation: One of the first steps in coupling a tractor to a trailer is to check that the fifth wheel skid plate is greased as required. If the fifth wheel plate is not properly lubricated, friction between the plate and the trailer apron could cause steering problems.
Question: As part of your vehicle inspection test, if your vehicle is equipped with air brakes and has a trailer, you will inspect the air connections between the truck or tractor and the trailer. Make sure that the ________ are locked in place and free of damage or air leaks.
Answer: C. glad hands
Explanation: As part of your vehicle inspection test, if your vehicle is equipped with air brakes and has a trailer, you will inspect the air connections between the truck or tractor and the trailer. These connections are made with hose couplers (commonly called "glad hands" because they vaguely resemble shaking hands). These glad hands have rubber seals to form a tight connection and prevent air from escaping. Make sure that the glad hands are locked in place and free of damage or air leaks.
Question: If you are found to have a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of 0.02%, you will be placed out-of-service for
Answer: B. 24 hours.
Explanation: If your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is found to be 0.04% or more, you can be charged with driving under the influence (DUI). (An average 180-pound man may reach a BAC above 0.04% after drinking just two cans of beer.) Even if you are found to have any detectable amount of alcohol in your system under 0.04%, you will be placed out-of-service for 24 hours.
Question: When beginning a long downgrade, which of the following should NOT influence your choice of speed?
Answer: B. Your schedule
Explanation: You should handle the downgrade according to the conditions you are facing, not your schedule.
Question: The speed at which you drive should be determined by which of the following?
Answer: A. Your visibility
Explanation:
Question: All of the following behaviors are signs of aggressive driving EXCEPT
Answer: C. changing speeds frequently.
Explanation: Aggressive driving is driving in a selfish or pushy manner, which is dangerous enough. Road rage is even worse: intentionally driving to harm someone or physically assaulting someone in his or her vehicle. Examples of aggressive driving include tailgating, purposely straddling two lanes of traffic, purposely blocking another vehicle from changing lanes, and honking the horn to express annoyance, anger, or frustration. Examples of road rage include deliberately ramming another vehicle and exiting one's vehicle to directly confront another driver. However, there are legitimate situations in which a motorist may need to change speeds frequently, such as in heavy traffic or on winding roads.
Question: How does "bleeding tar" affect the road surface and driving conditions?
Answer: C. It makes the road slippery.
Explanation: On hot days, tar in the pavement can rise to the surface and create a slippery film on the road surface.
Question: Which of these statements about shipping hazardous materials is true?
Answer: C. A four-inch, diamond-shaped hazardous materials label must be on the container.
Explanation: The shipper must affix appropriate US DOT-compliant HazMat labels to the packages and supply the driver with the appropriate placards to attach to the vehicle. Both the labels and the placards are diamond shaped. [49 CFR 172.400], [49 CFR 172.407]
Question: When should you learn how a fire extinguisher works?
Answer: C. Before a fire happens
Explanation: If you don't know how to use a fire extinguisher to put out a fire, you could end up making things even worse. So be prepared. Before you drive, learn how your fire extinguisher works. Study the instructions printed on the fire extinguisher. Learn the procedures for using a fire extinguisher that are provided by your employer or are described in your CDL handbook.
Question: In winter, which of these systems should receive extra attention during an inspection?
Answer: A. Exhaust
Explanation:
Question: What should you do first when there's a fire?
Answer: A. Contain the fire
Explanation:
Question: To prevent skidding, you should
Answer: C. adjust to conditions while driving.
Explanation: To prevent a skid or a rollover, adjust your speed and driving style to fit current driving conditions. On slippery roads, avoid sudden moves.
Question: If you are found guilty of texting while driving a CMV, you will be fined up to
Answer: A. $2,750
Explanation:
Question: To avoid rolling backward when you start your vehicle, you should
Answer: A. partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake.
Explanation:
Question: What happens to tar in road pavement during hot weather?
Answer: C. It bleeds.
Explanation: In hot weather, asphalt (tar) can rise to the pavement surface ("bleed") to form a shiny, black surface film. Watch for such spots, because this film can be quite slippery.
Question: Which of these statements about using the steering wheel is true?
Answer: A. If you do not hold the steering wheel with both hands, it could pull out of your grasp.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these CDL tests can you fail and still be issued a CDL?
Answer: C. Neither of the above
Explanation: You must pass the knowledge test before you'll be allowed to take the skills test. The skills test consists of three parts: vehicle inspection, basic vehicle control, and on-road driving. You must pass each part before you'll be allowed to take the next part. You must pass all three parts before you can be issued a CDL.
Question: Which of these statements about engine overheating is true?
Answer: C. You should never remove the radiator cap on a pressurized system until the unit has cooled.
Explanation: Never remove the radiator cap or any part of the pressurized system until the system has cooled. Steam and boiling water can spray under pressure and cause severe burns. Antifreeze has both a relatively low freezing point and a relatively high boiling point, so it can keep your engine from overheating in warm weather.
Question: Your electronic daily log must contain which of the following entries?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Your daily log (which must be recorded on an electronic logging device) must include the following information for the past 24 hours: the date; the total miles you drove today; the vehicle number or license number for each vehicle you drove; the name, address, and time zone of the carrier you work for; the name of your co-driver if any; the total hours for each duty status; the locations at which your duty status changed; and for each shipment, either the shipping document number or the name of the shipper and the contents of the shipment.
Question: To pull away in snow or icy conditions, you should
Answer: D. accelerate very gradually and slowly.
Explanation: Excessive acceleration or braking can cause wheelspin and skids, especially in snow or ice. Careful, gradual, gentle acceleration can avoid this.
Question: What checks should you perform on the steering gear box?
Answer: B. The steering box should not be missing any nuts, bolts, or cotter keys.
Explanation: When you turn the steering wheel, the steering gear box translates the rotation of the steering column into the turning of the wheels on the steering axle. When you inspect the steering, check that the steering box is securely mounted; neither it nor the hoses connected to it are leaking; and no nuts, bolts, or cotter keys are missing.
Question: Which of these is true about driving in a tunnel?
Answer: B. There may be strong winds when exiting.
Explanation: Inside a tunnel, you don't feel the effect of crosswinds pushing you sideways. But once you emerge from the tunnel into an open space, the crosswinds will hit you. If your vehicle is traveling alongside another vehicle, there is some chance that the crosswinds will push one of the vehicles against the other.
Question: How can you avoid the effects that wet brakes can cause?
Answer: C. Both of the above answers are correct.
Explanation: If you must drive through water, slow down, shift into a low gear, and keep applying the brakes gently to prevent water, mud, or other contaminants from getting into the brakes.
Question: The road you are driving on becomes very slippery from glare ice. Which of the following should you do?
Answer: A. Stop driving as soon as you can safely do so.
Explanation:
Question: You'll be driving a tractor-trailer with tandem drive axles and tandem trailer axles. You're installing tire chains on the vehicle to cope with the bad winter weather. Which tires are legally required to be chained?
Answer: A. It depends on the state.
Explanation:
Question: You may be exempt from the Hours of Service regulations if you operate your CMV within _________ of your home terminal or yard.
Answer: B. 150 miles
Explanation: A short-haul driver is exempt from the Hours of Service regulations, if he or she meets all the following requirements: (1) the driver operates within a 150-mile radius of the driver's home terminal or yard; (2) the driver goes off duty within 14 consecutive hours of work; (3) each 14 hours on duty is followed by at least 10 off-duty hours for a truck driver or 8 off-duty hours for a bus driver; and (4) the driver's employer keeps accurate records of the driver's duty status for the next six months. [49 CFR 395.1]
Question: If you must stop on a road or the shoulder of any road, you must set out your emergency warning devices within
Answer: A. ten minutes.
Explanation:
Question: When backing, why is it important to have a helper?
Answer: B. There are blind spots you can't see.
Explanation: If you can, use a helper when backing up. Even with all your mirrors, there are still blind spots that you cannot see. The helper can stand near the rear of your vehicle and keep an eye on your blind spots. He or she can signal you to stop before an accident can occur.
Question: Most incidents of cargo theft occur between
Answer: D. Friday evening and Monday morning.
Explanation: One study found that from 2006 to 2010, about 68% of cargo theft incidents occurred on weekends (from Friday evening to Monday morning). During these times, warehouses and distribution centers are often closed, and drivers are more likely to leave their loads parked in unsecured locations.
Question: If you are being tailgated, you should
Answer: A. increase your following distance.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about managing space to the sides is true?
Answer: A. You should avoid traveling alongside other vehicles whenever possible.
Explanation:
Question: If you have to complete a vehicle inspection report, you must sign it
Answer: A. when any defects are noted.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about driving in bad weather is FALSE?
Answer: A. As rain continues, the road becomes more slippery than it was when the rain began.
Explanation:
Question: To safely adjust your speed to current driving conditions, what should you look for ahead?
Answer: B. Traffic and road conditions
Explanation: Driving too fast is a major cause of fatal crashes. You must adjust your speed to current driving conditions such as visibility, traction, traffic, curves, upgrades, and downgrades.
Question: How can you test the parking brake?
Answer: C. Set the parking brake and pull forward gently.
Explanation: The parking brake is meant to keep your vehicle from moving. The best way to test it is to apply the parking brake and then try to pull forward gently. The parking brake should hold your vehicle in place. If you're pulling one or more trailers, test each trailer's parking brakes in the same way.
Question: To correct a drive-wheel braking skid, you should
Answer: C. countersteer.
Explanation: To correct a drive-wheel braking skid, stop braking so the drive wheels will unlock. However, as your vehicle turns back on course, it may overshoot and start to skid in the opposite direction. Quickly countersteer to counteract this tendency.
Question: If you must take emergency action to deal with a hazard, you should remember which of the following?
Answer: C. To turn quickly, keep a firm grip on the steering wheel.
Explanation: In an emergency, stopping may not be the safest thing to do. The stopping distance of your vehicle at high speed can be longer than a football field. If you don't have enough room to stop, you may have to steer away from the hazard. Remember, you can almost always turn to miss an obstacle more quickly than you can stop. To turn quickly, you must have a firm grip on the steering wheel with both hands.
Question: Under federal regulations, if a vehicle is carrying a load that is more than two feet wide and extends more than four feet beyond the rear of the vehicle, _________ must be placed at the extreme end of the load.
Answer: C. two red flags
Explanation: Under federal regulations, if the load is more than two feet wide and extends more than four feet behind the rear of the CMV, two square red flags, each 18 inches square, must be placed at the end of the load. If the load is no more than two feet wide, one square red flag will suffice. There are additional requirements on illuminating the load at night. US states may impose their own additional requirements on the transportation of oversized loads. You can learn about Illinois's detailed requirements by contacting the Illinois Department of Transportation or reviewing their webpage "Oversize/Overweight Permits" (http://idot.illinois.gov/doing-business/permits/Oversize-and-Overweight-Permits/index). [49 CFR 393.11], [49 CFR 393.87]
Question: Which of the following is true about using a heater while you're driving in winter weather?
Answer: B. Before you drive, make sure that the cab heater is working.
Explanation: Make sure your vehicle is ready before you drive it in winter weather. Among other things, check that the cab heater is working, and make sure you know how to operate it. However, don't overuse the heater. An excessively warm cab can make you drowsy while you're behind the wheel, which is dangerous. Keep cool to stay alert. If you expect to use other heaters also (e.g., mirror heaters, battery box heaters, or fuel tank heaters), check their operation as well before you drive.
Question: If you must care for the injured at an accident scene, you should NOT
Answer: B. allow injured persons to become chilled.
Explanation: If qualified medical personnel are at the accident scene, stay out of their way unless they ask for help. If they haven't arrived yet, try to keep injured persons warm (but neither chilled nor overheated). Don't move them unless there is a danger of fire or another accident from passing traffic.
Question: Name two causes of fires.
Answer: B. Underinflated tires and dual tires that touch
Explanation: Tires that overheat can catch fire. Underinflation causes increased flexing of the tire, which increases tire temperature. Dual tires that touch each other or other parts of the vehicle can overheat due to friction.
Question: When you first approach your vehicle, which of these should you look out for?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Before doing anything with your vehicle, you should check for all potential hazards in the vicinity.
Question: Identify component P.
Answer: B. Spring hanger
Explanation: Component P is a spring hanger. Note: Your state CDL handbook misidentifies this part as a "front axle hanger."
Question: When transporting cargo, how often should you check the securement of the cargo?
Answer: B. Within the first 50 miles of the trip and then every 150 miles or every 3 hours, whichever comes first
Explanation: While the rules vary by jurisdiction, your state CDL handbook states that you should check your cargo within the first 50 miles of your trip and then every 3 hours or 150 miles, as well as after each break you take.
Question: Which of these statements about tires is true?
Answer: B. In very hot weather, you should inspect your tires every two hours or every 100 miles.
Explanation: In very hot weather, inspect your tires every two hours or every 100 miles. Each time, check the tire mountings and tire pressures. Tire air pressure increases with temperature, because air expands when its temperature rises. Do not let air out of the tire, or the pressure will be too low when the tire cools off. If a tire is too hot to touch, remain stopped until the tire cools off. Otherwise the tire may blow out or catch fire.
Question: Cargo that is not loaded or secured properly can cause which of the following problems?
Answer: C. Both of the above are correct.
Explanation: Cargo that is not secured properly can fall off your vehicle, possibly creating road hazards or injuring other road users. Loose cargo can move or shift forward in a quick stop or crash, possibly injuring you or your passengers.
Question: Your tractor-trailer is equipped with an 18-speed manual transmission. To reach gear 7L, the range selector should be in _____, and the splitter should be in _____.
Answer: B. HIGH; LOW
Explanation: For forward gears, the range selector switch (usually located on the front of the gear shifter) lets you switch between the low-range gears (Low, 1, 2, 3, 4) and the high-range gears (Low, 5, 6, 7, 8). Flip the range selector switch down for the low range and up for the high range. The splitter button (usually located on the left side of the gear shifter) lets you "split" each gear into a lower gear (L) and a higher gear (H). Move the splitter button backward for the lower gear and forward for the higher gear. Thus, for gear 7L, the range selector should be in HIGH (up), and the splitter should be in LOW (backward).
Question: At dawn or dusk, or in rain or snow, it can be hard to see and be seen. You can let others know you are there by
Answer: A. turning on the low-beam headlights.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following are true about an automated manual transmission (AMT)?
Answer: D. All of the above are true.
Explanation: An automated manual transmission (AMT) is designed rather like an ordinary manual transmission. That is, unlike an automatic transmission that usually employs a torque converter, an AMT employs gears mounted on shafts, and it shifts with the aid of a clutch. However, in an AMT, a computer controls various linkages to handle the clutching and gear shifting (there is no shifter stick), freeing the driver to focus more on the road. Some older AMTs used to come with a clutch pedal for manual shifting when starting or stopping. With today's AMTs sold in the United States, however, there is no clutch pedal, making the driving experience more like that of a fully automatic transmission.
Question: Blocking the cargo to keep it from shifting must be done
Answer: B. at the front, back, or sides of a piece of cargo.
Explanation: Blocking and bracing can prevent cargo from shifting. Use blocking and bracing to keep cargo from shifting in whichever directions it might move. Blocking fits snugly against cargo; bracing runs from the upper part of the cargo to the floor or walls of the cargo compartment.
Question: Where should you keep the shipping papers?
Answer: C. In a pouch on the driver's door
Explanation: Your life, and the lives of others, may depend on quickly locating the hazardous materials shipping papers. For that reason, you must identify shipping papers related to hazardous materials or keep them on top of other shipping papers. You must also keep shipping papers: in a pouch on the driver's door; or in clear view within reach while driving; or on the driver's seat when out of the vehicle.
Question: A driver's logbook
Answer: B. must be shown immediately if an officer requests it.
Explanation: If you're transporting hazardous materials, a law enforcement officer may stop you to inspect your vehicle. The officer may check your logbook (or electronic logging device), shipping papers, vehicle placards, and the HazMat endorsement on your CDL. If your logbook is not up to date, you may be cited and placed out-of-service for some specified amount of time.
Question: Why will your vehicle's speed naturally increase on downgrades?
Answer: A. Gravity
Explanation:
Question: The best way to stop all skids is to
Answer: B. restore traction to the tires.
Explanation: If braking or steering force exceeds the tires' traction with the road surface, a skid may result. You can recover from the skid by restoring sufficient traction.
Question: Why should you make sure to keep your vehicle in the middle of your lane?
Answer: D. To avoid drop-offs
Explanation: Many roads have drop-offs (sharp differences in elevation) at their edges. These can disrupt your steering or tilt your vehicle toward the side of the road so that it catches overhanging trees or wires. In fact, research has shown that a pavement drop-off of as little as 2 inches can cause loss of control when the driver attempts to return to the center of the lane. Leave a decent space from the edge of the road so you won't slip into a drop-off.
Question: Serious traffic violations that can cause your CDL to be suspended include
Answer: C. all of the above.
Explanation: You will lose your CDL for at least 60 days if you commit two serious traffic violations in a CMV within a three-year period. Some examples of serious traffic violations are excessive speeding (15 mph or more above the posted speed limit), reckless driving, erratic lane changes, and following too closely (tailgating).
Question: Which of these is true about notifying authorities after an accident occurs?
Answer: A. If you have a CB radio, use it to notify the police before you exit your vehicle.
Explanation:
Question: What does emergency braking mean?
Answer: B. Responding to a hazard by slowing your vehicle
Explanation: If a hazard appears in front of you, you may need to perform emergency braking to slow your vehicle. Depending on the situation, you may perform either controlled braking or (in a vehicle without ABS) stab braking. Note: Emergency braking does NOT mean pressing the brake pedal as hard as you can. That can lock the wheels and cause a skid.
Question: When must you wear a seat belt?
Answer: A. Whenever you're driving a CMV
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is the most serious reported problem with some GPS navigation devices?
Answer: C. They can make navigation errors.
Explanation: Federal, state, and local regulations can restrict the routes that CMVs can legally and safely take. A GPS navigation device or smartphone app that is designed for CMV operators can choose an allowable route, even avoiding grades and sharp curves that might be difficult for your vehicle. But for these features to work properly, you must input the weight and dimensions of your vehicle as well as whether it is carrying hazardous materials (which is why you shouldn't use Google Maps or a car navigation device or app). If you don't do this properly, the device or app may choose an inappropriate route. Plus, it's always possible for your device to mislead you anyway because of erroneous or out-of-date software. Don't depend entirely on your GPS navigator while you're driving. Double-check the route before you attempt to drive it.
Question: The key point in balancing cargo weight is to keep the load
Answer: C. centered.
Explanation: It's best to keep your cargo centered in the cargo area. Too much weight to the front can cause steering problems. Too much weight to the rear can reduce traction available to the drive wheels. Too much weight to one side increases the chance of a rollover.
Question: You should have at least one tie-down for every ____ feet of cargo.
Answer: D. 10
Explanation: The rule is one tie-down for every 10 feet of cargo. However, you must have a minimum of two tie-downs for any cargo, no matter how small.
Question: Before transporting a sealed load, you must check which of the following?
Answer: A. Your vehicle does not exceed weight restrictions.
Explanation:
Question: Extra care may be needed to keep your vehicle centered in your lane, because commercial vehicles
Answer: B. are often wider than other vehicles.
Explanation: You need to keep your vehicle centered in the lane to keep safe clearance on either side. If your vehicle is wide, you have little room to spare. Large commercial vehicles are wide and take up most of a lane. Many tractor-trailers are 8½ feet wide.
Question: During a pre-trip inspection, you discover an exhaust leak or power steering leak. You should
Answer: A. report the problem and make arrangements to use another vehicle.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these items is NOT checked on a pre-trip inspection?
Answer: C. Cab air conditioning
Explanation: During Step 4 (Turn Off Engine and Check Lights) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, check your headlights and four-way flashers. During Step 5 (Walk-Around Inspection), check that your cargo is secure and its weight is evenly distributed. While it's nice to be comfortable during your trip, checking the performance of the cab air conditioner isn't part of the Seven-Step Inspection Method.
Question: Dry bulk and hanging meat cargoes
Answer: C. are unstable loads.
Explanation: Dry bulk and hanging meat cargoes have high centers of gravity. Plus, hanging meat sways significantly when you're driving on a curve, making for a very unstable load.
Question: What does "axle weight" mean?
Answer: A. The weight transmitted to the ground by one axle or one set of axles
Explanation:
Question: Which federal agency is responsible for establishing national policies to help prevent hazardous materials incidents during transportation?
Answer: B. PHMSA
Explanation: The Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) isn't just about pipeline transport. PHMSA develops and enforces regulations for the safe, reliable, and environmentally sound transportation of energy products by pipeline and of hazardous materials by land, sea, and air. PHMSA establishes national policies, sets and enforces standards, educates, and conducts research to prevent hazmat incidents. PHMSA is also the agency that publishes the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG). (Note: This topic is not usually found in the official state CDL handbook.)
Question: In your duty log, times are normally calculated in
Answer: C. quarter hours.
Explanation: In your duty log, time is normally calculated in quarter hours or 15-minute intervals. However, for a short-duration status change (i.e., one lasting less than 15 minutes), draw a line from the status line, down to the Remarks section. You enter the location of the change, what the short change was, and how long it lasted.
Question: You should use your mirrors to check
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Before driving your vehicle, adjust your mirrors to show parts of your vehicle as well as what's around your vehicle. During your trip, you can use your mirrors to keep an eye on your tires and open cargo if any. When merging, use your mirrors to make sure the gap in traffic is large enough for you to enter safely.
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a cargo-carrying vehicle must go off duty after the driver has been on duty for
Answer: B. 14 consecutive hours.
Explanation: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a cargo-carrying vehicle must not drive after a period of 14 consecutive hours after coming on duty following 10 consecutive hours off duty. The driver may not drive for more than 11 hours during this on-duty period. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: In the context of trucking, what is drayage?
Answer: C. The short-haul part of intermodal transportation
Explanation: In intermodal transportation, "drayage" refers to short-haul transportation by truck as part of a longer distance. Typically, the truck hauls products from the shipper to a railroad car, where they are loaded onto the railroad car for long-haul shipment elsewhere. Or the reverse: goods transported by rail are then loaded onto a truck for "last-mile" delivery. "Dunnage" is all the loose materials used to support and protect cargo. "Outage" is the extra room allocated to liquid cargo to handle expansion as the liquid warms up.
Question: Which of these is NOT a proper use of vehicle lights?
Answer: A. Flashing your brake lights to stop someone from tailgating
Explanation:
Question: When driving through roadway work zones, you should
Answer: B. watch for sharp pavement drop-offs.
Explanation: Dramatic pavement drop-offs are common in work zones, but they can also occur elsewhere. If you stray too near the edge of a drop-off, your vehicle may tilt toward that side of the road, and the top of your vehicle may hit a roadside object. If your vehicle crosses the drop-off, steering will be adversely affected.
Question: Tire chains
Answer: A. should always be carried when driving in winter weather.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about speed management are true?
Answer: C. Both of the above statements are true.
Explanation: On a slippery road surface, your vehicle's wheels will have less traction and the vehicle's braking distance will increase significantly. On wet roads, reduce your speed by about one-third. On snow, reduce your speed by about one-half. On ice, slow down to a crawl and stop driving altogether if possible. (On ice, your vehicle's braking distance may increase tremendously.)
Question: Which of these statements is true about brakes?
Answer: B. Brakes absorb more heat to stop heavier vehicles.
Explanation: Brakes use friction to convert the kinetic energy of your moving vehicle into heat. However, overuse of the brakes (which can happen if you don't use engine braking enough) can generate so much heat that brakes can fade (lose their effectiveness) or fail.
Question: Which of these statements about truck safety belts is true?
Answer: D. None of the above are true.
Explanation: Many commonly held beliefs about safety belts are false, including all three here. To begin with, the large size of a semi-truck doesn't adequately protect the driver. In 2006, for example, 805 drivers and occupants of large trucks died in truck crashes, and 393 of them (49%) were not wearing safety belts. Of the 217 drivers and occupants who were killed and ejected from their vehicles, nearly 81% were not wearing safety belts. Fire or submersion occurs in less than 5% of fatal large truck crashes. Should your CMV catch fire or be submerged, it will take you at most one second to unhook your safety belt. The laws of physics make even relatively low-speed crashes dangerous. In a frontal crash at 30 mph, an unbelted driver will continue moving forward at 30 mph until he or she hits the windshield, unless the truck is equipped with a driver's-side airbag. Only some models of semi-trucks have driver's-side airbags, because it's still not a federal requirement. A final point: For large trucks, rollovers are among the deadliest of crashes. About half of fatalities in large trucks involve a rollover. But in a rollover, the driver is 80% less likely to die when wearing a safety belt. ["9 Myths About Safety Belts for Truck Drivers," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/9-myths-about-safety-belts-truck-drivers]
Question: If a straight truck goes into a front-wheel skid, it will
Answer: A. go straight ahead even if the steering wheel is turned.
Explanation:
Question: How many reflective warning triangles must you carry with you for emergencies?
Answer: C. 3
Explanation: Your truck's emergency equipment must include warning devices such as three reflective red triangles, three liquid burning flares, or six fusees.
Question: On the gear shifters of semi-trucks with 18-speed manual transmissions, the range selector is usually on the ______, and the splitter is usually on the ______.
Answer: B. front; left
Explanation: On shifters that have both a range selector and a splitter, the range selector is usually on the front, and the splitter is usually on the left. As you hold the shifter, your index finger can move the range selector up and down, and your thumb can move the splitter forward or backward.
Question: Identify component O.
Answer: C. Neither of the above
Explanation: Components N and O are bearing plates.
Question: If your vehicle catches fire, where should you pull over?
Answer: D. In an open area
Explanation: Keep a burning vehicle away from anything else that could catch fire. In particular, don't go near a service station; the truck fire could ignite gasoline.
Question: You must drive on a slippery road. Which of these is a good thing to do in such a situation?
Answer: A. Slow down gradually.
Explanation:
Question: When steering to avoid a crash, you should
Answer: A. not turn any more than necessary to clear what is in your way.
Explanation:
Question: Under federal regulations, the maximum allowable speedometer error of a CMV traveling at 50 mph is
Answer: A. plus or minus 5 mph.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following is correct?
Answer: A. Brake shoes should not be worn dangerously thin.
Explanation:
Question: When double clutching, what should you do if you have difficulty getting into the next gear?
Answer: B. Return to neutral, increase the engine speed to match road speed, and try again.
Explanation: If you have difficulty getting into the next gear, do NOT try to force it. Instead, return to neutral, release the clutch, increase the engine speed to match road speed, and try again.
Question: You're driving a loaded truck. How can you maintain your personal safety at truck stops?
Answer: D. Do all of the above.
Explanation: Sadly, the valuable cargo that you're carrying makes you a target for criminals. Take a variety of steps to ensure your safety at truck stops. First, study reviews of truck stops written by other drivers, and try to avoid truck stops that have been reported as dangerous. At a truck stop, park in a well-lit area, and lock the cab doors and cargo doors on your vehicle. Hide valuables in the cab from view. Let your carrier know where you'll be staying. Don't talk about the cargo that you're carrying; some criminal might overhear you. ["Truck Stop Guide: Safety Tips and Tricks for Truckers," LubeZone, August 4, 2021]
Question: As a driver's blood alcohol concentration (BAC) rises, what happens?
Answer: B. The driver's chances of an accident increase.
Explanation: As a driver's blood alcohol concentration (BAC) increases, the driver is less and less capable of driving safely. At a BAC of 0.05%, the driver's coordination starts to become impaired. At 0.08%, there is definite impairment of judgment and coordination. At 0.10%, the driver's reaction time increases. At 0.30%, there is a good chance that the driver will pass out.
Question: Which of these statements about controlling your vehicle's speed is true?
Answer: C. Choose a speed that lets you stop within the distance you can see ahead.
Explanation: Always drive at a speed that lets you stop within the distance that you can see ahead. Otherwise, by the time you notice a hazard, you won't have enough time to stop to avoid it. When you increase your speed, your braking distance increases as the square of the speed increase. For example, if you double your speed, your braking distance will be four times as great. Empty trucks require greater stopping distances than loaded trucks because an empty vehicle has less traction.
Question: What is the best way to know what another driver is doing?
Answer: B. Watch the driver's head and body movements.
Explanation: Drivers may forget to signal, but they rarely fail to look where they are going. If you're close enough to observe another driver's head and body movements, you may pick up valuable clues about the driver's next action.
Question: Your vehicle has hydraulic brakes. While traveling on a level road, you press the brake pedal and find that it goes to the floor. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: C. Pumping the brake pedal may raise hydraulic pressure so you can stop the vehicle.
Explanation: If you lose hydraulic pressure, the brake pedal will feel spongy or go to the floor. Try pumping the brake pedal. This may generate enough hydraulic pressure that you can stop your vehicle. Also try shifting into a low gear to slow your vehicle. If these methods fail, try to apply the parking or emergency brake (but be prepared to release it before the wheels lock). The parking or emergency brake is separate from the hydraulic brake system, so it should still work.
Question: Under federal regulations, what is the maximum tandem axle weight rating for axles that are spaced up to 96 inches apart?
Answer: C. 34,000 pounds
Explanation: Federal regulations impose maximum weight limits on CMVs traveling on interstate highways. The maximum allowable Gross Combination Weight Rating (GCWR) is 80,000 pounds. The single axle weight rating is 20,000 pounds, and the tandem axle weight rating is 34,000 pounds for typical tandem axles that are spaced 40 to 96 inches apart, from center to center. For tandem axles spaced 97 inches apart, the axle weight rating is 38,000 pounds. The tridem axle, or three-axle, weight rating is 42,000 pounds if the outermost two axles are 97 inches apart.
Question: What is the definition of Working Load Limit (WLL)?
Answer: A. The Working Load Limit is the maximum load that may be applied to a component of a cargo securement system during normal service. It is usually assigned by the manufacturer of the component.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following best describes how sleep debt can be paid off?
Answer: A. It can only be paid off by sleeping.
Explanation:
Question: Approximately ________ of train-vehicle collisions have involved a CMV.
Answer: C. one-fourth
Explanation: In 2020, there were 1,900 crashes at railroad crossings in the United States. These included 437 crashes of CMVs at railroad crossings. This means 23% of all train-vehicle crashes involved a CMV.
Question: While you're driving a truck at a smooth speed, the oil pressure gauge should read
Answer: A. 35 to 75 psi.
Explanation:
Question: What is your most valuable way to see the sides and rear while driving?
Answer: B. Check your mirrors regularly.
Explanation: To find out what's happening behind and to the sides of your vehicle, check your mirrors frequently. Before driving your vehicle, adjust your mirrors to show parts of your vehicle as well as what's around your vehicle.
Question: To secure a metal coil weighing at least 5,000 pounds with its eye vertical on a flatbed truck, at least _____ tiedowns must be used.
Answer: B. 3
Explanation: To transport an individual metal coil (weighing at least 5,000 pounds) with its eye vertical on a flatbed truck, all of the following must be used: (1) At least one tiedown attached diagonally from the left side of the vehicle, across the eye of the coil, to the right side of the vehicle (2) At least one tiedown attached diagonally from the right side of the vehicle, across the eye of the coil, to the left side of the vehicle (3) At least one tiedown attached transversely (from side to side) over the eye of the coil (4) Either blocking and bracing, friction mats, or direct tiedowns to prevent forward-and-backward movement [49 CFR 393.120]
Question: You're behind the wheel of a tractor-trailer. When starting to move up a hill from a stop, you should
Answer: A. release the parking brake as you apply engine power.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements is NOT true about backing a heavy vehicle?
Answer: A. You should back slowly until you slightly bump into the dock.
Explanation:
Question: When driving at night, use your low beams when an oncoming vehicle is within
Answer: B. 500 feet.
Explanation: To prevent blinding other drivers at night, dim your headlights to low beams whenever you are within 500 feet of an oncoming vehicle or within 500 feet of a vehicle you are following.
Question: The "load" means
Answer: A. the maximum weight that a tire can safely carry at a specified pressure.
Explanation:
Question: Why is it important to shift gears properly?
Answer: A. To help maintain control of the vehicle
Explanation:
Question: You are driving in the right lane of a four-lane, undivided road. Traffic is heavy. You come around a curve and then you notice a hazard ahead in your lane. You don't have enough room to stop. What should you do?
Answer: C. Steer to the right.
Explanation: If you are approaching a hazard and are unable to stop in time, the safest maneuver is usually to bypass it on the right, even if it means moving onto the shoulder. If you steer to the left in heavy traffic, you could collide with another vehicle or force it into oncoming traffic.
Question: Wheel bearing seals should be checked for
Answer: A. leaks.
Explanation:
Question: What do the letters "GVW" stand for?
Answer: C. Gross vehicle weight
Explanation: Gross vehicle weight (GVW) is the simplest of the vehicle weight terms, defined as the weight of just a single vehicle and the load that it is carrying.
Question: While you're driving, it takes you 4 seconds to dial your hand-held cell phone. About how far will your CMV travel during that time?
Answer: D. 320 feet
Explanation: Distracted driving is dangerous. 55 mph equals 80.7 feet per second. In 4 seconds, your CMV will travel 4 × 80.7 = 323 feet. For that entire distance, your eyes will be watching your phone, not the road. Studies have shown that drivers take an average of 3.8 seconds to dial their cell phones. The length of a football playing field (i.e., not counting the two end zones) is 300 feet.
Question: You should NOT use your low-beam headlights
Answer: A. when driving through tree shadows.
Explanation:
Question: When backing, which of the following is FALSE?
Answer: B. Use the highest reverse gear.
Explanation: Always back as slowly as possible. Use the lowest reverse gear. That way you can more easily correct any steering errors. You can also stop quickly if necessary.
Question: You are checking your brakes and suspension system during a pre-trip inspection. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: C. Brake shoes should not have oil, grease, or brake fluid on them.
Explanation: The suspension system holds up the vehicle and its load, and keeps the axles in place. Therefore, broken or missing suspension parts can be extremely dangerous. Examples of such dangerous defects are a cracked spring hanger, a missing leaf spring, and a damaged frame member. Brake linings must not be loose or soaked with oil or grease. A brake lining that is soaked with oil or grease may indicate a leaking wheel seal. Replace the lining and check the wheel seal for leaks.
Question: As you're driving a tractor-trailer, you see in your mirrors that your trailer is drifting to one side. Which of these is most likely to be the cause?
Answer: D. Axles
Explanation: All of a vehicle's axles should be aligned perpendicular (a 90-degree angle) to the centerline of the vehicle. If the trailer axles are not properly aligned, the trailer may drift to one side, a condition commonly known as dog-legging or dog-tracking. At a roadside inspection, your trailer can be placed out of service for misaligned axles (49 CFR 393.207(a)). Another possible cause of dog-tracking is incorrectly adjusted tandems (if the trailer is so equipped).
Question: In the continental United States, the maximum width of any CMV operated on interstate highways is _______ unless a special permit is obtained.
Answer: A. 8½ feet
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about double clutching is true?
Answer: B. When you upshift, the engine speed should decrease to the rpm required for the next gear.
Explanation: In double clutching, you apply the clutch twice: once to shift out of the current gear into neutral and again to shift out of neutral into the next gear. After you shift out of the current gear into neutral, adjust your engine speed to match the rpm required for the next gear. For a higher gear, allow your engine to slow down; for a lower gear, use the gas pedal to speed up the engine. Then shift out of neutral into the next gear.
Question: You are driving in a rainstorm in the middle of the day. What following distance should you maintain behind the vehicle in front of you?
Answer: A. Much more than under normal driving conditions
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is part of your vehicle's suspension?
Answer: C. Neither of the above
Explanation: The drag link and Pitman arm are two components of the steering system.
Question: How do you correct a drive-wheel acceleration skid?
Answer: C. Stop accelerating.
Explanation: To recover from a skid, first stop doing what caused it in the first place. To recover from a drive-wheel acceleration skid, first take your foot off the accelerator. To recover from a drive-wheel braking skid, stop braking. To recover from a front-wheel skid that was caused by driving too fast for current conditions, slow down.
Question: Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is characterized by which of the following?
Answer: C. Stoppage of breathing
Explanation: In obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), the person stops breathing during sleep. These episodes can occur repeatedly. OSA can cause excessive daytime sleepiness and difficulty concentrating, which can impair your ability to drive a CMV safely. A study sponsored by FMCSA found that 28% of commercial truck drivers have mild to severe sleep apnea. Fortunately, OSA is treatable. Asthma is characterized by constricted airways in the lungs, causing wheezing and shortness of breath. Angina pectoris is characterized by insufficient blood flow to the heart muscle, resulting in chest pain or pressure. Epilepsy is characterized by repeated seizures.
Question: When driving at night, you should
Answer: B. adjust your speed to keep your stopping distance within your sight distance.
Explanation: In the dark, you have no way of knowing what lies beyond the reach of your headlights. At night, you should slow to a speed that allows you to stop safely within the range of your headlights. Otherwise, if there is a hazard just beyond the range of your headlights, you may not be able to take action in time to avoid it.
Question: According to the Hours of Service regulations, you must submit your day's log of duty status to your carrier within
Answer: D. 13 days.
Explanation: Whether you use an ELD or a paper log, you must submit your day's record of duty status to your carrier within 13 days of that day. If your ELD malfunctions, you must use a paper log to record your duty status. Keep a paper logbook in your vehicle in case your ELD fails. [49 CFR 395.8]
Question: Which of these is located at each end of the driveshaft?
Answer: B. U-joint
Explanation: A universal joint (U-joint) connects two shafts to enable them to rotate together, even if they are at an angle to each other. As part of the drivetrain, one U-joint connects the transmission shaft to the drive shaft, and another U-joint connects the drive shaft to the input shaft of the differential. These U-joints are critical. If the drive shaft comes loose at one end, it may dig into the pavement, causing loss of vehicle control.
Question: You are driving a heavy vehicle on a highway, and you plan to exit onto an off-ramp that curves downhill. You should
Answer: C. slow down to a safe speed before taking the curve.
Explanation: On curves, the posted speed may be safe for cars but not for CMVs, especially CMVs that are more prone to rollovers. Slow down to a safe speed before you enter the curve. Taking a curve too fast can cause a rollover. Braking in a curve can cause a skid (or even a jackknife if you're pulling a trailer).
Question: Before transporting a sealed load, you must check that
Answer: C. the load is properly secured.
Explanation: You are not responsible for the state of the contents of a sealed container, nor can you inspect those contents. You are only responsible for the safety of the cargo, ensuring that it is balanced, secured, and not overloaded, and does not get in the way of emergency equipment.
Question: Escape ramps are
Answer: B. used to stop runaway vehicles.
Explanation: Escape ramps are located on many steep mountain grades. Escape ramps are built to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers or passengers. Escape ramps use a long bed of loose, soft material such as gravel to slow a runaway vehicle, sometimes in combination with an upgrade.
Question: Your brakes fail while you are traveling down a long, steep downgrade. What should you do?
Answer: A. Look for an escape ramp or escape route.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about your overhead clearance is true?
Answer: A. The weight of cargo can change the height of your vehicle.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following statements about tank vehicles is true?
Answer: B. Special skills are required to haul liquid tanks.
Explanation: It takes special skills to drive a tank vehicle safely. A fully loaded tanker can be less stable and more prone to rollovers than other types of CMVs. To legally drive a tank vehicle with a rated capacity of 1,000 gallons or more, you must obtain a Tank Vehicle (N) endorsement on your CDL.
Question: Which of the following will NOT help you be more fuel efficient?
Answer: C. Quick starts and hard stops
Explanation: Quick starts, hard stops, and extremely aggressive driving can increase fuel consumption by up to 39 percent. In addition, speeding is not only illegal, but it also wastes fuel. Finally, idling your engine for longer than 10 seconds can burn more fuel then you would by restarting the engine.
Question: Which of these statements is true about using emergency reflective triangles at night?
Answer: D. If you stop on a hill or curve, it's necessary to place them up to 500 feet behind your vehicle.
Explanation: Under federal regulation 49 CFR 392.22, if you must stop your CMV in an emergency at night or when visibility is low, you must turn on your four-way hazard flashers, AND you must set out your emergency warning devices (flares, fusees, or reflective triangles) within 10 minutes. That same regulation also states where you must place your emergency warning devices. If your vehicle is stopped within 500 feet of a curve, a crest of a hill, or another obstruction to viewing, you must place a warning device within 100–500 feet of your vehicle, in the direction of that obstruction.
Question: You should use a helper to help back your vehicle
Answer: C. when possible.
Explanation: Large vehicles can have large blind spots. Whenever you back a CMV, have a helper stand near the rear of your vehicle and observe areas that you cannot. He or she can signal you to stop before an accident can occur.
Question: You are starting your vehicle in motion from a stop. As you apply power to the drive wheels, they start to spin. What should you do?
Answer: C. Take your foot off the accelerator.
Explanation: If the force applied to the drive wheels exceeds the available traction of your tires on the road surface, the wheels may spin. This is more likely on snowy or icy surfaces, for which you have less traction. When traction is poor, accelerate very gradually. If the drive wheels start to spin, take your foot off the accelerator.
Question: In the event of a rear tire failure, dual rear tires
Answer: C. will usually prevent fishtailing.
Explanation: Sometimes, failure of a rear tire will cause the vehicle to slide back and forth or "fishtail." However, dual rear tires usually prevent this. Hence, it may be harder for you to figure out which tire failed. To find out, stop your vehicle, exit the cab, and check each tire for a flat.
Question: Is it legal to drive a vehicle if one-fourth of the leaves in a leaf spring are broken or missing?
Answer: B. No.
Explanation: If one-fourth or more of the leaves in any leaf spring are broken or missing, the vehicle will be put out of service until the problem is repaired.
Question: Why should you signal continuously while turning?
Answer: C. For both of the above reasons
Explanation: Illinois law and the laws of most other states require you to signal continuously before starting a turn. As you approach the turn and perform the turn, keep both hands on the wheel for safety. [625 ILCS 5/11-804]
Question: According to the Illinois Commercial Driver's License Study Guide, why should you limit the use of your horn?
Answer: A. It can startle other drivers.
Explanation:
Question: If you're driving a tractor-trailer down a long, steep downgrade, you should
Answer: C. use the braking effect of the engine.
Explanation: When you drive down long, steep downgrades, the braking effect of your engine is what's most important, and your service brakes are only a supplement to being in the proper low gear. They cannot compensate for your vehicle being in an unsafe high gear without putting too much pressure on your brakes. Save your brakes so you will be able to slow or stop as required by road and traffic conditions.
Question: Under federal regulations, states must allow buses on Interstates and U.S. Routes that are at least
Answer: C. 45 feet long.
Explanation: Federal regulations specify the minimum bus and trailer lengths that states must allow on the National Network of Highways, which includes Interstates and U.S. Routes. The minimum lengths are 45 feet for a bus, 48 feet for a semi-trailer, and 28 feet for a pup trailer..
Question: When the roads are slippery, you should
Answer: A. make turns as gently as possible.
Explanation:
Question: High beams should be
Answer: A. used when it is safe and legal to do so.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about tires and hot-weather driving is true?
Answer: B. When driving in very hot weather, you should inspect your tires every two hours or every 100 miles.
Explanation: Air pressure increases with temperature. In very hot temperatures, a tire may blow out or even catch fire. Check your tires every two hours or 100 miles. If any tires are too hot to touch, remain stopped until they cool off.
Question: On which fires can you use an A:B:C fire extinguisher?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Be sure to use the right fire extinguisher to put out a fire. A Class A fire involves ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, or rubber. A Class B fire involves flammable liquids such as gasoline, grease, or oil. A Class C fire involves electrical equipment. A Class D fire involves combustible metals such as magnesium or potassium. An A:B:C extinguisher can put out Class A, Class B, and Class C fires.
Question: What are blocking and bracing?
Answer: B. A way to keep cargo secure
Explanation: Blocking is placing material tightly around your cargo to prevent movement. Bracing involves struts running from the top part of the cargo to the floor or walls of the cargo compartment, also to prevent movement.
Question: If you're not sure what to use to put out a hazardous materials fire, what should you do?
Answer: C. Wait for qualified firefighters.
Explanation: If you don't know how to put out the fire, you could end up making things even worse. In this case, you're better off calling professional firefighters to deal with the situation.
Question: One can recognize hazardous materials by looking at the container's
Answer: C. label.
Explanation: Federal regulations require shippers to warn drivers and others about the nature of the hazardous materials they are shipping. The shipper affixes US DOT-compliant HazMat labels to the packages and supplies the driver with the appropriate placards to attach to his or her vehicle. The shipper also notes the hazardous nature of the materials on the shipping papers. [49 CFR 172.400], [49 CFR 172.407]
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a cargo-carrying vehicle may not drive more than _______ during a 14-hour on-duty period.
Answer: D. 11 hours
Explanation: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a cargo-carrying vehicle must not drive after a period of 14 consecutive hours after coming on duty following 10 consecutive hours off duty. The driver may not drive for more than 11 hours during this on-duty period. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: When checking your vehicle's load, you must make sure it conforms to
Answer: D. all local, state, and federal regulations that apply to your journey.
Explanation: You are responsible for adhering to the regulations of every jurisdiction through which you drive. It is insufficient to adhere just to the regulations of your departure point or destination; you might stop in a state or city with different regulations.
Question: Which of these can cause a fire?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Underinflated tires, dual tires that touch, and loose fuel connections are just some of the things that can start a fire.
Question: At a roadside inspection, your vehicle will be put out of service if a tire leak is found and
Answer: D. any of the above are true.
Explanation: The North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria includes many criteria for tires that if not met will cause the vehicle to be put out of service. These criteria supplement federal regulations on tires. Among these criteria are the following: No tire may have a leak that is noticeable (i.e., can be heard or felt), that has caused the tire to go flat, or that has reduced tire pressure to 50% or less of the maximum pressure marked on the tire sidewall. [49 CFR 393.75]
Question: A combination vehicle's stopping distance is longest when it is
Answer: A. empty.
Explanation:
Question: You were forced to leave the road in an emergency, and you are forced to return to the road before stopping on the shoulder. What should you do?
Answer: C. Using mirrors and turn signals, turn sharply to get back onto the road.
Explanation: If you've left the road but you must return to the road before stopping on the shoulder, the recommended recovery procedure is as follows: 1. Hold the wheel tightly and turn sharply enough to get right back onto the road safely. 2. Don't try to edge gradually back onto the road. If you do, your tires might grab unexpectedly and you could lose control. 3. When both front tires are on the paved surface, countersteer immediately. The two turns should be made as a single "steer-countersteer" move.
Question: The amount of liquid to load into a tank depends on
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: How much liquid you can load into a tank depends on the following: (1) Heat makes liquid expand, so you must allow enough room at the top of the tank for outage. (2) A dense liquid may weigh so much that loading too much liquid into the tank may cause your vehicle to exceed state weight limits.
Question: When approaching a traffic light that has been green for a long time, you should
Answer: B. start to slow down so you will be ready to stop.
Explanation: A traffic light that has been green for a long time is probably about to change to a yellow and then a red light. When approaching such a green light, slow down and be prepared to stop. Never speed up in an attempt to "beat the light" before it turns red.
Question: As compared with the general US adult population, which of these is true of CMV drivers?
Answer: D. All of the above are true.
Explanation: 49% of CMV drivers smoke, compared with 27% of the general adult population. 73% of CMV drivers are obese, compared with 33% of the general population. 33% of CMV drivers have hypertension (high blood pressure), compared with 26% of the general population. Finally, only 8% of CMV drivers exercise regularly, compared with 25% of the general population.
Question: When should you check your mirrors for a lane change?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: When changing lanes, check your mirrors at each of the following times: (1) before you change lanes, to make sure there is enough room; (2) after you have signaled, to check that no one has moved into your blind spot; (3) right after you start the lane change, to double-check that your path is clear; and (4) after you complete the lane change.
Question: Stab braking should not be used in vehicles with
Answer: C. antilock brakes.
Explanation: In stab braking, you deliberately keep locking and unlocking the wheels. Hence, stab braking should not be used in a vehicle with antilock brakes. Use controlled braking instead.
Question: You are driving a 40-foot vehicle at 35 mph. The road is dry and visibility is good. What is the least amount of space you should keep in front of your vehicle to be safe?
Answer: A. 4 seconds
Explanation:
Question: To gain access to secure areas of US seaports, you'll need
Answer: C. a TWIC card.
Explanation: The Transportation Worker Identification Credential, also known as TWIC®, is required by the Maritime Transportation Security Act for workers who need access to secure areas of the nation’s maritime facilities and vessels. To obtain a TWIC card, you must apply to the Transportation Security Administration (TSA), either at their website or in person at a TWIC application center. TSA will conduct a security threat assessment (background check) of you, and if all goes well, they will issue you a TWIC card. Note that if you have a valid TWIC card, you won't need to go through another security threat assessment to obtain a Hazardous Materials endorsement.
Question: You do not have a Hazardous Materials endorsement on your CDL. You are asked to deliver hazardous materials in a placarded vehicle. You should
Answer: A. refuse to haul the load.
Explanation:
Question: When a doctor prescribes medication for you and you know you will be driving, you should
Answer: C. ask the doctor if the medication will affect your ability to drive.
Explanation: Some prescription drugs can impair your driving abilities. If your doctor prescribes a medication for you, be sure to ask him or her if the medication can impair your driving abilities.
Question: If the coolant container is part of the pressurized system, which of the following is true?
Answer: A. You may be able to check the coolant level even while the engine is hot.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these substances can impair your ability to drive safely?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Some prescription medications and some over-the-counter cold medicines may cause drowsiness. Always check the label. If you're still unsure, ask your pharmacist or doctor before taking them.
Question: A vehicle is loaded with very little weight on the drive axles. What may happen?
Answer: C. Poor traction
Explanation: Poor weight balance can make vehicle handling unsafe. For example, insufficient weight on the drive axles can cause poor traction and cause the drive wheels to spin more easily, especially on slippery roads.
Question: Semi-trucks have large blind spots on all four sides. Which blind spot is considered the most dangerous?
Answer: B. Passenger side
Explanation: Large CMVs have large blind spots, called "No-Zones," on all four sides. For a tractor-trailer or semi-truck, the front No-Zone extends up to 20 feet in front of the truck, and the rear No-Zone extends up to 200 feet behind the trailer. The driver's-side No-Zone extends from the driver's door, back to just past the front of the trailer. The passenger-side No-Zone is the largest No-Zone, and also the most dangerous. It can extend up to three lanes wide.
Question: What's the most important tool you have for monitoring the condition of your vehicle on the road?
Answer: C. Your senses (eyesight, hearing, smell, feel)
Explanation: Become thoroughly familiar with your vehicle so that you will be able to sense any changes immediately. Use your senses (look, listen, smell, feel) to detect problems.
Question: After you start the engine,
Answer: A. the coolant temperature gauge should begin a gradual rise to normal.
Explanation:
Question: It takes the body about ____ hours to get rid of the alcohol in four alcoholic drinks.
Answer: A. 4
Explanation:
Question: Under federal regulations, the maximum allowed gross vehicle weight (GVW) of a truck on an interstate highway is
Answer: A. 80,000 pounds.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following materials can be used in an A:B:C fire extinguisher to put out all three classes of fires?
Answer: B. Dry chemical agent
Explanation: When used properly, multipurpose dry chemical agents can safely extinguish Class A (wood, paper, and other combustibles) fires, Class B (flammable liquids and gases) fires, and Class C (electrical) fires. Carbon dioxide doesn't work well on Class A fires. Water should never be used on Class C fires because it's electrically conductive.
Question: When getting ready to cross a bridge you should
Answer: B. read the weight limit sign.
Explanation: The maximum weight will be posted in advance of a bridge. After going over a bridge, you may be asked to tell the examiner what the posted weight limit was.
Question: If your truck is transporting cargo, you must check the securement of the cargo within the first ____ miles of the trip.
Answer: A. 50
Explanation:
Question: To avoid a crash, you had to drive onto the right shoulder. You are now driving at 40 mph on the shoulder. How should you move back onto the pavement?
Answer: A. If possible, come to a complete stop before steering back onto the pavement.
Explanation:
Question: Why should you be in the proper gear before starting down a hill?
Answer: B. You may not be able to shift into a lower gear once you are going down a hill.
Explanation: When you're about to start down a steep downgrade, release the gas pedal, shift into a low gear, and use engine braking to slow your vehicle. Don't try to downshift after your speed has already built up. You will not be able to shift into a lower gear then. You may not even be able to get back into any gear, and all engine braking effect will be lost. If you try to downshift an automatic transmission after your speed has already built up, you may damage the transmission.
Question: As your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) rises, what happens?
Answer: B. Your judgment and self-control are affected.
Explanation: Alcohol affects the body in many different ways, but it first affects your judgment and self-control. As a result, you may not realize how drunk you are becoming, and you may start to make dangerous decisions.
Question: What should you do before driving if you are sleepy?
Answer: C. Get some sleep.
Explanation: Caffeine pills or caffeinated drinks can increase awareness – for a few hours. But as with most other stimulants, after the caffeine wears off, you may "crash" (feel even more drowsy and tired than you did before the caffeine). The only real cure for sleepiness is sleep.
Question: You are starting your vehicle from a stop. As you apply power to the drive wheels, they start to spin. You should
Answer: A. take your foot off the accelerator.
Explanation:
Question: When performing the pre-trip inspection of a bus, what checks should you perform on the driveshaft assembly?
Answer: D. Check all of the above.
Explanation: The drive shaft transmits torque from the transmission to a drive axle. During your pre-trip inspection, check that the drive shaft is not bent or cracked, and the U-joints aren't loose or worn. These U-joints are safety-critical components. If the drive shaft comes loose at one end, it may dig into the pavement, causing loss of vehicle control, or whip up into the passenger compartment, possibly causing injury. As an additional safety feature on buses (but not trucks), federal regulations require the use of one or more guards to prevent the end of the drive shaft from dropping down into the pavement or whipping up into the passenger compartment. If your vehicle is so equipped, check that the guards are securely mounted and in good condition. [49 CFR 393.89]
Question: Which of the following can cause a skid?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: A skid occurs when the tires lose their grip of the road. This can happen in any of four ways: (1) Over-braking: Braking too hard and locking the wheels. Skids can also occur if you use the speed retarder on a slippery road. (2) Over-steering: Turning the wheels more sharply than the vehicle can turn. (3) Over-acceleration: Supplying too much power to the drive wheels, causing them to spin. (4) Driving too fast: Most serious skids result from driving too fast for road conditions.
Question: You are driving a truck with a manual transmission. While driving on an uphill grade, you have to stop the truck on the shoulder. Which of these is a good rule to follow when putting it back in motion up the grade?
Answer: C. Use the parking brake to hold the vehicle until the clutch engages.
Explanation: When you start your vehicle, avoid rolling backward or else you may hit someone behind you. Set the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling back. Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back. If you have a manual transmission vehicle, partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake. On a tractor-trailer equipped with a trailer brake hand valve, the hand valve can be applied to keep from rolling back.
Question: If you are convicted of human trafficking, you will lose your CDL for
Answer: A. life.
Explanation:
Question: At a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of ______, most people lose consciousness, and some die.
Answer: A. 0.40%
Explanation:
Question: If a tractor-trailer's cargo is loaded too far to the rear, the result may be
Answer: C. poor traction on the drive wheels.
Explanation: When loading a semitrailer, make sure that the load is properly balanced. For example, insufficient weight on the tractor's drive axles (caused by placing the load too far to the rear) can cause poor traction and cause the drive wheels to spin more easily, especially on slippery roads.
Question: How do you correct a drive-wheel acceleration skid on a slippery road?
Answer: A. Stop accelerating and push in the clutch.
Explanation:
Question: You are driving on a two-lane road. An oncoming vehicle drifts into your lane and is headed straight for you. Which of the following should you do?
Answer: A. Steer to the right.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about overhead clearance is true?
Answer: C. The weight of a vehicle changes its height.
Explanation: Your truck's height will vary depending on how much weight you're hauling. An empty or lightly loaded vehicle will ride higher than one that is weighed down with heavy cargo. Don't put all your trust in posted road clearance signs. The height of the roadway may have changed since the sign was posted.
Question: How many times should you shift gears while crossing railroad tracks?
Answer: B. None
Explanation: You must not shift gears as you cross railroad tracks because it would increase the likelihood of a stall. Make sure you're in the right gear before you start to cross.
Question: Which of these statements about managing space is true?
Answer: B. When the road is slippery, you should keep much more space in front of your vehicle.
Explanation: Large, heavy vehicles have long braking distances. On slippery roads, the braking distance will be even longer. Make sure you leave an adequate following distance behind the vehicle ahead of you. The formula for following distance under ideal conditions is one second per ten feet of vehicle, plus an extra second if you are traveling over 40 mph. On slippery roads, increase your following distance even more.
Question: Should brake adjustments be checked often?
Answer: B. Yes, because brakes can get out of adjustment when they are used a lot.
Explanation: Check brake adjustment often. Brakes can get out of adjustment quickly, especially when they are hot. Out-of-adjustment brakes are the most common problem found in roadside inspections.
Question: Which of the following statements about backing are true?
Answer: C. Both of the above are true.
Explanation: Because of the limited visibility, avoid backing up whenever possible. If you must back your vehicle, back toward the driver's side. You'll be able to watch the rear of your vehicle from your driver's side window. Also use a helper if possible. The helper can stand near the rear of your vehicle and keep an eye on your blind spots. He or she can signal you to stop before an accident can occur.
Question: Which of these is especially true about your tires in hot weather?
Answer: B. You should check tire mounting and air pressure before driving.
Explanation: In hot weather, check the tire mounting and tire pressure carefully. Heat causes the air in the tire to expand, increasing tire pressure. Driving will make the tires even hotter. If the tire temperature and pressure rise too high, the tire may blow out or even catch fire.
Question: Most serious skids result from
Answer: B. driving too fast for conditions.
Explanation: Over-braking and over-steering can cause skids. Both over-braking and over-steering are more likely when you're driving too fast.
Question: Which of these statements is true about medicines used to treat the common cold?
Answer: A. They often make you sleepy. Therefore, they should not be used while driving.
Explanation:
Question: What are some things you should do at an accident scene to prevent another accident?
Answer: C. Do both of the above.
Explanation: If you're stopping at an accident scene, pull your vehicle as far away from traffic and as close to the side of the road as possible. If you're stopping to help at an accident scene, park a short distance away to leave the immediate area clear for emergency vehicles.
Question: When is it safe to remove the radiator cap?
Answer: B. When the cap is cool enough to touch with a bare hand
Explanation: Don't take any chances with the radiator cap. If you open it while it is still hot, you can receive a blast of steam that can cause serious injury.
Question: Most heavy-duty diesel engines are governed at
Answer: C. 2,000 rpm.
Explanation: Most heavy-duty diesel engines are governed at 2,000 rpm. The typical operating range is 1,300 – 2,000 rpm.
Question: Federal regulations require truck tractors whose GVWR exceeds 26,000 pounds and _________ to be equipped with electronic stability control (ESC).
Answer: C. coach buses
Explanation: Electronic stability control (ESC) is a system that helps prevent skids. When the system senses that your vehicle isn't moving in the same direction that your steering wheel is pointing, it automatically applies the brakes on certain wheels selectively to bring the vehicle back under your control. ESC has been required on Class 7–8 truck tractors and buses (except school buses, perimeter-seating buses, and transit buses) since August 1, 2019. [49 CFR 571.136]
Question: If you park at the side of the road, you should
Answer: B. turn on your four-way flashers.
Explanation: If you must stop on a road or the shoulder of any road, turn on your four-way emergency flashers (not your taillights) and set out your emergency warning devices (such as reflective triangles) within ten minutes.
Question: What should you do in thick fog?
Answer: A. Pull off the road into a rest area or truck stop
Explanation:
Question: You've parked your tractor-trailer at a loading dock, where a forklift (fork truck) operator will load cargo into the trailer. You should do all of the following EXCEPT
Answer: A. use a dock plate.
Explanation:
Question: Driving through a tunnel can present which of the following challenges?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: If you must drive through a tunnel, there are several issues you must deal with. First, make sure that the tunnel is tall enough for your vehicle to get through it safely. Plan in advance. Know the height of your CMV and the height of the tunnel ceiling. Second, tunnels often have reduced lane widths. Your CMV may be 8½ feet wide. Drive with caution and watch the sides of your vehicle. Finally, there can be strong winds inside the tunnel, and strong crosswinds as you exit the tunnel.
Question: When a DOT inspector pulls you over for a roadside inspection, which of these is the inspector likely to look at FIRST?
Answer: C. You
Explanation: After motioning you over, the first thing the DOT inspector will do is walk up to your cab and look at you and the cab interior. The inspector will note whether you're wearing your seatbelt. He or she will check if you look like you've been dozing off. He or she will see or smell whether you've been smoking marijuana or drinking alcohol. Before starting the inspection of your truck, the inspector will ask to see your logbook.
Question: What should you do if your vehicle hydroplanes?
Answer: A. Release the accelerator.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is a danger of crossing railroad tracks on dirt roads?
Answer: B. You could get hung up halfway across.
Explanation: Many drivers forget about the space under their vehicles. That space can be very small when a vehicle is heavily loaded. This is often a problem on dirt roads and in unpaved yards. Don't take a chance on getting hung up. Drainage channels across roads can cause the ends of some vehicles to drag. Cross such depressions carefully. Railroad tracks can also cause problems, particularly when pulling trailers with a low underneath clearance. Don’t take a chance on getting hung up halfway across.
Question: What are some downsides of deleting (removing) emissions-control devices from your diesel-powered truck?
Answer: D. All of the above are downsides.
Explanation: Some emissions-control devices on diesel-powered trucks can adversely affect fuel economy and add to maintenance costs. For these reasons, some drivers have opted to "delete" (defeat or remove) the emissions-control devices and retune the engine to run well without the devices. However, doing so can cause you major problems. First, deleting an emissions-control device violates the federal Clean Air Act and federal regulations. The penalties include stiff fines. Second, a number of states, such as California, New York, and Minnesota, now require emissions testing of trucks. You will not be able to drive your truck there if it fails emissions testing there. Third, dealers and large reputable repair shops may refuse to service your vehicle after it's illegally modified. Fourth, if you ever wish to sell your vehicle, you must disclose its illegal modifications to potential buyers. If you sell the vehicle without disclosing this information, you risk legal action from the buyer after the buyer discovers the modifications. [40 CFR 1068.101], [42 U.S. Code 7522]
Question: At a roadside inspection, which of these is NOT likely to result in your vehicle being placed out of service?
Answer: A. Broken shock absorber
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is NOT considered a critical vehicle inspection item during a roadside inspection?
Answer: C. Mirrors
Explanation: In the North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria, by CVSA, the critical vehicle inspection items are the most critical systems in the vehicle. These are the brakes, the cargo securement, the driveline, the suspension, the steering, and others. Mirrors are not considered a critical vehicle inspection item. To pass inspection, the vehicle must not have any defects in any of these critical vehicle inspection items. Furthermore, if inspectors discover a defect in one of these items that is likely to cause a crash or breakdown, they will place the vehicle out of service.
Question: Where can you find the maximum weight loading for a given tire pressure?
Answer: A. On the tire
Explanation:
Question: Most trucks on the road today have a _______ electrical system.
Answer: A. 12-volt
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following violations at railroad crossings can lead to loss of your CDL for at least 60 days?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: You will be disqualified from operating a CMV for at least 60 days if you are convicted of any of the following offenses at railroad crossings: (1) failing to slow down and check that the tracks are clear; (2) failing to stop if a train is approaching; (3) failing to stop before driving onto the crossing; (4) failing to ensure that there is sufficient space for you to drive completely through the crossing without stopping; (5) failing to obey a traffic control device or the directions of an enforcement official; (6) failing to negotiate the crossing because of insufficient undercarriage clearance. [49 CFR 383.51]
Question: Which of these is a danger of crossing railroad tracks on dirt roads?
Answer: A. You could get hung up halfway across the tracks.
Explanation:
Question: You should try to park your vehicle so that
Answer: C. you can pull forward when you leave.
Explanation: Avoid backing your vehicle whenever possible. For example, when you park, do so in a way that will let you drive forward, not backward, to exit the parking space.
Question: When is an engine retarder most efficient?
Answer: B. Higher rpm and lower vehicle speeds
Explanation: An engine retarder is more efficient at a higher engine rpm and a lower vehicle speed, so it’s important to select the right gear. Select your gear before you start down a hill. You’re more likely to miss a shift if you wait until you’re on the downgrade.
Question: How does the height of a vehicle's center of gravity affect safe handling?
Answer: C. Trucks with a high center of gravity can roll over at the posted speed limit for a curve.
Explanation: Trucks with a high center of gravity are much more likely to roll over on a curve, even if they are not exceeding the posted or recommended speed limit. When driving such a vehicle on a curve, slow down well below the posted speed limit.
Question: What is the most important reason for being alert to hazards?
Answer: B. You will have time to plan your escape if the hazard becomes an emergency.
Explanation: The National Safety Council defines defensive driving as "driving to save lives, time, and money, in spite of the conditions around you and the actions of others." Defensive driving is about anticipating potentially dangerous situations in advance, including driving conditions and mistakes made by others, and planning how to deal with those situations. To be a defensive driver, you must constantly scan for hazards all around your vehicle. When you spot a hazard, think about the emergencies that might develop from it and formulate plans to deal with them.
Question: You're driving a concrete mixer truck (cement mixer) to your next job site. In this context, what is "slump"?
Answer: B. The consistency of the concrete to be poured
Explanation: "Slump" is a measure of the consistency of fresh concrete. You measure slump by forming a sample of the concrete into a standard-shaped 12-inch-high cone, and measuring how far the cone "slumps" (i.e., how much its height declines). The more it slumps, the thinner the consistency of the concrete. For example, concrete with a 5-inch slump is thinner than concrete with a 3-inch slump.
Question: Identify component F.
Answer: B. Steering gear box
Explanation: The steering gear box contains gears that translate the rotation of the steering column into rotation of the gear box's output shaft. This rotation drives the steering linkage to turn the wheels.
Question: In bad weather, car drivers are more likely to tailgate CMVs. If that happens to you, what should you do?
Answer: C. Increase your following distance.
Explanation: Tailgating is a major cause of rear-end collisions. If you're being tailgated, increase your following distance behind the vehicle ahead of you. That way, if you have to stop or slow down, you can do so gradually, reducing the risk of being rear-ended by the tailgater. It will also make it easier for the tailgater to pass you. Never increase your speed to appease or outdistance a tailgater. No speed is too fast for some tailgaters.
Question: How do you calculate the distance between your vehicle and the one ahead of you?
Answer: D. Count the seconds from when the vehicle ahead of you passes some object to when you reach that same object.
Explanation: Count the seconds from when the vehicle ahead of you passes some object to when you reach that same object. This is the simplest and most accurate way to make this calculation.
Question: Your total stopping distance equals the sum of your
Answer: A. perception distance, reaction distance, and braking distance.
Explanation:
Question: How far ahead should you be looking while driving in town?
Answer: A. One block
Explanation:
Question: One gallon of diesel fuel weighs approximately
Answer: C. 7 pounds.
Explanation: One gallon of diesel fuel weighs about 7 pounds, meaning that a full fuel tank in a tractor-trailer can weigh well over 1,000 pounds. Bear this in mind when calculating how your vehicle can remain within legal weight limits.
Question: An en-route inspection should include checking
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Whenever you stop during your trip, check whether the cargo has shifted. Also check whether the tires or brakes are overheating. Overheating could cause them to fail or even start a fire.
Question: Is it always dangerous to back up a CMV?
Answer: C. Yes.
Explanation: Because of the limited visibility, avoid backing up whenever possible. If you must back your vehicle, use a helper if possible. The helper can stand near the rear of your vehicle and keep an eye on your blind spots. He or she can signal you to stop before an accident can occur.
Question: No matter how small the cargo is, it should have at least
Answer: C. 2 tie-downs.
Explanation: The rule is one tie-down for every ten feet of cargo, but at least two tie-downs regardless of how small the cargo is.
Question: Which of these statements is true regarding the use of drugs while driving?
Answer: B. Prescription drugs are allowed as long as your doctor says the drugs will not affect safe driving ability.
Explanation: Some prescription drugs can impair your driving abilities. Take a prescription drug only if your doctor assures you that it won't impair your driving abilities.
Question: When you start to move up a hill from a stop,
Answer: B. release the parking brake as you apply engine power.
Explanation: If you start to move your vehicle when facing uphill, you need to take steps to keep from rolling back. If your vehicle has a manual transmission, partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake. Put on the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling back. Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back. On a tractor-trailer equipped with a trailer brake hand valve, the hand valve can be applied to keep from rolling back until you've built up engine power.
Question: Your GPS device
Answer: C. should be designed for truck navigation.
Explanation: You should always use a GPS device or GPS app that is designed for truck navigation. A good truck-enabled GPS device takes into account the dimensions and weight of your CMV and the nature of its load. The device can warn you about or even avoid roadways with height restrictions, weight restrictions, or restrictions on the transport of hazardous materials. Such a GPS device can also inform you of points of interest to CMV operators, such as truck stops, weigh stations, and repair services for CMVs.
Question: To drive down a mountain road safely, you'll have to downshift into lower gears. Which of these should NOT affect your choice of gears?
Answer: B. Type of tire tread
Explanation: To determine which low gear to use to begin a descent, consider the weather, the length and steepness of the downgrade, the weight of your cargo, and the road conditions.
Question: After you start the engine, which of the following will occur?
Answer: A. The coolant temperature gauge will rise to normal operating temperature.
Explanation:
Question: Before you drive in the mountains, what should you do?
Answer: C. Learn the escape ramp locations on your route.
Explanation: Before you drive in the mountains, you should know how to brake safely on grades, and you should learn the locations of escape ramps on your route. Escape ramps have been built on many steep mountain downgrades. Escape ramps are designed to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers and passengers.
Question: It is important to shift gears correctly to keep
Answer: C. control of the vehicle.
Explanation: For full control of your vehicle, you need to know when and how to upshift or downshift. Learn under what special conditions you should downshift. For example, learn how to use engine braking to slow your vehicle on a steep descent.
Question: Why can tourists be hazards?
Answer: A. They may drive slowly and make sudden stops or lane changes.
Explanation:
Question: When should you downshift an automatic transmission?
Answer: A. When going down grades
Explanation:
Question: What will happen if your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is found to be more than zero but less than 0.04%?
Answer: C. You will be put out-of-service for 24 hours.
Explanation: There is no safe amount of alcohol with which to drive a CMV. Hence, if you are found to have any detectable BAC (even if it's under the legal limit of 0.04%), you will be placed out-of-service for 24 hours.
Question: Which of these pieces of emergency equipment must always be carried in your vehicle?
Answer: C. Warning devices for stopped vehicles
Explanation: Federal regulations require every commercial motor vehicle (CMV) to carry one of the following types of warning devices in case the vehicle must be stopped on the road: three reflective triangles, three liquid-burning flares, or six fusees. Federal regulations also require every CMV to carry a fire extinguisher and spare fuses if the CMV uses fuses. (During your CDL skills test, if your CMV uses circuit breakers instead of fuses, point this out to your test examiner.) Your state may also require extra emergency equipment (such as a first-aid kit) on certain vehicles. [49 CFR 393.95]
Question: Blocking is used to keep the cargo from shifting.
Answer: B. True
Explanation: Blocking and bracing can prevent cargo from shifting. Use blocking and bracing to keep cargo from shifting in whichever directions it might move. Blocking fits snugly against cargo; bracing runs from the upper part of the cargo to the floor or walls of the cargo compartment.
Question: Which of these statements about a pre-trip inspection is true?
Answer: B. If you need to tilt the cab, secure loose items first.
Explanation: Before you start to inspect your vehicle, take the ignition key with you to prevent anyone else from moving the vehicle while you're inspecting it. To inspect a cab forward (cab-over) vehicle, it may be necessary to tilt the cab to gain access to the engine compartment. Before doing this, secure any loose items inside the cab so they won't fall when you tilt the cab.
Question: Idling your engine for more than five minutes can
Answer: D. do all of the above.
Explanation: Idling can burn as much as one gallon of fuel per hour. Idling for longer than five minutes wastes fuel, increases emissions, and can clog fuel injectors.
Question: In the wintertime, asphalt tends to look
Answer: A. grayish white.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about accelerating in a tractor-trailer is true?
Answer: A. Rough acceleration can cause mechanical damage.
Explanation:
Question: Your vehicle is equipped with hydraulic brakes. At a roadside inspection, your vehicle will be put out of service if the fluid level in any master cylinder reservoir is less than
Answer: A. 1/4 full.
Explanation:
Question: When should you review the post-trip inspection report from the previous driver?
Answer: A. You should review it during your pre-trip inspection.
Explanation:
Question: A car suddenly cuts in front of you. What should you NOT do?
Answer: B. Honk and stay close behind the car.
Explanation: Always maintain a safe following distance behind the vehicle in front of you. If another vehicle suddenly cuts in front of you, either slow down or change lanes to maintain a safe following distance. Tailgating another vehicle is dangerous. For a CMV driver, federal regulations consider tailgating a serious violation. You will lose your CDL for at least 60 days if you are convicted of two serious violations involving a CMV within a three-year period. [49 CFR 383.51]
Question: Which of the following cannot be checked at the same time?
Answer: C. Brake lights, turn signals, and four-way flasher functions
Explanation: In Step 5 (Walk-Around Inspection) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, you walk to the front of your vehicle to check that the turn signals and four-way flashers are working. Obviously you can't check all your brake lights from that vantage point.
Question: Why should you keep some cans of spray paint in your CMV in case of an accident?
Answer: A. To mark significant points at the accident scene
Explanation:
Question: The braking effect of the engine is greatest when the engine is _____ the governed rpm and the transmission is in the ______ gears.
Answer: C. near; lower
Explanation: The engine braking effect is strongest when the transmission is in a low gear and the engine is operating near the governed rpm's. Note: Engine braking is NOT the same thing as using a retarder or Jake Brake. Engine braking simply relies on low gears and the partial vacuum in the engine at idle to prevent your vehicle from going too fast.
Question: What is the minimum tread depth for tires that are not front tires?
Answer: A. 2/32 inch
Explanation:
Question: For a first offense of driving a commercial vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, you will lose your CDL for at least
Answer: B. 1 year.
Explanation: For a first offense of driving a commercial vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, you will lose your CDL for at least one year. In fact, you will also lose your CDL for a first offense of driving with a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of 0.04% or higher, even though 0.04% is below the legal limit for licensed adult car drivers.
Question: Bridge formulas specify
Answer: A. less maximum axle weight for axles that are close together.
Explanation:
Question: Before descending a hill, you must be in the right gear because
Answer: A. you won't be able to downshift after you start descending.
Explanation:
Question: You are driving at 50 mph on a straight, level highway. There are no vehicles in front of you. Suddenly a tire blows out in your vehicle. What should you do first?
Answer: B. Stay off the brake until your vehicle has slowed down.
Explanation: In the event of a blowout at high speed, DON'T BRAKE unless you must do so to prevent a collision. Braking can lock the wheels and cause loss of control. Instead, hold the steering wheel firmly and keep your vehicle on course until it slows down. Then brake very gently, pull off the road, and stop.
Question: When you check your tires, which of the following should NOT cause you concern?
Answer: D. Tires from different manufacturers
Explanation: As long as the tires match in size, are properly inflated, and are in good shape, they don't have to be from the same manufacturer.
Question: What is the minimum tread depth for front (steering) tires?
Answer: A. 4/32 inch
Explanation:
Question: Before throwing a strap over your load on a flatbed trailer, you should NOT
Answer: B. coil or loop the strap with the buckle on the outside.
Explanation: When throwing straps over a load on a flatbed trailer, minimize the chance of a buckle hitting someone on the opposite side. First, it's safer to coil or loop the strap with the buckle on the inside. Next, look under the trailer to make sure no one is on the opposite side. But just to be sure, shout a warning just before you throw the strap. Another point: Throwing straps can strain your arm or shoulder muscles. Consider doing some limbering-up exercises before starting this activity.
Question: When you drive on roads whose speed limits for CMVs are lower than for cars, you should
Answer: B. use extra caution when you change lanes or pass.
Explanation: In many states, speed limits are lower for trucks and buses than for cars. The difference can be as much as 15 mph. Use extra caution when you change lanes or pass on these roadways. Drive at the speed of the traffic but only if you can do so without driving at an illegal or unsafe speed. Keep a safe following distance.
Question: Which of these statements about downshifting is true?
Answer: A. When you downshift to take a curve, you should do so before you enter the curve.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about staying alert to drive is true?
Answer: B. Sleep is the only thing that can overcome fatigue.
Explanation: Caffeine and other stimulants can increase awareness – for a few hours. But once a stimulant wears off, you can "crash" (feel even more drowsy and tired than you did before the stimulant). The only real cure for fatigue is sleep.
Question: Which of the following is true about escape ramps?
Answer: B. They can be used by any vehicle whose brakes have failed.
Explanation: Escape ramps are located on many steep mountain grades. Escape ramps are built to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers or passengers. Escape ramps use a long bed of loose, soft material such as gravel to slow a runaway vehicle, sometimes in combination with an upgrade. Regardless of the type of vehicle you're driving, always look for one of these escape ramps. They can save lives, equipment, and cargo.
Question: The best drivers watch for hazards and prepare for them in advance. This is called ________ driving.
Answer: B. defensive
Explanation: The National Safety Council defines defensive driving as "driving to save lives, time, and money, in spite of the conditions around you and the actions of others." Defensive driving is about anticipating potentially dangerous situations in advance, including driving conditions and mistakes made by others, and planning how to deal with those situations. To be a defensive driver, you must constantly scan for hazards all around your vehicle. When you spot a hazard, think about the emergencies that might develop from it and formulate plans to deal with them.
Question: The tendency for long commercial vehicles to swing wide on turns is called
Answer: A. off-tracking.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following statements about parking on the entrance and exit ramps is TRUE:
Answer: C. You may never park on the ramps.
Explanation: Freeway and turnpike exits can be particularly dangerous for commercial vehicles. Off ramps and on ramps often have speed limit signs posted - these speeds may be safe for cars, but not for larger vehicles or heavily loaded vehicles. Exits that go downhill and turn at the same time can be especially dangerous. The downgrade makes it difficult to reduce speed. Braking and turning at the same time can be a dangerous practice. Make sure you are going slowly enough before you get on the curved part of an off ramp or on ramp. Do not park on the ramps.
Question: You're driving a tractor-trailer on a slick road surface. Suddenly, excessive braking locks your drive wheels. Your tractor starts to skid, and the trailer starts to push the tractor sideways. You must act to correct the skid before the trailer swings out approximately
Answer: C. 15 degrees.
Explanation: Drive-wheel braking skids occur when braking causes the drive wheels to lock. Because locked wheels have less traction than rolling wheels, the rear wheels usually slide sideways in an attempt to "catch up" with the front wheels. With combination vehicles, a drive-wheel skid can let the trailer push the tractor sideways, leading to a sudden jackknife. You can recover from the skid and get the trailer back into position – if you act fast before the trailer swings out about 15 degrees. (You have only a couple of seconds to react.) Past that point, it will be very difficult to prevent a jackknife.
Question: A load is secured with 3/8-inch chains that do not display a strength rating. What are the default strength rating and working load limit (WLL) of each chain?
Answer: C. 3/8-G30; 2,650 pounds
Explanation: Welded steel chain that is not marked or labeled with a grade or working load limit (WLL) is considered to have a WLL equal to that of grade 30 proof coil chain. Hence, each size 3/8" chain should be marked "3/8-G30." According to the WLL table in federal regulation 49 CFR 393.108, size 3/8" proof coil chain with grade 30 has a WLL of 2,650 pounds.
Question: You'll be driving a 5-axle tractor-trailer. The distance from the front drive axle to the rear tandem trailer axle is 36 feet. Using the federal Bridge Gross Weight Formula, what is the maximum combined weight that can be carried by the drive axles and trailer axles?
Answer: A. 66,000 pounds
Explanation:
Question: When you park your vehicle and shut off the engine, you should usually
Answer: C. apply the parking brake.
Explanation: Whenever you park your vehicle, set the parking brakes. There are only two exceptions: (1) If the brakes are very hot, applying the parking brakes might damage them. (2) If the brakes are wet, applying them in cold temperatures might cause them to freeze, immobilizing your vehicle. In these two situations, use wheel chocks instead.
Question: If your vehicle catches fire while you are driving, you should
Answer: C. park in an open area.
Explanation: If your vehicle catches fire, pull off the road and park in an open area away from anything that might catch fire, such as buildings or trees. Especially avoid parking your burning vehicle near a gas station!
Question: Which of the following statements about bias-ply tires and radial tires are true?
Answer: C. In bias-ply tires, the plies criss-cross each other diagonally.
Explanation: In a bias-ply tire, the plies are at an angle of 30–45 degrees to the centerline of the tread, so the plies crisscross each other diagonally. A radial tire has plies that are at an angle of 90 degrees to the centerline of the tread.
Question: The average person's "biological clock" causes a dip in the person's alertness
Answer: A. between 2 p.m. and 5 p.m.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about drinking alcohol is true?
Answer: C. A few beers have the same effect on driving as a few shots of whiskey.
Explanation: When you drink alcohol, it goes directly from your stomach into the bloodstream. Your body breaks down alcohol at a predictable rate. Typically, this is one standard drink per hour, where one standard drink equals 1.5 ounces of hard liquor, 5 ounces of wine, or 12 ounces of beer. Neither coffee nor fresh air nor a cold shower can increase that rate. You need to wait until the alcohol has been broken down.
Question: A 5/8-inch chain that has a working load limit of 13,000 pounds should have links marked with what strength rating?
Answer: B. 5/8 - G43
Explanation: The Working Load Limit (WLL) of a component of a cargo securement system is assigned by the component manufacturer or the default rating in the Working Load Limit table. (See federal regulation 49 CFR 393.108 for the table.) According to the WLL table, the only size 5/8" chain with a WLL of 13,000 pounds has a grade of 43. Therefore its links should be marked with the strength rating "5/8 - G43."
Question: A vehicle is loaded with most of the weight on the steering axle. What may result?
Answer: B. Hard steering and possible damage to the tires
Explanation: Keep your load of cargo balanced. You need enough weight on both the steering and drive axles for adequate traction. However, too much weight on the steering axle can result in hard steering and even damage the steering axle and tires. Too much weight on one side can increase the risk that the cargo will shift.
Question: Medicines for the common cold
Answer: B. can make you sleepy and should not be used while you're driving.
Explanation: Unfortunately, some prescription and over-the-counter cold medications and allergy medications can cause drowsiness, sedation, or impaired coordination, which make them dangerous for commercial drivers. If you are unsure about the effects of a particular medication, check the warning label or ask your pharmacist or doctor.
Question: Which of these is not part of the pre-trip inspection of the engine compartment?
Answer: A. Valve clearance
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about engine belts in hot weather is FALSE?
Answer: C. Cracking is likely to occur but it is not a safety threat.
Explanation: Check the tightness of the engine belt by pressing on it. Also check the belt for cracks or excessive wear. A loose or broken belt won't turn the water pump or fan properly, which will cause the engine to overheat.
Question: You should schedule your driving for
Answer: C. the hours that you are normally awake.
Explanation: To help prevent drowsiness while driving, schedule your trips for the hours during which you are normally awake, not the middle of the night. Get plenty of sleep (8–9 hours) before each trip.
Question: If you must cross into the oncoming lane as you make a right turn, you should
Answer: C. watch for oncoming traffic.
Explanation: To make a right turn, turn slowly to give yourself and others more time to avoid problems. If you must cross into the oncoming lane to make a turn, watch out for vehicles coming toward you. Give them room to go by or to stop. Don't back up for them, however, because you might hit someone behind you.
Question: To estimate a person's blood alcohol concentration (BAC), you need to know how much alcohol the person consumed and
Answer: C. how much the person weighs.
Explanation: Your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is affected by how much alcohol you drink, how quickly you drink it, and how much you weigh. The larger your body, the larger the volume through which the alcohol has to spread.
Question: Which of these is a sign of tire failure?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: The most obvious sign of a tire blowout is a loud "bang," but there are other signs too. If the vehicle thumps or vibrates heavily, it may be a sign that one of the tires has gone flat. If the steering feels "heavy," one of the front (steering) tires may have failed.
Question: Which of these statements about double-clutching and shifting is true?
Answer: A. You can use the tachometer to tell you when to shift.
Explanation:
Question: To prevent brake fade, you should
Answer: C. select a gear that will keep your vehicle at a safe speed on steep downgrades.
Explanation: If you keep applying the brakes to control your speed on steep downgrades, the brakes may fade (lose their effectiveness). Instead, shift into a low gear. This will generate a braking effect to slow the vehicle, known as engine braking. The lower the gear, the greater the engine braking effect. Apply the brakes only when engine braking is insufficient or you want to stop.
Question: You may get hung up on railroad tracks if
Answer: B. the tracks have a steep approach.
Explanation: Raised railroad crossings with steep approaches can cause your vehicle to get hung up on the tracks. This is more likely if you're driving a vehicle with low ground clearance (such as a lowboy, car carrier, or moving van).
Question: How far ahead should you look while driving?
Answer: C. 12–15 seconds
Explanation: While driving, you should scan the road 12–15 seconds ahead. At typical speeds in urban areas, your vehicle will travel about one block in 12–15 seconds. At 60 mph, your vehicle will travel a quarter of a mile in 15 seconds.
Question: What is the minimum tread depth for front tires?
Answer: A. 4/32 inch
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a front tire failure?
Answer: C. Vehicle fishtailing
Explanation: If a front tire fails, it can affect the steering. The steering will feel heavy, or the steering wheel may twist out of your hands. Failure of a rear tire can cause the rear of your vehicle to slide back and forth ("fishtail").
Question: In very hot weather, how often should you inspect your tires?
Answer: A. Every 2 hours or every 100 miles
Explanation:
Question: Under which of the following situations must you stop at a railroad grade crossing?
Answer: C. The cargo you're carrying makes stopping mandatory under federal or state regulations.
Explanation: A full stop is required at railroad grade crossings whenever (a) the nature of the cargo makes a stop mandatory under state or federal regulations, or (b) such a stop is otherwise required by law. For example, federal regulations require any CMV that is placarded for carrying hazardous materials to stop at every railroad grade crossing.
Question: To help you stay alert while driving, you should
Answer: C. take short breaks before you get drowsy.
Explanation: The monotony and boredom of a long drive can lead to highway hypnosis and drowsiness. To prevent this, stop for a break about once every two hours or 100 miles. Some cold and allergy medications can cause drowsiness, sedation, or disturbed coordination, which makes them dangerous for CMV operators. If you are unsure about the effects of a particular medication, check the warning label or ask your pharmacist or doctor.
Question: Which of these is true about the radiator shutters and the winterfront?
Answer: B. You should remove ice from the radiator shutters.
Explanation: In extremely cold weather, very cold air flowing onto the radiator and through the engine compartment can prevent the engine from warming up (and also keep your heater from working well). Radiator shutters or a winterfront restrict this air flow to let the engine warm up. However, don't overdo it. Keep the winterfront partially open or keep the radiator shutters free from ice. If the shutters freeze shut or the winterfront is closed too tightly, the engine may overheat from lack of sufficient air.
Question: You should take a break from driving
Answer: A. whenever you become drowsy.
Explanation:
Question: When you drive in the mountains, you will have to use lower gears to drive safely down grades. Which of these does NOT affect your choice of gears?
Answer: C. Type of tire tread
Explanation: To determine which low gear to use to begin a descent, consider the weather, the length and steepness of the downgrade, the weight of your cargo, and the road conditions.
Question: Which of these does NOT constitute an automatic failure of your CDL skills test?
Answer: B. Ending a backing exercise while over a boundary line
Explanation: Any of a variety of certain actions or inactions on your part can cause you to fail the entire CDL skills test. Of the four choices here, you must demonstrate to your test examiner that you can exit your vehicle safely whenever you have to. This includes properly securing the vehicle by setting the parking brakes and taking the ignition key with you. If you don't, you will automatically fail the entire CDL skills test. Also, failure to perform every one of the braking tests required for your vehicle, whether it's equipped with air brakes or hydraulic brakes, will constitute an automatic failure. Finally, overrunning a curb or sidewalk even slightly during the road test will also constitute an automatic failure. On the other hand, attempting to end a backing exercise while you're over a boundary line will lose you points, but it's not necessarily an automatic failure. Your examiner will tell you to move your vehicle inside the boundary lines, and your skills test will continue.
Question: How does vehicle weight affect stopping distance?
Answer: B. Empty trucks can take longer to stop than loaded trucks, but this is not normally the case for buses.
Explanation: The brakes and suspension of a truck are designed to handle heavy cargo. Trucks that are empty or only lightly loaded take longer to stop because the stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it easier to lock the wheels. This is not usually the case for buses, however.
Question: If you do not have a CB radio, what is the first thing you should do at an accident scene?
Answer: A. Protect the accident scene.
Explanation:
Question: Whenever you stop for a break during your trip, you should
Answer: B. check critical items such as the tires, brakes, and cargo tie-downs.
Explanation: Whenever you stop during your trip, check safety-critical items such as brakes, tires, lights, and coupling devices if any. Also make sure that your cargo is still secure.
Question: If you wish to turn left and there are two left-turn lanes, which of the following should you NOT do?
Answer: A. Start in the inside lane and swing right as you turn.
Explanation:
Question: To secure a large boulder for transport, which of these tiedowns should be used?
Answer: B. Chains
Explanation: Under federal regulations, a "large boulder" has a volume of more than 2 cubic meters or weighs more than 11,000 pounds. Each large boulder must be supported on at least two pieces of hardwood blocking that extend across the full width and 3/4 of the length of the boulder. Only chains can be used as tie-downs. The chains should be placed in valleys or notches on the top of the boulder, and arranged to prevent the chains from sliding across the rock surface. [49 CFR 393.136]
Question: Which of the following statements about night driving is true?
Answer: A. Many CMV accidents occur between midnight and 6:00 a.m.
Explanation:
Question: In your pre-trip inspection, you are checking your steering and exhaust systems. Which of these problems should be fixed before the vehicle is driven?
Answer: C. Steering play in excess of 10 degrees
Explanation: If there is more than 10 degrees of play in your steering wheel, your vehicle will be harder to steer. Have the problem corrected before you drive the vehicle. In cold weather, white exhaust "smoke" that soon disappears may just be water vapor from condensation. However, if white smoke persists long after the vehicle has warmed up, have the condition checked.
Question: If you have been drinking alcohol, then before you drive, you should
Answer: B. wait for it to wear off.
Explanation: Your body breaks down alcohol at a predictable rate. Typically, this is one standard drink per hour, where one standard drink equals 1.5 ounces of hard liquor, 5 ounces of wine, or 12 ounces of beer. Neither coffee nor fresh air nor a cold shower can increase that rate. You need to wait until the alcohol has been broken down. If you are caught driving a CMV while under the influence of alcohol, the consequences can be severe.
Question: Federal regulations do NOT require every CMV to have
Answer: A. a first-aid kit.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about accelerating is true?
Answer: C. Rough acceleration can cause mechanical damage.
Explanation: From a stopped position, accelerate smoothly and gradually. Jerking forward or rough acceleration can cause mechanical damage (possibly including damage to the coupling if you're pulling a trailer).
Question: How far into your trip should you make your first inspection of your cargo?
Answer: B. Within 50 miles
Explanation: Finding out that your load was poorly secured can prevent a major disaster. You must inspect the securement of your cargo within the first 50 miles and then every 150 miles or every three hours (whichever comes first) afterward. [2.1.6- Inspection During Trips; Section 2: Driving Safely; Illinois Commercial Drivers License Study Guide]
Question: If you must stop your vehicle beyond a curve that hides your vehicle from other drivers within 500 feet, place a reflective triangle
Answer: A. up to 500 feet behind the vehicle.
Explanation:
Question: Brake fade
Answer: C. can be caused by the brakes becoming too hot.
Explanation: Brakes use friction to convert the kinetic energy of your moving vehicle into heat. However, overuse of the brakes (which can happen if you don't use engine braking enough) can generate so much heat that brakes can fade (lose their effectiveness) or fail.
Question: According to the federal regulations on hours of service (HOS), when must you start to log your day's duty status?
Answer: D. At midnight
Explanation: Duty logging starts at midnight at the start of the day, no matter when you start driving on that day. You must log the entire 24 hours for each day that you drive. If you take a day off, you must still log that day (as off-duty) for the purpose of tracking your last 7 days.
Question: Each lane on an interstate highway is at least _______ wide.
Answer: A. 12 feet
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about downshifting for a long downhill grade is true?
Answer: A. Downshifting allows engine compression and friction to help the brakes slow the vehicle.
Explanation:
Question: Under federal regulations, you MUST be tested for drugs and alcohol, if you're involved in a crash that results in
Answer: A. death.
Explanation:
Question: When crossing or entering traffic with a heavy vehicle, you should remember which of the following?
Answer: A. Heavy vehicles need larger gaps in traffic than cars.
Explanation:
Question: You can use water to extinguish which of the following fires?
Answer: C. Tire fires
Explanation: Water can extinguish wood fires, paper fires, and tire fires. A burning tire must be cooled with lots of water. However, water on an oil or gasoline fire can spread the flames even farther. And because water can conduct electricity, never use water on an electrical fire because that can result in an electric shock.
Question: Which of the following statements about vehicle fires is true?
Answer: B. Poor trailer ventilation can cause flammable cargo to catch fire.
Explanation: Many things can cause fires, including underinflated tires, dual tires that touch, cargo that is improperly sealed or loaded, and cargo that is poorly ventilated.
Question: Can federal inspectors inspect your truck or bus?
Answer: C. Yes, and they might place it out-of-service.
Explanation: Federal or state inspectors may inspect your vehicle. If they find a problem that makes the vehicle potentially unsafe, they will put the vehicle out-of-service until the problem is fixed.
Question: Your employer told you to transport some cargo in a manner that you believed was unsafe. You refused, expressing your safety concerns. As a result, your employer took retaliatory action against you. What should you do?
Answer: C. File a complaint with OSHA.
Explanation: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Whistleblower Protection Program enforces the whistleblower provisions of more than 20 whistleblower statutes protecting employees from retaliation for reporting violations of various federal workplace laws. If your employer retaliated against you for expressing a job-related safety concern, you may file a complaint with OSHA within 30 days. ["The Whistleblower Protection Program," Occupational Safety and Health Administration, https://www.whistleblowers.gov/]
Question: Sometimes you must leave the road to avoid a hazard or emergency. When you do so, you should keep in mind which of the following?
Answer: C. It is less dangerous to drive onto the shoulder than to risk a collision.
Explanation: If an oncoming driver has drifted into your lane, try to escape to the right, even if it means leaving the pavement and driving onto the shoulder. Most shoulders are strong enough to support the weight of a large vehicle. Never allow a head-on collision. Head-on collisions are often fatal.
Question: What is the most important reason for your pre-trip inspection?
Answer: B. To make sure that the vehicle is safe
Explanation: The safety of the vehicle is always paramount.
Question: To fight a fire in the engine compartment, you should open the hood to target the base of the fire.
Answer: C. False
Explanation: If there's a fire under the hood, opening the hood will allow more oxygen to reach the fire, which can make the fire worse. Instead, try to shoot extinguishing foam through louvers or the radiator, or from the vehicle’s underside.
Question: How can you avoid wet brake problems?
Answer: A. Slow down, shift into a low gear, and gently apply the brakes.
Explanation:
Question: Why might your brakes start to fade going downhill?
Answer: B. Because they are overheating
Explanation: As your brakes start to heat up, they may become spongy and less effective. This is why it is essential to take advantage of engine braking. If you rely solely on your brakes, you may soon find yourself with no brakes at all.
Question: Which of the following statements about hazardous materials placards is true?
Answer: C. They must be affixed to all four sides of a vehicle.
Explanation: You placard your vehicle to warn everyone around you that you are transporting hazardous materials. Therefore, you must have placards on all four sides of your vehicle. However, not all packages of hazardous materials require placarding your vehicle. For example, relatively small quantities of consumer-grade chemicals such as drain openers and bleaches may be exempt. Federal regulation 49 CFR 172.500 exempts certain amounts and types of hazardous materials from placarding, but states may impose more stringent requirements. Check with your state's department of transportation.
Question: A major cause of fatal crashes is
Answer: A. driving too fast for road conditions.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is NOT a brake check you normally do during your walkaround inspection?
Answer: A. Brake adjustment
Explanation:
Question: Your hands should be at the _______ o'clock positions on the steering wheel.
Answer: B. 3 and 9
Explanation: Keeping your hands opposite each other on the steering wheel helps you stay in control if anything such as a pothole tries to wrench the wheel out of your hands.
Question: Your vehicle has hydraulic brakes. When traveling on a level road, you press the brake pedal and find that it goes to the floor. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: A. Pumping the brake may generate enough pressure to stop the vehicle.
Explanation:
Question: If you start to become sleepy while driving, what should you do?
Answer: B. Stop and sleep.
Explanation: The only way to overcome sleep debt is to sleep. Don't take any chances and don't try to beat nature, especially not with drugs or pills.
Question: Which of these may be a sign of tire failure?
Answer: C. Vibration
Explanation: If the vehicle thumps or vibrates heavily, it may be a sign that one of the tires has gone flat. With a rear tire, that may be the only sign you get. A blowout is more likely to make a loud bang than a hiss.
Question: Which of these statements about inspection of suspension components is true?
Answer: A. Axle mounts should be checked at each point where they are secured to the vehicle frame and axle.
Explanation:
Question: What is the first thing you should try to do if your brakes fail while you're driving downhill?
Answer: C. Get off the road as soon as possible.
Explanation: If your brakes fail while you're traveling downhill, use an escape ramp if one is available. If not, escape onto an open field or a side road that flattens out or turns uphill.
Question: What is the proper way to hold the steering wheel?
Answer: B. Firmly, with your hands on opposite sides of the wheel
Explanation: Hold the steering wheel firmly with both hands. Your hands should be on opposite sides of the steering wheel. If you hold the steering wheel with just one hand, it could pull out of your grasp if you hit a pothole or the curb.
Question: What is the normal operating range for coolant temperature in a large CMV?
Answer: A. 170 to 195 °F
Explanation:
Question: You can use your retarder
Answer: C. only where allowed by law.
Explanation: Retarders help slow a vehicle, reducing the need for using your brakes. However, these devices can be noisy, and some jurisdictions prohibit their use.
Question: When driving in an area with few streetlights on a clear night, if you cannot see well with your headlights, you should
Answer: A. use your high beams when legal and keep your interior lights off.
Explanation:
Question: Converter dollies built on or after March 1, 1998 are required to have anti-lock brakes. These dollies will have
Answer: C. a yellow malfunction lamp on the left side of the dolly.
Explanation: If the converter dolly has ABS, there will be an ABS malfunction light on the left side.
Question: When you're driving in snowy weather, your tire tread depth should
Answer: B. provide enough traction to drive through snow.
Explanation: Snow-covered road surfaces provide much less traction than dry surfaces. Your tires must provide enough traction to maneuver your vehicle on snow safely. Under federal regulations, your front tires must have a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch, and all other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch. For best traction, however, make sure that the treads are even deeper before you try to drive on snow. [49 CFR 570.62]
Question: The road you are driving on becomes very slippery because of glare ice. What should you do?
Answer: C. Stop driving as soon as you can safely do so.
Explanation: When traveling on ice, your vehicle's braking distance can increase tremendously. On ice, slow down to a crawl and stop driving as soon as you can do so safely.
Question: Which of these is a good thing to do when driving at night?
Answer: A. Drive slowly enough to stop within the range of your headlights.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these are proper uses of your brake lights?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Use your brake lights to warn other drivers that you are preparing to slow down or stop, or there is a hazard ahead for which you'll have to slow down.
Question: You are transporting a 22-foot-long piece of cargo on your flatbed trailer. There are no bulkheads or other devices blocking the cargo from moving in the forward direction. Under federal regulations, you must use at least ____ tiedown(s) to secure the cargo.
Answer: A. 4
Explanation:
Question: At a truck stop, you notice a young woman looking forlorn. What are some signs that she might be a victim of human trafficking?
Answer: D. All of the above are possible signs.
Explanation: Human trafficking is modern slavery. People are bought and sold for forced labor or sex work. As a trucker, you can help combat this criminal practice by staying alert. Some of the warning signs that a person may be a victim of human trafficking include the following: (1) The person appears to be malnourished or a victim of physical abuse. (2) The person seems unaware of his or her whereabouts. (3) The person is not allowed to speak for himself or herself. (4) Other persons are speaking of pimps or meeting a quota. (5) Trucks are flashing their headlights, perhaps to indicate a "buyer" location. If you notice such signs, try to ask the suspected victim a few gentle questions, but do not confront suspected traffickers yourself; leave that to the authorities. Visit the Truckers Against Trafficking website (https://truckersagainsttrafficking.org/) to learn more.
Question: A key principle to remember about loading cargo is to keep the load
Answer: B. balanced in the cargo area.
Explanation: Keep your load of cargo balanced. You need enough weight on both the steering and drive axles for adequate traction. However, too much weight on the steering axle can cause hard steering and even damage the steering axle and tires. Too much weight on one side can increase the risk that the cargo will shift.
Question: Which of the following should make you reject a vehicle until it is corrected?
Answer: B. Tires of different sizes
Explanation: Tires of different sizes can cause serious imbalances, steering problems, and braking difficulties.
Question: Which of the following health conditions is most likely to disqualify a person from driving CMVs?
Answer: C. Chronic marijuana use
Explanation: Many chronic health conditions are not necessarily disqualifications for driving CMVs. Your medical examiner will make a determination as to whether your condition is adequately controlled by treatment so you can still operate a CMV safely. However, regular use of a Schedule I controlled substance is an automatic disqualification from driving CMVs. Federal law prohibits Schedule I drugs from being legitimately prescribed for any purpose. Schedule I drugs include heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), marijuana, and methylenedioxymethamphetamine (ecstasy). Marijuana is still a federal Schedule I drug and hence still illegal at the federal level, so if you smoke marijuana regularly, you will not be qualified to drive CMVs even if marijuana is legal in your state. Federal regulation 21 CFR 1308.11 contains the full list of Schedule I controlled substances.
Question: Which of the following is true about drinking alcohol?
Answer: B. Alcohol first affects judgment and self-control.
Explanation: Alcohol first affects a driver's judgment and self-control, and then it affects coordination, vision, and muscle control. These are all essential driving skills. Impairment of these skills significantly increases the chance of an accident. Your liver burns alcohol at a set rate. There is nothing you can do to increase that rate.
Question: What are important reasons for performing a vehicle inspection?
Answer: C. Both of the above are important reasons.
Explanation: Federal and state laws require drivers to inspect their vehicles. It's really for their own safety and that of others. If you find a problem during a vehicle inspection and correct it before you drive, you may prevent a disaster later that could jeopardize lives.
Question: Which of these statements about rear drive-wheel braking skids is true?
Answer: C. With a tractor-trailer, the trailer can push the tractor sideways.
Explanation: Rear wheel braking skids occur when the rear drive wheels lock. Because locked wheels have less traction than rolling wheels, the rear wheels usually slide sideways in an attempt to "catch up" with the front wheels. With a bus or straight truck, the vehicle will slide sideways in a "spin out." With vehicles towing trailers, a drive-wheel skid can let the trailer push the towing vehicle sideways, causing a sudden jackknife.
Question: When getting in to start the engine and inspect inside the cab, you must
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: You perform these actions during Step 3 (Get In and Start Engine) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method. To check the engine, first make sure the parking brake is on. Shift into Neutral (for a manual transmission) or Park (for an automatic transmission). Then start the engine and listen for any unusual noises. There are many other actions you must perform in this step as well.
Question: If you must drive in fog,
Answer: C. use low-beam headlights and fog lights.
Explanation: If you must drive in fog, use low-beam headlights and fog lights for best visibility even in daytime, and be alert for other drivers who may have forgotten to turn on their lights.
Question: In which of these situations can strong winds most affect your driving?
Answer: B. Upon exiting a tunnel
Explanation: Inside a tunnel, you don't feel the effect of crosswinds pushing you sideways. But once you emerge from the tunnel into an open space, the crosswinds will suddenly hit you. If your vehicle is traveling alongside another vehicle, there is some chance that the crosswinds will push one of the vehicles against the other.
Question: Both federal and state law require __________ to inspect a commercial motor vehicle before a trip.
Answer: A. the driver
Explanation:
Question: If your brakes fail on a downgrade, what should you do?
Answer: A. Look outside your vehicle for another means of slowing down.
Explanation:
Question: You and your co-driver have just completed your trips for the day. If the two of you found any defects in your CMV, who must sign the Driver Vehicle Inspection Report (DVIR)?
Answer: A. Either you or your co-driver
Explanation:
Question: Your vehicle has tandem drive axles and is equipped with an inter-axle differential. You should NOT engage it if
Answer: B. a wheel is spinning.
Explanation: A differential lock allows you to lock the drive wheels on both sides of an axle together so they'll rotate at the same rate. On a vehicle with tandem drive axles, an inter-axle differential (IAD; also known as a power divider) allows you to lock both rear axles together so they'll rotate at the same rate. These devices can improve traction on a slippery surface and reduce the chance that one of the wheels will spin (because it's locked to another wheel that may not be spinning). However, don't engage these devices if a wheel is already spinning, because this might cause damage. In this situation, disengage the clutch to cut power to the drive wheels so they'll stop spinning, and then engage the differential lock (and inter-axle differential if available).
Question: If you are found guilty of texting while driving for the second time in three years, you will be disqualified from commercial driving for
Answer: B. 60 days.
Explanation: Federal regulations impose tough penalties for texting while driving. If you are convicted of texting for the second time in three years, you will be disqualified from commercial driving for 60 days. If you are convicted of texting for the third time in three years, you will be disqualified from commercial driving for 120 days.
Question: When caring for the injured at an accident scene, which of the following should you NOT do?
Answer: A. Allow injured persons to become chilled or overheated.
Explanation:
Question: In a CMV equipped with an unsynchronized manual transmission, when might you engage the clutch brake?
Answer: B. To shift into a low gear when you're stopped
Explanation: When driving a CMV with an unsynchronized manual transmission, you can shift gears by double clutching or floating the gears. To shift into low gear or reverse when your vehicle is stopped and the engine is idling, you can engage the clutch brake. This stops the transmission's input shaft (connected to the engine) from rotating, so you can smoothly shift into low gear or reverse. To engage the clutch brake, depress the clutch pedal all the way to the floor. Never engage the clutch brake while your vehicle is moving; doing so can damage the clutch brake.
Question: Under federal regulations, a carrier must maintain each Driver Vehicle Inspection Report (DVIR) for
Answer: C. 3 months.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, every carrier must maintain each DVIR, along with its certification of repairs, for three months from the date that the report was prepared. However, there are a few exceptions: (1) A carrier that operates only one CMV. (2) A CMV that transports passengers for non-business; in other words, not for hire. (3) A driveaway-towaway operation. Federal regulation 49 CFR 390.5 defines a "driveaway-towaway operation" as transporting an empty CMV to a repair facility, to a carrier's terminal for repair purposes, or to or from a dealership.
Question: Who is responsible for making sure all lights and mirrors are clean?
Answer: C. The vehicle's driver
Explanation: Even if the mirrors and lights have been cleaned already, they may get dirty before you take the vehicle out or on your trip. Always have a clean rag or sponge handy to keep them in the best condition.
Question: ABS uses computers and sensors to determine
Answer: A. when a wheel may lock up.
Explanation:
Question: Optional safety equipment may include emergency phone numbers, tire chains, and
Answer: C. tire changing equipment.
Explanation: Your vehicle must be equipped with a properly charged fire extinguisher and warning devices (flares, fusees, or reflective triangles). Optional emergency equipment can include tire chains in certain climates, tire changing equipment, emergency phone numbers, and an accident reporting packet.
Question: What is countersteering?
Answer: A. Turning the wheel back in the other direction after steering to avoid a hazard
Explanation:
Question: What is hydroplaning?
Answer: B. When the tires skim over the road surface
Explanation: On a wet road at lower speeds, modern tires will usually channel water away to maintain contact with the road. However, in deep water at higher speeds, the channeling action of the tires becomes less effective and the tires start to ride on a layer of water like water skis. This is called “hydroplaning.” It may result in a loss of braking and steering control.
Question: You're having some trouble backing your truck into the dock. Your helper offers to back your truck for you. You should
Answer: B. politely refuse.
Explanation: The safety of the cargo is your responsibility. Never allow anyone who is unauthorized by your carrier to drive your truck. The person may be planning to drive off with your truck. Evidently, it's happened before.
Question: How should you merge safely onto a freeway or expressway?
Answer: A. Wait for a large enough gap in traffic in the nearest lane before you merge.
Explanation:
Question: You are driving a tractor-trailer. If the tractor has antilock brakes (ABS) but the trailer doesn't,
Answer: C. you will have more control over the vehicle than if the tractor lacked ABS.
Explanation: Having ABS on only the tractor, only the trailer, or even only one axle, still gives you more control over the vehicle during braking than you would have without ABS at all. Brake normally. If only the tractor has ABS, you should be able to maintain steering control, and there is less chance of jackknifing. But keep your eye on the trailer and let up on the brakes (if you can safely do so) if it starts to swing out.
Question: What is the Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR)?
Answer: B. The maximum allowed weight of a vehicle and its load
Explanation: The Gross Vehicle Weight (GVW) is the actual weight of a single vehicle plus its load, at some point in time. The Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR) is the maximum combined weight of a vehicle and its cargo, that is permitted and specified by the vehicle's manufacturer.
Question: When backing and turning a large CMV, you should
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: Backing a large CMV is potentially hazardous. Before you start to back up, check your intended path of travel. Exit the cab and walk around the vehicle. Check your clearance to the sides and overhead, in and near the path of your vehicle. To make backing up easier and safer, turn toward the driver's side so you can watch the rear of your vehicle through your window.
Question: Which of the following is true about using engine braking on a downgrade?
Answer: C. The use of brakes adds to the braking effect of the engine.
Explanation: If you keep using your brakes to control your speed on a long, steep downgrade, the brakes may overheat and fade (become less effective). Instead, use engine braking, and use your brakes only as a supplement to the braking effect of the engine.
Question: Loads that are over-length, over-width, or overweight may require
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Over-length, over-width, or overweight loads require special transit permits. Such loads may also require pilot vehicles, a police escort, or special equipment such as flags, flashing lights, or "Wide Load" signs. Driving is usually limited to certain times. Each state may specify its own requirements and procedures to follow. You can learn about Illinois's detailed requirements by contacting the Illinois Department of Transportation or reviewing their webpage "Oversize/Overweight Permits" (http://idot.illinois.gov/doing-business/permits/Oversize-and-Overweight-Permits/index). [49 CFR 393.11], [49 CFR 393.87]
Question: Under federal regulations, every CMV with air brakes that was manufactured since _________, must have automatic slack adjusters.
Answer: C. October 20, 1994
Explanation: Under federal regulations, every CMV with air brakes that was manufactured since October 20, 1994, must have automatic slack adjusters. Antilock brakes (ABS) have been required on all buses with air brakes that were built since March 1, 1998. ABS has also been required on all tractors with air brakes that were built after March 1, 1997, and all trailers with air brakes that were built after March 1, 1998. [49 CFR § 393.53]
Question: At night, with your low-beam headlights on, you can see
Answer: D. 250 feet ahead.
Explanation: Your low beams let you see about 250 feet ahead. Your high beams let you see about 350–500 feet ahead.
Question: What should you do when you see a hazard in the roadway ahead of you?
Answer: A. Use your four-way flashers or brake lights to warn others.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following provide extra gears on some trucks?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Multi-speed rear axles (which tend to be less common in today's CMVs) and auxiliary transmissions provide additional gears that you can select while you drive. You select the additional gears with a control switch on the gearshift lever.
Question: Which of these statements about driving in areas with strong winds is true?
Answer: A. Wind is a big problem when your truck comes out of a tunnel.
Explanation:
Question: Underinflated tires can cause a tire fire.
Answer: A. True
Explanation:
Question: What is the purpose of the central apron in a roundabout?
Answer: D. To prevent you from overrunning the central island
Explanation: Because of the length of your vehicle, its rear wheels follow a significantly shorter path than its front wheels, a phenomenon known as off-tracking. While you are negotiating the curves of a roundabout, you might overrun the central island if it weren't for the central apron. The central apron (also called a truck apron) is a special area surrounding the central island, intended for use only by large vehicles. While driving through a roundabout, you can legally and safely drive over the apron if necessary without hitting the central island. The apron is usually slightly raised to discourage cars from driving on it while still making it possible for trucks to drive on it.
Question: Driving on snow-covered roads can increase your fuel consumption by as much as
Answer: D. 20%.
Explanation: Driving on snow-covered roads can increase fuel consumption by 15 to 20 percent.
Question: Your 5-axle tractor-trailer is equipped with a sliding fifth wheel. You find that the current weights are 10,900 pounds on the steering axle and 34,600 pounds on the drive axles. Assume 500 pounds for each fifth-wheel hole. Which way should you slide the fifth wheel to balance the weight on the tractor and be compliant with federal weight limits on the tractor axles?
Answer: C. 2 holes forward
Explanation: Under federal regulations, the maximum gross vehicle weight (GVW) is 80,000 pounds, the maximum gross weight on the drive axles is 34,000 pounds, and the maximum gross weight on the tandem axles is also 34,000 pounds. This leaves 12,000 pounds on the steering axle. In this case, the steering axle is quite underweight (by 1,100 pounds), and the drive axles are overweight by 600 pounds. The weight on the steering axle should be close to 12,000 pounds without exceeding it. To better balance the weight on the tractor, we need to move some weight off the drive axles and put it on the steering axle. To add weight to the steering axle and remove weight from the drive axles, move the fifth wheel forward (toward the steering axle). Assuming 500 pounds per hole, moving two holes will move 1,000 pounds from the drive axle to the steering axle. The resulting weights are 11,900 pounds on the steering axle and 33,600 pounds on the drive axles. [23 CFR 658.17]
Question: Which of these items is checked in a pre-trip inspection?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: There are many things you must check during your pre-trip inspection. During Step 1 (Vehicle Overview) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, check the condition of the windshield wipers. During Step 4 (Turn Off Engine and Check Lights) and Step 5 (Walk-Around Inspection), you'll check that the lights are working.
Question: If your brakes get wet on a rainy day, what can result?
Answer: B. Reduced braking power
Explanation: Brakes use friction to convert the kinetic energy of your moving vehicle into heat. If the brakes get wet, the brake shoes or brake pads may produce less friction. The brakes will grab, apply unevenly, or become weak. When you try to brake, your braking distance may increase, your vehicle may pull to one side, or the wheels may lock. On a wet road, locked wheels can cause a skid (or even a jackknife if you're pulling a trailer).
Question: When roads are slippery, you should
Answer: B. make turns as carefully as possible.
Explanation: On slippery roads, avoid sudden moves that could lead to a skid. Drive slowly and smoothly. Accelerate, brake, and turn gradually and gently.
Question: Your brakes can get wet when you drive in heavy rain. Wet brakes can cause
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Wet brakes can be weak, apply unevenly, or grab. This can cause loss of braking power, wheel lockups, pulling to one side or the other, and even a jackknife if you pull a trailer.
Question: When you intend to turn, how should you use your turn signals?
Answer: C. Do both of the above.
Explanation: Three good rules for the use of turn signals are as follows: (1) Signal early to discourage other drivers from trying to pass you. (2) Signal continuously. Keep your hands on the steering wheel and keep the turn signal on as you start the turn. (3) Cancel the turn signal after you've turned (if it hasn't turned off by itself already).
Question: Which of these is NOT an advantage of diesel engines as compared with gasoline engines?
Answer: C. Quieter operation
Explanation: For large CMVs, diesel engines offer several advantages over gasoline engines. A diesel engine's high compression ratio gives it higher thermal efficiency, and therefore, about 25% greater fuel efficiency. Diesel engines produce a lot of power at low rpms. Diesel engines can last more than twice as long as gasoline engines (although this obviously depends on the specific models of engines). Finally, diesel fuel is safer than gasoline. Gasoline is highly flammable, and its vapors are highly explosive. Diesel fuel won't burn readily unless it's compressed (as in the cylinders of diesel engines). However, diesel engines are typically louder than gasoline engines.
Question: According to the Federal Highway Administration's truck classifications, a medium-duty truck with a gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) of 26,000 pounds is in class
Answer: B. 6.
Explanation: According to the Federal Highway Administration's truck classifications, there are three classes of medium-duty trucks: 4, 5, and 6. Class 6 trucks are the heaviest of these, each with a gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) of 19,501–26,000 pounds. Classes 7 and 8 are heavy-duty trucks. Class 7 trucks have a GVWR of 26,001–33,000 pounds. They include heavy-duty single-unit trucks. Class 8 trucks, which include the big combination tractor-trailers, have a GVWR of over 33,000 pounds.
Question: When you see a hazard ahead, what should you do?
Answer: C. Start planning what to do if the hazard becomes an emergency.
Explanation: A hazard is only a potential emergency. Don't act out of panic, but calmly plan what to do if matters get worse.
Question: Identify component R.
Answer: B. Main spring
Explanation: Component R is a main leaf spring. Component U is an auxiliary leaf spring (sometimes called a helper spring), attached to the axle with the same U-bolt. Auxiliary springs are often employed in rear suspensions that have to support heavy loads.
Question: Which information about a driver is NOT entered into CDLIS?
Answer: B. Medical history
Explanation: The Commercial Driver’s License Information System (CDLIS) is a national database of all CDL holders and their driving records. CDLIS enables state driver licensing agencies (SDLAs; popularly known as DMVs) to ensure that each commercial driver has only one driver license and one complete driver record. When you apply for a CDL with the SDLA or DMV of your state, that agency must check CDLIS to ensure that you don't already hold a CDL from some other state, and you weren't already disqualified by some state from holding a CDL. After you obtain a CDL, if you move to another state, your state SDLA or DMV will also use CDLIS to transfer your driving record to the new state's SDLA or DMV. Moreover, whenever you are convicted of a moving violation, your state is required to enter that information into CDLIS. Whenever you apply for a commercial driving job, your prospective employer will check your driving record through CDLIS. Any moving violation convictions you've received from any state will show up there.
Question: Which of these statements is FALSE?
Answer: C. A drinker can control how fast his or her body absorbs and gets rid of alcohol.
Explanation: When you drink alcohol, it goes directly from your stomach into the bloodstream. Your body breaks down alcohol at a predictable rate. Typically, this is one standard drink per hour, where one standard drink equals 1.5 ounces of hard liquor, 5 ounces of wine, or 12 ounces of beer. Neither coffee nor fresh air nor a cold shower can increase that rate. You need to wait until the alcohol has been broken down.
Question: The stopping distance of a tractor-trailer traveling at 45 mph on dry pavement is approximately
Answer: C. the length of a football field.
Explanation: For a tractor-trailer traveling at 45 mph on dry pavement, the typical perception distance is about 117 feet, the typical reaction distance is about 50 feet, the typical air brake lag distance is about 27 feet, and the typical braking distance is about 152 feet, for a total stopping distance of 346 feet. In comparison, the length of a football field (including the two end zones) is 360 feet.
Question: Which of the following are signs of a suspicious package?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: If a package that you're supposed to transport is unlabeled, or if it has a strange smell, oily stains on the wrapper, or wires protruding from the package, don't touch or handle the package. Leave it where it is and notify your employer immediately. If you did touch the package, wash your hands thoroughly as a precaution. ["Suspicious Mail or Packages," United States Postal Service, September 2006]
Question: What is the minimum tread depth for tires other than steering axle tires?
Answer: B. 2/32 inch
Explanation: Steering axle tires must have a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch. All other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch.
Question: How long does it take a typical tractor-trailer to clear a single railroad track? A double railroad track?
Answer: C. It takes 14 seconds to clear a single track and more than 15 seconds to clear a double track.
Explanation: A typical tractor-trailer will take at least 14 seconds to fully clear a single railroad track and more than 15 seconds to fully clear a double track.
Question: What three things related to cargo are the driver's responsibility?
Answer: B. Inspecting the cargo, recognizing overloads, and properly securing the cargo
Explanation: As a commercial truck driver, you are responsible for the cargo you carry. This includes making sure it is balanced, secured, and not overloaded. If the cargo contains hazardous materials, you must also inspect it for proper labels, shipping papers, and placards.
Question: When driving in work zones, you should
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: In a work zone, drive slowly and carefully. Use your brake lights and four-way flashers to warn drivers behind you.
Question: Your employer assigns you a task that you believe may result in serious injury to you. Under federal law, you can refuse to do the task, but only if which of these conditions are met?
Answer: D. All of the above conditions must be met.
Explanation: Section 405 of the Surface Transportation Assistance Act (STAA) protects you from employer retaliation if you refuse a task because you believe it violates federal laws or regulations or may result in serious injury to you or others. However, to be entitled to such protection, you must have first asked your employer to correct the problem, your employer refused to do it, you asked your employer for other work to perform, and any other reasonable person would agree with you about the violation or risk of serious injury. If your employer does retaliate against you for your refusal to do the task, you may file a complaint with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
Question: You must park on the side of a level, straight, undivided two-lane road. Where should you place the reflective triangles?
Answer: C. One within 10 feet of the rear of the vehicle, one about 100 feet to the rear, and one about 100 feet in front of the vehicle
Explanation: This is required by federal regulation 49 CFR 392.22. This regulation also specifies where to place warning devices on other types of roadways such as curves, one-way roads, and divided roadways. These situations are also covered in the section on "Communicating Your Presence" in the Illinois Commercial Driver's License Study Guide.
Question: Which of these statements is true about drugs?
Answer: B. The use of alcohol or drugs can lead to a collision or an arrest.
Explanation: Some prescription drugs can impair your driving abilities. Some drugs can make you drowsy or impair your coordination. Stimulants can impair your concentration and affect your vision. And once the stimulant wears off, you may "crash" (feel even more drowsy and tired than you did before). Take a prescription drug only if your doctor assures you that the drug won't impair your driving abilities.
Question: While driving, you see a small (one-foot-square) cardboard box ahead in your lane. You should
Answer: C. steer around it without making a sudden or unsafe move.
Explanation: You have no way of knowing what may be inside a seemingly harmless-looking object on the roadway. Even cardboard boxes, paper or cloth sacks, or plastic containers may contain some solid or heavy material or a sharp object capable of causing damage. Always scan the roadway at least 12 to 15 seconds ahead so that you can spot such obstacles in time to steer around them safely.
Question: How should you check for leaks in hydraulic brakes?
Answer: B. Pump the brake pedal 3 times, then hold it down for 5 seconds.
Explanation: Pumping the brake pedal should cause resistance. Then you should be able to hold the brake pedal for 5 seconds without feeling any weakness or give.
Question: The Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA) defines eight different levels of roadside inspections. Which level includes the most comprehensive inspection?
Answer: C. 1
Explanation: The Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA) developed the National Roadside Inspection Program, which defines eight different levels of inspections, each with its own list of items to be inspected. Level 1 is the most comprehensive. Both the driver and the vehicle are checked. The inspector checks the vehicle by a walkaround inspection and by getting physically underneath the vehicle to check for defects there. Level 2 is similar to Level 1, except the inspector doesn't get underneath the vehicle. Only a walkaround inspection is performed on the vehicle.
Question: In a moving vehicle, you should wear your seatbelt
Answer: C. at all times.
Explanation: Regardless of whether you're a passenger or the driver, you should wear your seatbelt at all times while the vehicle is moving. Seatbelts are proven to save lives and reduce injuries. Federal regulations require the driver and all passengers who are seated in a moving commercial motor vehicle (CMV) to wear seatbelts (unless, of course, the seats aren't equipped with them). [49 CFR 392.16]
Question: How do you perform progressive shifting to reduce fuel consumption?
Answer: D. Do both (a) and (b).
Explanation: Progressive shifting is a technique for shifting gears that improves fuel economy. Instead of upshifting when your tachometer approaches the top of its normal operating rpm range, upshift into the next higher gear as soon as possible. The rpm at which you need to upshift will get higher as you select higher gears.
Question: If you are involved in a collision but are not seriously injured, what must you do?
Answer: C. Do both of the above.
Explanation: If you've been involved in an accident, first try to prevent another accident. Move your vehicle to the side of the road, switch on your four-way flashers, and set out your warning devices. Next, notify the appropriate authorities and request emergency assistance. Until emergency personnel arrive, do what you can to help others. Don't move injured persons unless there is a danger of fire or explosion. Try to keep injured persons from becoming chilled or overheated. If you've been trained in first aid, help the injured. If someone is bleeding, apply pressure to the wound to stop it.
Question: In which of these situations should you consider turning off your vehicle's retarder?
Answer: A. Under wet or icy road conditions
Explanation:
Question: Which of these will help keep an engine cool in hot weather?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: To ensure that your vehicle's engine won't overheat, make sure that there is adequate coolant and engine oil, and check that the coolant hoses are in good condition and not leaking. (Both coolant and oil help an engine stay cool.) Also check that the V-belt is tight enough. (A loose belt may not turn the fan or water pump adequately, which can cause the engine to overheat.)
Question: When looking ahead of your vehicle while you are driving, you should look
Answer: C. back and forth, near and far.
Explanation: When driving your vehicle, look ahead a full 12–15 seconds. Be aware of what is happening all around your vehicle, both farther from it and closer to it. Keep shifting your attention back and forth, near and far, left and right, so that you can constantly scan all these areas.
Question: To prevent a load from shifting, there should be at least one tie-down for every ____ feet of cargo.
Answer: A. 10
Explanation:
Question: You are checking your tires for a pre-trip inspection. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: B. Tires of mismatched sizes should not be used on the same vehicle.
Explanation: Tires should never be mismatched in size or type. Radial tires and bias-ply tires should not be used together on the same vehicle. Steering axle tires must have a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch. All other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch.
Question: Implied consent means that when you operate a CMV on public roads, you
Answer: B. consent to be tested for alcohol in your blood.
Explanation: When you operate a CMV on public roads, you imply consent to be tested for blood alcohol concentration (BAC) upon the request of law enforcement. If you are convicted of refusing to be tested, you will lose your CDL for at least one year if this was your first offense. [49 CFR 391.15]
Question: What effects can wet brakes cause?
Answer: A. Brakes can grab or become weak.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these turns the torque by 90 degrees?
Answer: B. Differential
Explanation: A differential uses a series of gears to accomplish several functions. First, it transfers torque from the driveshaft to the axle. Because the axle is at 90 degrees from the driveshaft, the differential also turns the torque by 90 degrees accordingly. The outside of a curved road is longer than the inside. On such a curve, the differential lets the outside half of the axle turn faster than the inside half of the axle, so that the outside wheels can cover a greater distance than the inside wheels. If there were no differential, the outside wheels would turn at the same rate as the inside wheels, causing at least some of the wheels to drag on the pavement.
Question: In your logbook, which of these do you record in the Remarks section?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: In your logbook, you must record each change of duty status, accurate to the nearest quarter hour (15 minutes). For each change, enter the location of the change and the reason for it in the Remarks section. Federal regulations refer to this information as an annotation, and electronic logging devices (ELDs) should have a way to enter such annotations electronically. Another use for the Remarks section is to record and annotate short-duration changes of duty status (those lasting less than 15 minutes), such as stopping for a few minutes to check the cargo securement. If you're temporarily exempt from some hours of service regulations because of an emergency or adverse condition, you should note that in the Remarks section, too. Finally, in the Remarks section, you should also identify the loads you picked up. One way (but not the only way) to identify a load is to enter the bill of lading number in the Remarks section.
Question: Name some things you should check on the front of your vehicle during your pre-trip inspection.
Answer: B. Low beams, high beams, four-way flashers, and turn signals
Explanation: During Step 4 and Step 5 of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, you'll check the various lights at the front of your vehicle to make sure that they're all working properly.
Question: Which of these statements is true about speed management?
Answer: C. On slippery roads, it takes longer to stop and it is harder to turn without skidding.
Explanation: Slippery roads provide less traction. Your vehicle's braking distance will increase (especially on a road covered in snow or ice) and turns will be more likely to cause skids. For safety, reduce your speed by about one-third on a wet road or about one-half on a snow-covered road. On an ice-covered road, slow down to a crawl and consider stopping altogether.
Question: You should downshift in advance before
Answer: D. entering a curve or downgrade.
Explanation: Downshifting before starting down a hill allows you to take advantage of engine braking. You should downshift to the gear required, which is usually lower than the gear required to climb the hill. Downshifting before a curve will slow you down and help you get the power you will need to accelerate out of the curve.
Question: Identify component K.
Answer: B. Front axle hanger
Explanation: A front (steering axle) suspension, like the one shown here, may also employ shock absorbers to further reduce up-and-down movements, producing a smoother ride. The axle is fastened to the suspension with a U-bolt.
Question: Which of the following vehicles will have the longest stopping distance?
Answer: C. Bobtail tractor
Explanation: The brakes and suspension of a truck are designed to handle heavy cargo. Trucks that are empty or only lightly loaded take longer to stop because the stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it easier to lock the wheels. (This is not usually the case for buses, however.) Likewise, "bobtail" tractors (tractors without semitrailers) can take even longer to stop than an unloaded tractor-trailer. Be very careful when driving a "bobtail" tractor.
Question: How should you care for conscious accident victims?
Answer: B. Keep them warm.
Explanation: Do not move accident victims unless there is a danger of fire or explosion or from passing traffic. Do not give them food, drinks, or drugs because that might worsen their symptoms or injuries. If someone is bleeding heavily, try to stanch it by applying pressure. Otherwise, just keep them warm until medical help arrives.
Question: You are driving a tractor-trailer at 55 mph on dry pavement. About how much total distance will you need to bring it to a stop?
Answer: B. The length of a football field
Explanation: For a tractor-trailer traveling at 55 mph on dry pavement, the typical perception distance is about 142 feet, the typical reaction distance is about 61 feet, and the typical braking distance is about 216 feet, for a total stopping distance of 419 feet. Air brake lag distance adds another 32 feet to this total. In comparison, the length of a football field (including the two end zones) is 360 feet.
Question: When you apply for a CMV driver's job with a prospective DOT-regulated employer, that employer must check whether you failed any DOT-regulated employer's test for drugs or alcohol within the past
Answer: C. 3 years.
Explanation: When you apply for a CMV driver's job with a prospective DOT-regulated employer, that employer is required to query the FMCSA Drug & Alcohol Clearinghouse to find out whether you failed any DOT-regulated employer's test for drugs or alcohol within the past three years. ("DOT-regulated" employers include all employers that are subject to the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations.) You must give the prospective employer written authorization to perform this background check on you.
Question: If the vehicle in front of you is smaller than yours, it can probably
Answer: A. stop faster than you.
Explanation:
Question: In your mirror, you see a car approaching from the rear. The next time you check your mirror, you don't see the car. To change lanes, you should
Answer: A. wait until you are sure the car isn't in your blind spot.
Explanation:
Question: Identify component J.
Answer: C. Vehicle frame
Explanation: The vehicle frame is the main supporting structure of the vehicle, to which all other components are attached. It is supported by the vehicle's suspension.
Question: Perception distance is the distance that your vehicle travels
Answer: A. from the time that your eyes see something, to the time that your brain recognizes it.
Explanation:
Question: What is the most important reason to signal well before you turn?
Answer: D. To discourage other drivers from trying to pass you
Explanation: Warn the drivers behind you that you're about to turn. If you don't signal in time, they may try to pass you on the inside.
Question: Which of these can affect the amount of off-tracking of your vehicle?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The amount of off-tracking depends on three factors: the length of the vehicle, the sharpness of the curve or turn, and the amount of sideways drag on the rear tires. In general, the longer the vehicle, the greater the off-tracking. In a tractor-trailer, the amount of off-tracking depends on both the distance from the steering axle to the trailer kingpin, and the distance from the trailer kingpin to the trailer rear wheels. If your trailer is equipped with sliding tandems, then sliding the tandems backward will increase off-tracking. Also, the sharper the curve or turn, the greater the off-tracking. And the stronger the sideways drag on the rear tires, the greater the off-tracking.
Question: As you approach a work crew on the highway, you should
Answer: D. slow down.
Explanation: Road workers may have their backs to you and may be operating heavy machinery that will keep them from hearing you. Slow down and be prepared if some of the workers present a hazard.
Question: Under federal regulations, on any interstate highway, the maximum allowed gross weight on the tandem axles of a 5-axle tractor-trailer is
Answer: A. 34,000 pounds.
Explanation:
Question: A load that is over-length, over-width, or overweight
Answer: C. requires a special transit permit.
Explanation: Over-length, over-width, or overweight loads require special transit permits. Such loads may also require pilot vehicles, a police escort, or special equipment such as flags, flashing lights, or "Wide Load" signs. Driving is usually limited to certain times. Each state may specify its own requirements and procedures to follow. [49 CFR 393.11], [49 CFR 393.87]
Question: While you're driving, ice builds up on your wipers and they no longer clean the windshield. What should you do?
Answer: B. Stop safely and fix the problem.
Explanation: If your view through the windshield is obscured because your windshield wipers aren't clearing the windshield, pull over as soon as possible and fix the problem. Remember: If you can't see, you can't drive.
Question: If you are confronted by an aggressive driver, what is the most important thing you should do?
Answer: B. Get out of the driver's way.
Explanation: First and foremost, make every attempt to get out of the driver's way. Don't let your pride or ego keep you from doing this. Don't challenge the aggressive driver by speeding up or attempting to hold your own in your travel lane.
Question: Load binders are used for what purpose?
Answer: D. To tighten tiedown chains
Explanation: A load binder (also known as a chain binder) is used to tighten a tiedown chain so the load can't shift. Some load binders are tightened with a lever; others use a ratchet mechanism.
Question: Which of these is a good rule to follow when using a fire extinguisher?
Answer: B. Aim at the base of the fire.
Explanation: In a fire, your first priority is your safety and that of others. To use a fire extinguisher to put out a fire, stand upwind from the fire at a safe distance. Let the wind carry the extinguisher from you to the fire. Aim the extinguisher at the source or base of the fire, not up in the flames. Persist until the burning material has cooled to the point that the fire cannot restart.
Question: Polarized gladhands on a tractor
Answer: B. can be incorrectly connected to non-polarized trailer couplers.
Explanation: To prevent cross-connection of the supply and service lines, polarized gladhands and polarized trailer couplers are now available. The supply gladhands and couplers are shaped slightly differently from the service gladhands and couplers, making cross-connection impossible. However, polarized gladhands can still be connected to universal (non-polarized) trailer couplers, so cross-connection in this situation is still possible.
Question: Which of the following is NOT a type of retarder?
Answer: C. Robotic
Explanation: There are four basic types of retarders: electric, engine, exhaust, and hydraulic.
Question: What is the primary cause of fatal crashes?
Answer: A. Driving too fast
Explanation:
Question: When starting a bus on a level surface with good traction, there is often no need for
Answer: B. the parking brake.
Explanation: When you start your vehicle, make sure you don't roll backward, or else you may hit something behind you. Put on the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling backward. (Note: this may not be necessary when you're on a level surface with good traction.) Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back.
Question: While driving, you should use your mirrors to check
Answer: C. where the rear of your vehicle is while you make turns.
Explanation: Before driving your vehicle, adjust your mirrors to show parts of your vehicle as well as what's around your vehicle. During your trip, you can use your mirrors to keep an eye on your tires and open cargo if any. When you turn, check your mirrors to make sure that the rear of your vehicle isn't hitting anything. If you're pulling a trailer, use your mirrors to keep an eye on it. If it starts to jackknife, you'll be able to spot it in your mirrors.
Question: Where might a FAST card come in handy?
Answer: C. At the border
Explanation: The Free and Secure Trade (FAST) program is a commercial clearance program for known low-risk shipments entering the United States from Canada and Mexico. The FAST program offers pre-authorized importers, carriers, and drivers expedited clearance for eligible products. FAST enrollment is open to truck drivers from the United States, Canada, and Mexico. Dedicated FAST vehicle lanes at certain border crossings process commercial cargo to speed up the process of crossing the border. To obtain a FAST card, you must have a valid US passport and apply for the card at the Trusted Traveler Programs website of the Department of Homeland Security. Then you'll need to schedule an in-person interview. Note that you need one FAST card to cross the Mexican border and a different FAST card to cross the Canadian border.
Question: In a motor vehicle, the components that transmit power from the engine are known as
Answer: A. the drivetrain.
Explanation:
Question: While you're driving at low speeds, what distance should you look ahead of your vehicle?
Answer: C. One block
Explanation: While driving, you should scan the road 12–15 seconds ahead. At typical speeds in urban areas, your vehicle will travel about one block in 12–15 seconds. At 60 mph, your vehicle will travel a quarter of a mile in 15 seconds.
Question: How do you test hydraulic brakes for leaks?
Answer: B. Pump the brake pedal three times; then apply firm pressure to the pedal and hold it for five seconds. The pedal should not move.
Explanation: To test a vehicle equipped with hydraulic brakes for leaks in the brakes, first pump the brake pedal three times. Next, apply firm pressure to the brake pedal for five seconds. If it moves, the brakes may have a leak or some other problem.
Question: Which piece of emergency equipment must be carried in a CMV?
Answer: A. Warning devices
Explanation:
Question: You should check the following for looseness, sticking, damage, or improper settings
Answer: C. all of the above.
Explanation: During Step 3 of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, confirm that the steering wheel, clutch, gas pedal, brakes, transmission, horn, windshield wipers, lights, and turn signals are all in good condition and neither sticking nor too loose. There are other actions you must perform in this step as well.
Question: Which of these is NOT something you should do if your headlights are not working properly?
Answer: C. Leave your high beams on.
Explanation: To avoid blinding other drivers, dim your headlights whenever you're within 500 feet of an oncoming vehicle or within 500 feet of a vehicle you are following.
Question: Under federal regulations, coach buses and truck tractors manufactured since ______ are required to be equipped with electronic stability control (ESC).
Answer: B. 2019
Explanation: Electronic stability control (ESC) is a system that helps prevent skids. When the system senses that your vehicle isn't moving in the same direction that your steering wheel is pointing, it automatically applies the brakes on certain wheels selectively to bring the vehicle back under your control. ESC has been required on Class 7–8 truck tractors and buses (except school buses, perimeter-seating buses, and transit buses) since August 1, 2019. [49 CFR 571.136]
Question: Which of these statements is true about other drivers?
Answer: C. Rental truck drivers are often not used to the limited vision and pose a hazard.
Explanation: A car driver who has never driven a truck before will be unused to a rental truck's size and limited view toward its sides and rear. This lack of truck driving experience makes a rental truck a hazard on the road.
Question: Your tractor-trailer's brakes can get wet when you drive through heavy rain. What can this cause when you apply the brakes?
Answer: B. Trailer jackknife
Explanation: When you're driving in heavy rain or through deep standing water, your brakes will get wet. Water in the brakes can cause the brakes to be weak, to apply unevenly, or to grab. This can cause lack of braking power, wheel lockups, pulling to one side or the other, and even a jackknife if you're pulling a trailer.
Question: While climbing onto a truck to secure the load, you should maintain ____ point(s) of contact.
Answer: A. 3
Explanation:
Question: Your vehicle has hydraulic brakes. If the brakes fail while you're driving, what should you try?
Answer: A. Pump the brake pedal.
Explanation:
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a passenger-carrying vehicle must not drive for more than _______ while on duty.
Answer: B. 10 hours
Explanation: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a passenger-carrying vehicle must not drive for more than 10 hours following 8 consecutive hours off duty. The driver may not drive at all after having been on duty for 15 hours. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, if you encounter adverse driving conditions during your trip that prevent you from completing your trip within the allowed driving time, you may extend your allowed driving time by an additional
Answer: B. 2 hours.
Explanation: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, if you encounter adverse driving conditions during your trip that prevent you from completing your trip within the allowed driving time, you may extend your allowed driving time by an additional two hours. "Adverse driving conditions" include bad weather and unusual road or traffic conditions that were not known about in advance. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: You're driving on a curve to the left. How can you ensure that your rear wheels stay in your lane?
Answer: A. Keep your front wheels close to the right edge of your lane.
Explanation:
Question: Name some suspension system defects.
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Leaking shock absorbers and broken or missing leaves are two of the more common defects that may occur in a suspension system.
Question: When you are passing a pedestrian, a bicyclist, or another vehicle, you should assume that they
Answer: C. may move into your traffic lane.
Explanation: When passing another vehicle, pedestrian, or bicyclist, assume that they have not seen you and might move into your way. Communicate your presence to them and proceed with caution.
Question: Trucks and buses are subject to certain laws, restrictions, and regulations. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: A. Laws and restrictions can vary from place to place.
Explanation:
Question: When driving a commercial vehicle whose height is over 13 feet, you should
Answer: A. stop and make sure if you aren't certain that a clearance is high enough.
Explanation:
Question: Under federal regulations, which of these are considered "highways"?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: You may have encountered the term "highway" in state or federal regulations. In state and federal regulations, the word "highway" means something different from what it often means in ordinary conversation. When many people speak of "driving on the highway," they usually mean a freeway or expressway. But federal regulation 49 CFR 390.5 defines a "highway" as any road, street, or way, whether on public or private property, that is open to public travel. In other words, any public road qualifies as a highway in federal regulations.
Question: Which of these describes how you should use the brake pedal on a steep downhill grade?
Answer: B. Release the brake when you are 5 mph below your safe speed and let your speed come back up to your safe speed. Then repeat braking to 5 mph below your safe speed.
Explanation: On a long or steep downgrade, don't keep applying your brakes continuously because this might cause them to fade (become less effective). Instead, apply your brakes only as a supplement to engine braking. Use the following technique: Select a "safe" speed. Let your vehicle reach this speed. Brake just hard enough until you are going 5 mph slower. Then let your speed increase back to the "safe" speed. Keep varying your speed up and down this way. This technique is known as snub braking or snubbing.
Question: Which of the following is true about a vehicle with a high center of gravity?
Answer: B. The heaviest parts of the cargo should be underneath the lightest parts.
Explanation: Cargo that is piled up high raises a vehicle's center of gravity, making the vehicle top-heavy and therefore more prone to rollovers. This is especially true if the heaviest parts of the cargo are near the top. You can lower the center of gravity by placing the heaviest parts of the cargo underneath the lightest parts.
Question: GPS navigation smartphone apps designed for truckers can take which of the following into account?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: When planning or following a route, you have a lot more to consider than a car driver does. GPS navigation apps designed for truckers are programmed to deal with many of those issues. If you input the dimensions and weight of your truck, the navigation app will select an appropriate route so you won't violate road restrictions on trucks, height restrictions, or legal truck weight limits. For loads of hazardous materials, some apps will select a route that avoids roads on which hazmat transportation is prohibited. Apps can also help you locate truck stops, diesel fuel stations, weigh stations, and DOT inspection stations. However, always bear in mind that GPS navigators aren't perfect. Truckers sometimes complain that their navigators misled them with wrong or confusing navigation instructions. For this reason, it's wise to double-check the GPS navigator's directions against hardcopy paper maps, such as those in the Rand McNally Deluxe Motor Carriers' Road Atlas. Like the GPS navigators, the Atlas also contains information on restricted routes, low-clearance locations, and weigh station locations.
Question: If you are driving a long distance, you should
Answer: A. stop often and take short breaks before you feel really drowsy or tired.
Explanation:
Question: When driving in work zones, you should
Answer: C. use your four-way flashers and brake lights to warn others.
Explanation: In a work zone, drive slowly and carefully. Use your brake lights and four-way flashers to warn drivers behind you.
Question: In which of these situations can strong winds most affect your driving?
Answer: A. Exiting a tunnel
Explanation:
Question: If you must drive in fog, what should you do?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The best advice for driving in fog is: don’t. It is preferable that you pull off the road into a rest area or truck stop until visibility is better. If you must drive, be sure to obey all fog-related warning signs and slow down before you enter fog. Turn on your 4-way flashers. This will give vehicles approaching you from behind a quicker opportunity to notice your vehicle. Use roadside highway reflectors as guides to determine how the road may curve ahead of you and listen for traffic you cannot see. Avoid passing other vehicles and don’t stop along the side of the road, unless absolutely necessary.
Question: Federal cargo securement rules apply to what types of commercial vehicles?
Answer: C. Trucks, truck tractors, semitrailers, full trailers, and tractor-pole trailers with a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 10,000 pounds
Explanation: Federal cargo securement rules apply to trucks, truck tractors, semitrailers, full trailers, and tractor-pole trailers with a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 10,000 pounds.
Question: Which of these vehicles is most likely to be affected by strong winds?
Answer: A. A tractor pulling empty doubles
Explanation:
Question: For your safety, when setting out reflective triangles, you should
Answer: A. hold the triangles between yourself and oncoming traffic.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is the most important thing to remember about emergency braking?
Answer: C. If the wheels are skidding, you cannot control the vehicle.
Explanation: In an emergency, avoid hard braking. Hard braking can lock the wheels, which may cause a skid and loss of control. Instead, use stab braking (unless your vehicle has antilock brakes) or controlled braking.
Question: While you're driving, if your reaction time increases by _______, your chances of a crash will double.
Answer: A. ½ second
Explanation:
Question: Why are placards used?
Answer: A. To communicate the risk
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about emergency braking is FALSE?
Answer: C. How you brake in an emergency situation is not that important.
Explanation: In an emergency, you may have to brake to avoid a collision – but hard braking can cause a skid. Learn proper braking technique. Brake in a way that will keep your vehicle in a straight line and allow you to turn if it becomes necessary. You can use either the "controlled braking" method or the "stab braking" method, depending on the situation.
Question: Which of these will help keep an engine cool in hot weather?
Answer: A. Making sure the engine has the right amount of oil
Explanation:
Question: Front-end header boards
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: A front-end header board is located behind the cab. The header board prevents cargo from moving forward (and possibly injuring you) in the event of a crash or sudden stop. Check to make sure that the header board is secure, upright, and undamaged (no dents, no corrosion, no missing rivets, etc.).
Question: What should you do if a car coming toward you at night keeps its high beams on?
Answer: C. Look toward the right edge of your lane or the right edge of the road.
Explanation: If an oncoming vehicle has not dimmed its headlights, don't retaliate with your own high beams. Instead, slow down, keep right, look away from the vehicle, and steer by the right edge of the road until the vehicle has passed you.
Question: Which of the following strategies can help prevent cargo theft?
Answer: D. All of the above can help.
Explanation: There are a variety of ways to help prevent cargo theft, and you should employ several of them. First, be aware of your surroundings. While driving, check frequently whether you're being followed. Park only in well-lit, relatively secure locations. Stay in communication with dispatch. Whenever you stop at a rest area or truck stop, let dispatch know about it. An uncoupled trailer should be locked so it can't be moved. Kingpin locks and landing gear locks are available for this purpose. Always lock your truck whenever you must leave it unattended. ["How to stop cargo thieves dead in their tracks," American Trucker, August 31, 2019]
Question: Identify component A.
Answer: B. Tie rod
Explanation: Component A is the tie rod. The tie rod connects the left and right steering knuckles to each other so that the left and right front wheels will turn in unison.
Question: If you are found guilty of a railroad crossing violation, you will lose your CDL for at least _______ for a first offense.
Answer: A. 60 days
Explanation:
Question: Why can a damaged exhaust system be hazardous to you?
Answer: B. Poisonous fumes can enter the cab or sleeping compartment.
Explanation: The exhaust system is designed to help remove toxic gases produced by the engine. A leak in the exhaust system can allow poisonous carbon monoxide (CO) to seep into the cab or sleeping compartment. A buildup of CO is more likely in cold weather, when you may have the cab windows closed.
Question: Which of these statements about certain types of cargo is true?
Answer: A. Unstable loads such as hanging meat or livestock can require extra caution on curves.
Explanation:
Question: How should you react to an aggressive driver?
Answer: C. Give the driver the benefit of the doubt.
Explanation: To help reduce stress caused by the actions of other drivers, always give the other driver the benefit of the doubt. Try to imagine why he or she is driving that way. Whatever the reason, it has nothing to do with you. However, if you are confronted by an aggressive driver, get out of the driver's way and let the driver go by.
Question: Which of these statements about hazardous materials is true?
Answer: C. All hazardous materials present a health and safety threat.
Explanation: Hazardous materials (HazMat) are products that pose a risk to health, safety, or property during transportation. However, not all amounts of all hazardous materials require you to placard your vehicle. Some classes of hazardous materials (such as Division 2.2: Non-Flammable Gases) require placards only if you are transporting at least 1,001 pounds including the package. Some jurisdictions may restrict the routes you may take to transport hazardous materials.
Question: In a four-stroke diesel engine, fuel is first injected into the cylinder during the
Answer: D. compression stroke.
Explanation: Most trucks on the road today have four-stroke diesel engines. During the intake stroke, the downward motion of the piston pulls fresh air into the cylinder. During the compression stroke, the upward motion of the piston compresses the air. This causes the temperature of the air to rise sharply. Toward the end of the compression stroke, the fuel injector sprays fuel into the hot compressed air. The fuel-air mixture is now hot enough to ignite. As the power (combustion) stroke begins, fuel continues being injected, and the combustion of the fuel-air mixture produces energy to push the piston downward again.
Question: If a straight vehicle (no trailer or articulation) goes into a front-wheel skid, it will
Answer: C. go straight ahead even if the steering wheel is turned.
Explanation: In a front-wheel skid, the front end tends to go in a straight line regardless of how much you turn the steering wheel.
Question: In which of the following situations should you use your horn?
Answer: A. To help you avoid a collision
Explanation:
Question: What is the major purpose of Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF)?
Answer: C. To reduce emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOx)
Explanation: The exhaust gases of diesel engines include nitrogen oxides (NOx), a major contributor to air pollution and acid rain. To reduce most nitrogen oxide emissions, diesel exhaust fluid (DEF) is sprayed into the stream of exhaust gases. DEF reacts with the NOx to form harmless nitrogen gas and water vapor. According to the official state CDL manual, the DEF tank should be kept more than 1/8 full. (Typically, a CMV uses about 1 gallon of DEF for every 50 gallons of diesel fuel.)
Question: Most skids
Answer: B. are caused by driving too fast or trying to stop too quickly.
Explanation: Over-braking and over-steering can cause skids. Both over-braking and over-steering are more likely when you're driving too fast.
Question: You are going to load and transport a cargo of perishable foodstuffs in your refrigerated (reefer) truck. You should do which of the following?
Answer: C. Provide for adequate air circulation in the cargo area.
Explanation: Different foodstuffs need to be kept at different temperatures. Find out what the proper temperature should be for the load you'll be carrying. Make sure that the load is already at the proper temperature before you load it into the truck. Your refrigeration unit can maintain a load at the proper temperature, but it should not be expected to cool down a warm load. For the same reason, make sure that the cargo area is pre-cooled before you load it. Adequate air circulation is vital to ensure that all parts of the load are kept at the proper temperature. Space between parts of the load, a chute (air duct) at the ceiling to conduct air from the refrigeration unit, and pallets that allow for air to circulate can help maintain adequate airflow.
Question: What is the advantage of pre-setting radio stations, pre-programming the GPS navigator, reading maps, and adjusting mirrors BEFORE the driver starts the trip?
Answer: B. It can help prevent distracted driving.
Explanation: Anything that takes your eyes off the road constitutes a distraction. This can include fiddling with vehicle controls, such as mirrors, radio controls, or climate controls; reading maps or programming GPS navigators; or talking or texting on a hand-held cell phone. Try to get these activities done before you start your trip.
Question: In FMCSA's Compliance, Safety, Accountability (CSA) program, all of the following are Behavior Analysis and Safety Improvement Categories (BASICs) EXCEPT
Answer: A. on-time performance.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about a differential is FALSE?
Answer: B. On a curve, it lets the outside wheels turn slower.
Explanation: A differential uses a series of gears to accomplish several functions. First, it transfers torque from the drive shaft to the axle. Because the axle is at 90 degrees from the drive shaft, the differential also turns the torque by 90 degrees accordingly. The outside of a curved road is longer than the inside. On such a curve, the differential lets the outside half of the axle turn faster than the inside half of the axle, so that the outside wheels can cover a greater distance than the inside wheels. If there were no differential, the outside wheels would turn at the same rate as the inside wheels, causing at least some of the wheels to drag on the pavement.
Question: When checking your vehicle's lights during your pre-trip inspection, you should
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: In Step 4 (Turn Off Engine and Check Lights) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, set the parking brake and turn off the engine. Turn on the low-beam headlights and four-way flashers. In Step 5 (Walk-Around Inspection), leave the cab, walk to the front of your vehicle, and make sure that these lights are working.
Question: Which of these is true about the radiator shutters and the winterfront during winter driving?
Answer: A. You should remove ice from the radiator shutters.
Explanation:
Question: Under federal regulations, to transport logs, which of the following must be true?
Answer: C. The vehicle must be equipped with a means of cradling the logs.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, logs must be transported on a vehicle designed or adapted for the transportation of logs. Any such vehicle must be fitted with some means of cradling the logs (such as bunks, bolsters, stakes, or standards) to prevent the logs from rolling. Tiedowns must be used as well, unless (a) the logs are transported in a crib-type log trailer, and (b) the outer logs are resting against the bunks, bolsters, stakes, or standards. [49 CFR 393.116]
Question: A GPS device
Answer: A. should be designed for truck navigation.
Explanation:
Question: The aggregate working load limit of your cargo tiedowns must be at least ______ times the weight of the cargo.
Answer: C. one-half
Explanation: Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations Part 393.106, issued by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), requires the aggregate working load limit of any securement system used to secure an article or group of articles against movement to be at least one-half times the weight of the article or group of articles.
Question: What is the safest way to control your speed on a downgrade?
Answer: D. Use engine braking.
Explanation: On very long downgrades, your brakes won't be able to do the job on their own. However, if you select the correct low gear, engine braking will slow your vehicle. This will allow you to preserve your brakes for particularly steep areas instead of using them all the time and having them fade.
Question: Can a driver who has lost an arm or a leg be allowed to operate a CMV?
Answer: A. Yes, if the driver passes a skills test.
Explanation:
Question: At a roadside inspection, your vehicle will be put out-of-service if _____ of its brakes are found to be defective.
Answer: B. at least 20%
Explanation: The North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria employs the "20 percent rule" for brakes: the vehicle must be put out-of-service if at least 20 percent of its brakes are defective. However, the vehicle must also be put out-of-service if any of its front (steering) axle brakes are defective.
Question: What is black ice?
Answer: C. A thin layer of ice clear enough that you can see the road underneath it
Explanation: Black ice is a thin layer of ice that is clear enough for you to see the road beneath. Black ice is treacherous because it makes the road only look wet, not icy.
Question: Diesel #2 (2-D) fuel starts to gel when the ambient temperature drops to
Answer: B. 10 – 15 degrees Fahrenheit.
Explanation: Diesel #2 (2-D) fuel is the most common type of fuel for large commercial diesel-powered vehicles. This type of fuel contains paraffin. When the ambient temperature drops to around 14 degrees Fahrenheit, the paraffin starts to form visible crystals, making the fuel appear cloudy. The vehicle may still be drivable. However, if the temperature continues to drop further, the paraffin may gel to the point that it clogs the fuel filter. At this point, the vehicle won't start at all, or engine performance will be impaired. To prevent gelling, you can add an anti-gel additive to the fuel, switch to a winter blend of fuel that is less likely to gel at these temperatures, or use a fuel warmer or fuel line heater.
Question: What is the purpose of an auxiliary power unit (APU)?
Answer: D. To provide power to the cab while the engine is off
Explanation: A power take-off (PTO) is a device that can transfer power from the idling engine to some secondary application, such as an implement or hydraulic pump. For example, a PTO can raise or lower the bed of a dump truck. An auxiliary power unit (APU) provides electrical power to run your cab's heater, A/C, and appliances without idling the engine. Idling the engine produces air pollution, so most states limit how long you can idle your engine (although they may make an exception for operating a PTO).
Question: When you're driving in cold weather, your tires must
Answer: B. provide enough traction to steer and push the vehicle through snow.
Explanation: Snow-covered road surfaces provide much less traction than dry surfaces. Your tires must provide enough traction to maneuver your vehicle on snow safely. Under federal regulations, your front tires must have a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch, and all other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch. For best traction, however, make sure that the treads are even deeper before you try to drive on snow. [49 CFR 570.62]
Question: Even if you don't have a Hazardous Materials endorsement on your CDL, you can drive a vehicle carrying hazardous materials if
Answer: B. the vehicle does not require placards.
Explanation: You must have a hazardous materials endorsement on your CDL to drive a vehicle that is placarded for hazardous materials. However, not all packages of hazardous materials require placarding your vehicle. Federal regulation 49 CFR 172.500 exempts certain amounts and types of hazardous materials from placarding, but states may impose more stringent requirements. Check with the Illinois Department of Transportation.
Question: The standard list of out-of-service criteria used at roadside inspections of CMVs is published by
Answer: D. CVSA.
Explanation: The Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA) is a nonprofit organization comprised of local, state, provincial, territorial and federal commercial motor vehicle safety officials and industry representatives. CVSA was created to improve commercial motor vehicle safety and enforcement by providing guidance, education, and advocacy for enforcement and industry across North America. The CVSA National Roadside Inspection Program defines eight standard levels of roadside inspections, with a list of corresponding out-of-service criteria to be used by roadside inspectors when deciding whether a vehicle or driver should be put out of service. ["North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria," Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance, April 2022]
Question: You are testing the stopping action of service brakes on a hydraulic system. Which of these can mean there is a problem?
Answer: C. Both of the above are correct.
Explanation: When testing the service brakes, check the following: (1) whether the brake pedal holds up or sinks to the floor; (2) whether the vehicle seems to pull to one side; (3) whether it takes longer than it should to stop your vehicle; and (4) whether the brakes just "feel strange," based on your experience driving comparable CMVs. Any of these signs could indicate a problem with the brake system that should be corrected before you drive the vehicle.
Question: In the event of an emergency while you're driving, which of these Hours of Service regulations will you be exempt from?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: In the event of an emergency, you may complete your run without violating any Hours of Service regulations, provided that you would have satisfied the regulations if the emergency hadn't occurred. Federal regulations list the specific conditions that are considered emergencies. These include various extreme weather events, earthquakes, tsunamis, and electrical power outages, among others. [49 CFR 390.5T], [49 CFR 395.1]
Question: When backing up, which side should you back toward?
Answer: A. The left side
Explanation:
Question: When inspecting mirrors and windshields for cracks, dirt, illegal stickers, and other obstructions to your vision, you should
Answer: A. clean and adjust as necessary.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is NOT caused by rough acceleration?
Answer: A. Tire damage
Explanation:
Question: When you're driving at 55 mph under good driving conditions, your total stopping distance will be
Answer: C. at least 419 feet.
Explanation: At 55 mph under good driving conditions, your total stopping distance will be at least 419 feet: 142 feet of perception distance + 61 feet of reaction distance + 216 feet of braking distance. Under poor driving conditions, the total stopping distance will probably be even longer. (The length of a football field including the two end zones is 360 feet.)
Question: A loaded tractor-trailer with a gross combination weight rating (GCWR) of 80,000 pounds has tandem drive axles and tandem trailer axles, both spaced 96 inches apart or less. Under federal regulations, what is the approximate maximum percentage weight that the tractor's drive tandems can carry?
Answer: C. 43%
Explanation: Federal regulations impose maximum weight limits on CMVs traveling on interstate highways. The maximum allowable GCWR is 80,000 pounds. The single axle weight rating is 20,000 pounds, and the tandem axle weight rating is 34,000 pounds. This weight rating is for typical tandem axles that are spaced 40 to 96 inches apart, from center to center. 34,000/80,000 = about 43%. If both the drive tandems and trailer tandems are each carrying their maximum allowable weight of 34,000 pounds, that leaves only 12,000 pounds (about 14% of the weight) for the steering axle, even though the maximum allowable weight is 20,000 pounds.
Question: An en route inspection should include checking
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Each time you stop your vehicle during your trip, check the following: gauges, controls, mirrors, tires, lights, and securement of the cargo (if any). Use several of your senses—sight, hearing, feel, and smell—to detect signs of trouble.
Question: Which of these statements about cargo loading is true?
Answer: A. State laws dictate legal weight limits.
Explanation:
Question: Cargo inspections
Answer: A. should be performed after every break you take while driving.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about marking a stopped vehicle is true?
Answer: A. If a hill or a curve keeps drivers behind you from seeing your vehicle within 500 feet, move the rear reflective triangle back down the road to give adequate warning.
Explanation:
Question: Name some important steering system parts.
Answer: A. Tie rod, spindle, and pitman arm
Explanation:
Question: Under federal regulations, in which of these situations are you NOT allowed to drive your CMV as a personal conveyance while you're off duty?
Answer: B. To drive to a facility to get your CMV repaired
Explanation: Under federal regulations, "personal conveyance" is the movement of a CMV for personal use while off duty. A driver may record time operating a CMV for personal conveyance as off duty only when the driver is relieved from work and all responsibility for performing work by the motor carrier. Electronic logging devices (ELDs) are required to have some means for recording time spent driving the CMV as a personal conveyance. Acceptable uses of the CMV as a personal conveyance include (1) traveling to a nearby, reasonably safe location to obtain required rest after loading or unloading; (2) traveling from a driver’s en route lodging (such as a motel or truck stop) to restaurants and entertainment facilities; and (3) commuting between the driver's residence and his or her terminal or a work site. Unacceptable uses include (1) traveling to a facility for CMV maintenance; and (2) traveling closer to the driver's next loading or unloading point while bypassing available resting locations along the way. ["Personal Conveyance," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/personal-conveyance]
Question: Which of these are risk factors for developing obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is a medical condition in which a sleeping person repeatedly stops breathing for 10 seconds or more, caused by repeated closures of the upper airway. Physical effects of OSA include daytime sleepiness and reduced performance. OSA is quite common; 3 million Americans suffer from it. Risk factors for developing OSA include the male gender; ages 40 and older; obesity or overweight; a large neck size; and a family history of OSA. Many CMV drivers have several of these risk factors. Fortunately, the condition is treatable.
Question: For combination vehicles, which of the following statements about drive-wheel braking skids is true?
Answer: B. The trailer can push the tractor sideways.
Explanation: The most common type of skid by far is the drive-wheel skid. Drive-wheel acceleration skids can occur on slippery roads. Drive-wheel braking skids occur when braking causes the drive wheels to lock. Because locked wheels have less traction than rolling wheels, the rear wheels usually slide sideways in an attempt to "catch up" with the front wheels. With combination vehicles, a drive-wheel skid can let the trailer push the tractor sideways, causing a sudden jackknife.
Question: You should have at least _______ of tread on your steering axle tires.
Answer: A. 4/32 inch
Explanation:
Question: If you must stop your vehicle beyond a curve that hides your vehicle from other drivers within 500 feet, place your warning devices
Answer: A. 10 feet behind and up to 500 feet behind your vehicle.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following may be a sign of tire failure?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: The classic sign of a tire blowout is a loud "bang" sound. However, if you're driving a long vehicle and a rear tire blows out, you may not hear the sound. In this situation, a thumping or heavy vibration may be the first sign you get that a rear tire has failed. Also, your vehicle may start to fishtail. On the other hand, heavy steering probably indicates that a front tire has failed.
Question: How can you prevent your tractor-trailer from being stolen while you're out of the vehicle?
Answer: D. All of the above can help.
Explanation: If you must leave your tractor-trailer in an unsecured location so you can get a meal or shower, it's at risk of being stolen. There are several steps you can take to help prevent its theft. First, take the ignition key with you and lock the truck's doors. However, professional thieves know how to break into a truck and hot-wire it. Consider installing a vehicle alarm or an air cuff (air brake control) lock, which locks the parking brake and trailer air supply knobs. Finally, if you're traveling with a co-driver or family member, have him or her stay with the truck whenever you are away from it.
Question: Under federal regulations, what is the maximum tandem axle weight rating for axles that are spaced 97 inches apart?
Answer: A. 38,000 pounds
Explanation:
Question: What are some advantages of an automatic (power) tarping system for trailers or dump trucks?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: To cover the load in some trucks, the driver cranks a handle. In other trucks, the driver just pulls the tarp manually. In a truck equipped with an automatic power tarping system, the driver moves a switch or lever, and the system tarps the load automatically. An automatic tarping system usually costs more up front, but it has several advantages, especially when compared with pulling the tarp over the load manually. First, it's usually faster. This gives the driver more time to do other things – like carrying more loads. More loads means the system will pay for itself in lower long-term costs. Finally, it's safer. With the system doing most of the work, there's less chance of driver injury.
Question: Which of these can cause the vehicle to skid?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: If the force applied to the wheels overcomes the tires' grip of the road, the tires will lose traction, which may lead to a skid. Two ways that this can happen are the following: (1) a sharp turn when the front wheels have insufficient traction because of insufficient weight on those wheels; (2) overacceleration supplying too much power to the drive wheels.
Question: Your semi-truck has 5 axles with 2 brakes on each axle. At a roadside inspection, if ____ or more of these brakes are found to be defective, your vehicle will be placed out of service.
Answer: B. 2
Explanation: According to CVSA's North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria, the vehicle will be placed out of service if 20% (rounded up to the next whole number) or more of its brakes are found to be defective. For a 5-axle tractor-trailer, which has 10 brakes, if 20% × 10 = 2 or more brakes are defective, the vehicle will be placed out of service. In this context, defects include a brake shoe or brake pad that fails to contact the brake drum or rotor when the service brakes are applied, or an audible air leak at a brake chamber.
Question: The active ingredient in Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) is
Answer: D. urea.
Explanation: Today's large CMVs typically use a Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) system to reduce emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOx). Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) is a 32.5% solution of urea in water. Yes, urea is also found in the urine of mammals, but there are other chemicals in urine as well. DEF is sprayed onto a special catalyst (a material that facilitates chemical reactions), and reacts with the NOx to form harmless nitrogen gas and water vapor, with a tiny amount of carbon dioxide as well. This system can reduce NOx emissions by up to 90%.
Question: As you approach on- and off-ramps, you should remember
Answer: D. that the posted speed limit may be too high for your vehicle.
Explanation: Posted speed limits are a maximum, not a mandate. You should consider taking on- and off-ramps well below posted speed limits, especially if your vehicle or cargo have a relatively high center of gravity. (Tests have actually shown that tankers can roll over at the speed limits posted for curves.)
Question: If you must use a hand-held cell phone while you're driving, what should you do?
Answer: A. Stop in a safe and legal location.
Explanation:
Question: If you smell exhaust fumes in the cab, what should you do?
Answer: B. Stop immediately.
Explanation: Exhaust fumes leaking into the cab can be fatal, either by poisoning you or making you drowsy and thus inviting an accident. Stop at once and don't continue until the problem has been found and corrected.
Question: Which of these is not a danger when an automatic transmission is forced into a lower gear at a high speed?
Answer: C. Loss of steering control
Explanation: When you're about to start down a steep downgrade, release the gas pedal, shift into a low gear, and use engine braking to slow your vehicle. Don't try to downshift after your speed has already built up. You will not be able to shift into a lower gear then. You may not even be able to get back into any gear and all engine braking effect will be lost. If you try to downshift an automatic transmission after your speed has already built up, you may damage the transmission.
Question: Under federal regulations, if you've been notified to get alcohol and drug tested after a crash, you must submit the alcohol test within ________ and the drug test within ________.
Answer: A. 2 hours; 32 hours
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is part of the steering system?
Answer: B. Pitman arm
Explanation: The Pitman arm is attached to the output shaft of the steering box. The Pitman arm changes the rotation of the output shaft into back-and-forth movement, which is used to turn the front wheels of the CMV. The torque arm (also known as a radius rod) and bearing plate are parts of a vehicle's suspension.
Question: Which of these statements about speed management in freezing weather is true?
Answer: B. Slight melting will make icy surfaces more slippery.
Explanation: When the temperature drops, bridges will freeze before the road freezes, because road surfaces retain some heat from the ground underneath. Shady parts of the road will remain icy and slippery long after open areas have melted. However, slight melting will make ice wet. Wet ice is even more slippery than ice that is not wet.
Question: Your truck is in a traffic emergency and may collide with another vehicle if you do not take action. Which of these is a good rule to remember at such a time?
Answer: C. To miss an obstacle, you can almost always turn more quickly than you can stop.
Explanation: CMVs can have long stopping distances. To avoid a collision or crash, it usually takes less time for you to steer around a hazard than to brake to a stop before reaching it.
Question: The sidewall of a tire is marked with the size "295/75R22.5." What does the number 75 refer to?
Answer: D. The aspect ratio
Explanation: Tire size designations evolved over time and ended up with a mix of inches, millimeters, and percentages. The first number, 295 in this case, is the width of the tire in millimeters, measured from sidewall to sidewall. 1 inch = 25.4 millimeters, so the width of this tire in inches is 295 / 25.4 = 11.6 inches. The next number, 75, is the aspect ratio: the ratio of the sidewall's height to the aforementioned width, expressed as a percentage. In this case, the aspect ratio is 75%, so the sidewall's height is 75% × 11.6 inches = 8.7 inches. After the aspect ratio, the capital letter indicates whether the tire is radial ('R') or bias-ply ('D'). In this case, the letter 'R' indicates that this tire is radial. The final number, 22.5 in this case, gives the diameter of the rim in inches.
Question: Which of these statements about drinking alcohol are true?
Answer: C. Both of the above are true.
Explanation: Alcohol first affects a driver's judgment and self-control, and then it affects coordination, vision, and muscle control. These are all essential driving skills. Impairment of these skills significantly increases the chance of an accident.
Question: If you're driving a 30-foot vehicle below 40 miles per hour, how much following distance should you leave between you and the vehicle in front?
Answer: B. 3 seconds
Explanation: The formula for following distance is one second per ten feet of vehicle, plus an extra second if you are traveling over 40 mph. So for a 30-foot vehicle below 40 mph, this works out to 3 seconds. This is the minimum; other factors such as visibility and road conditions may require you to leave more room.
Question: What are the two main kinds of jackknifing for a tractor-trailer?
Answer: B. Tractor and trailer
Explanation: Either the tractor or the trailer can skid. If the drive wheels of the tractor lock, the tractor may skid, and the trailer may push the tractor sideways, causing a tractor jackknife. On the other hand, if the trailer wheels lock, the rear of the trailer may swing sideways, out of your lane. (This is more likely if the trailer is empty or lightly loaded.) This will result in a trailer jackknife.
Question: What things should you check during a trip?
Answer: B. Watch gauges and mirrors and use your senses to check for problems.
Explanation: During your trip, you should be watching a number of things, such as your mirrors, gauges, instruments, lights, tires, and cargo. Use several of your senses – sight, hearing, smell, and feel – to detect possible trouble.
Question: You will be placed out-of-service for 24 hours if your Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC) is
Answer: B. any detectable amount.
Explanation: If your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is found to be 0.04% or more, you can be charged with driving under the influence (DUI). (An average 180-pound man may reach a BAC above 0.04% after drinking just two cans of beer.) If you are found to have any detectable amount of alcohol in your system under 0.04%, you will be placed out-of-service for 24 hours.
Question: Should your vehicle catch fire, pull into a service station because it has plenty of firefighting equipment.
Answer: C. False
Explanation: If your vehicle catches fire, pull off the road and park in an open area away from anything that might catch fire, such as buildings or trees. Especially avoid parking your burning vehicle near a gas station!
Question: Containerized loads
Answer: B. are typically used for freight carried partway by rail or ship.
Explanation: Containerized loads usually travel partway by rail or ship. They are transported by truck at the start or toward the end of their journey. Containerized loads are sealed. Usually, you are not allowed to break the seals to inspect them. However, you are responsible for ensuring that the load is secured on your vehicle and it won't cause your vehicle to exceed gross weight or axle weight limits.
Question: At highway speeds, how far ahead should you be looking?
Answer: B. 1/4 mile.
Explanation: You should look ahead the distance that your CMV will travel in 12 to 15 seconds. At 60 mph (a mile a minute), your CMV will travel a quarter mile (1,320 feet) in 15 seconds.
Question: The purpose of retarders is to
Answer: C. help slow the vehicle while driving and reduce brake wear.
Explanation: Retarders can be used to help slow a vehicle, reducing the need for braking and thus reducing brake wear. However, retarders should not be used on slippery roads because the retarders can cause the drive wheels to skid.
Question: How or where is cargo blocking used?
Answer: C. In the front, back, or sides of the cargo
Explanation: Two ways to secure cargo are blocking and bracing. Blocking is used in the front, back, or sides of a piece of cargo to keep it from sliding. Blocking is shaped to fit snugly against cargo. It is secured to the cargo deck to prevent cargo movement. Bracing is another way to prevent movement of cargo. Bracing goes from the upper part of the cargo to the floor or walls of the cargo compartment.
Question: Identify component G.
Answer: A. Steering arm
Explanation:
Question: Your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) depends on your
Answer: C. body weight.
Explanation: Your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is affected by how much alcohol you drink, how quickly you drink it, and how much you weigh. The larger your body, the larger the volume through which the alcohol has to spread.
Question: Your tandem dump truck has 3 axles with 2 brakes on each axle. At a roadside inspection, if ____ or more of these brakes are found to be defective, your vehicle will be placed out of service.
Answer: D. 2
Explanation: According to CVSA's North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria, no more than 20% (rounded up to the next whole number) of a vehicle's brakes can be defective. A 3-axle truck has 6 brakes. 20% × 6 = 1.2, which rounded up to the next whole number equals 2. Therefore, no more than 2 brakes can be defective, or else the vehicle will be placed out of service. In this context, defects include a brake shoe or brake pad that fails to contact the brake drum or rotor when the service brakes are applied, or an audible air leak at a brake chamber.
Question: Which of these is NOT a common symptom of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
Answer: C. Fainting spells
Explanation: In obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), the person stops breathing during sleep. These episodes can occur repeatedly. While you're asleep, OSA can cause loud snoring. While you're awake, OSA can impair your short-term memory and cause excessive sleepiness and difficulty concentrating, which can impair your ability to drive a CMV safely. A study sponsored by FMCSA found that 28% of commercial truck drivers have mild to severe sleep apnea. Fortunately, OSA is treatable.
Question: Stab braking
Answer: A. involves releasing the brakes only after the wheels lock up.
Explanation:
Question: Controlled braking
Answer: C. involves keeping a vehicle in a straight line when braking.
Explanation: In controlled braking, you apply the brakes as hard as you can without locking the wheels, keeping movement of the steering wheel to a minimum.
Question: It is illegal to drive a CMV if your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is ______ or above.
Answer: A. 0.04%
Explanation:
Question: Which types of exhaust regeneration are performed automatically?
Answer: D. (b) and (c)
Explanation: A CMV's diesel particulate filter traps particulate emissions from the engine. Eventually, enough particulates build up in the filter that they must be removed by burning them off at a relatively high temperature. This process is called regeneration. Passive regeneration and active regeneration both take place while the vehicle is moving. In passive regeneration, just the normally high temperature of the exhaust is used for regeneration. If this is not sufficient to burn off all the particulates, active regeneration takes place. The CMV's engine control unit (ECU) will inject fuel into the exhaust to raise its temperature. If even this is not sufficient, you'll have to park your vehicle and perform a regeneration manuallly, again by injecting fuel into the exhaust. Parked regeneration can take from 30 minutes to one hour. (Note: This topic is not usually found in the official state CDL handbook.)
Question: What is aggressive driving?
Answer: C. Driving in a selfish or pushy manner
Explanation: Aggressive driving is driving in a bold, selfish, or pushy manner, which is dangerous enough. Road rage is even worse: intentionally driving to harm someone or physically assaulting someone in his or her vehicle. Examples of aggressive driving include weaving from lane to lane without signaling, purposely blocking another vehicle from changing lanes, and honking the horn to express annoyance, anger, or frustration. Examples of road rage include deliberately ramming another vehicle and exiting one's vehicle to directly confront another driver. Distracted driving is driving while some distraction takes your attention away from the driving task.
Question: Why do vehicles hauling hazardous materials need warning placards?
Answer: A. To let emergency services know what they are dealing with in case of an accident
Explanation:
Question: You are driving on a straight, level highway at 50 mph. There are no vehicles in front of you. Suddenly a tire blows out. What should you do first?
Answer: A. Stay off the brakes until the vehicle slows down on its own.
Explanation:
Question: Cargo that can shift should have at least ____ tie-down(s).
Answer: B. 2
Explanation: The rule is one tie-down for every ten feet of cargo but at least two tie-downs regardless of how small the cargo is.
Question: While driving, how often should you scan the gauges and warning lights on your instrument panel?
Answer: B. Every 15 to 20 seconds
Explanation: While driving, you should scan the environment ahead of you every 12 to 15 seconds. But it's also important to constantly monitor the status of your vehicle. You should scan your instrument panel, including the gauges and warning lights, every 15 to 20 seconds.
Question: Under federal regulations, when hauling non-hazardous cargo, you may use three flares as emergency warning devices, provided they can burn for at least
Answer: C. 60 minutes.
Explanation: According to federal regulation 49 CFR 393.95, acceptable warning devices include (1) three bidirectional reflective triangles; (2) six fusees, each of which can burn for at least 30 minutes; or (3) three flares, each of which can burn for at least 60 minutes. However, you may not use flares or fusees if your vehicle is carrying flammable or explosive hazardous materials. In that case, reflective triangles are your only option.
Question: You are checking your wheels and rims for a pre-trip inspection. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: C. Rust around lug nuts may mean that they are loose.
Explanation: Lug nuts must all be present and checked for tightness. Rust is a sign that the lug nut is loose.
Question: You are driving a new truck with a manual transmission. To take a long, steep downhill grade,
Answer: B. use a lower gear than you would use to climb the hill.
Explanation: With older trucks, you typically use the same gear for driving uphill and driving downhill. Today's trucks tend to have more powerful engines and be more efficient than older trucks. Hence, you can drive such a truck uphill in higher gears than you would use to drive downhill with engine braking.
Question: You can see a sign on a vehicle ahead of you. The sign is a red triangle with an orange center. What does the sign tell you about the vehicle?
Answer: C. It is a slow-moving vehicle.
Explanation: This emblem on the rear of a vehicle identifies it as a slow-moving vehicle. The legal definition of "slow-moving vehicle" can vary slightly from one state to another, but it typically means a vehicle that doesn't normally travel faster than 25 mph. (However, Illinois law defines a slow-moving vehicle as an animal-drawn vehicle, farm tractor, implement of husbandry, or special mobile equipment for construction or maintenance, when operated on a roadway.) Slow-moving vehicles include roadway maintenance vehicles. Vehicles that travel this slowly represent hazards. Spotting one early can help prevent a crash. [625 ILCS 5/12-709]
Question: You are driving a long vehicle that makes wide turns. You want to turn left from a two-way, four-lane street onto another two-way, four-lane street. What should you do?
Answer: A. Start to turn your vehicle after you reach the center of the intersection.
Explanation:
Question: A bill of lading is a legal document between
Answer: C. the shipper and the carrier.
Explanation: A bill of lading is a required document when shipping products by carrier. The bill of lading is issued by the carrier to the shipper, detailing the cargo that the carrier will transport for the shipper. It is a legally binding document. It includes the number of packages, a description of what is in each package, the weight of the packages, and the shipping rate. The bill of lading also lists the name and address of the shipper (consignor), and the name and address of the receiver (consignee). If there will be any Collect on Delivery (C.O.D.) charges, the bill of lading provides the necessary information, including who will pay the charges: the shipper or the receiver.
Question: Identify component E.
Answer: A. Pitman arm
Explanation:
Question: You should turn on your four-way flashers whenever you
Answer: C. stop on the roadway.
Explanation: If you must stop on the roadway to load or unload passengers or cargo, turn on your four-way flashers to alert other drivers to your presence. (However, if you're driving a school bus, use your eight-way light system instead if so equipped.)
Question: Which of these is important to check before driving in the winter?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: To drive safely on snowy surfaces, your tires should be in the best possible shape. Consider exceeding the federal minimum requirements on tire tread depth (4/32 inch for front tires and 2/32 inch for the other tires). Make sure that your exhaust system has no leaks. An exhaust leak can allow dangerous fumes to enter your cab or sleeper berth. This can be especially dangerous in cold temperatures in which you will be more likely to keep the windows tightly shut. [49 CFR 570.62]
Question: Name two situations in which the legal maximum weights may not be safe to haul.
Answer: C. During bad weather; in the mountains
Explanation: A heavily loaded vehicle will have a longer stopping distance, and its speed will be harder to control on downgrades. Therefore, when you must travel in bad weather or in the mountains, consider keeping the load significantly below the maximum legal weight limit.
Question: Your truck's stopping distance will be shortest when it is
Answer: D. fully loaded.
Explanation: It may not be obvious, but the stopping distance will be shortest when the truck is fully loaded. This is because everything about the truck was designed to work best with a full load. When you drive an empty or partially filled truck, be aware that your stopping distances may be longer.
Question: In which of these situations should you flash your brake lights?
Answer: B. You are about to exit the road and need to slow down.
Explanation: Use your brake lights to warn other drivers that you are preparing to slow down or stop, or there is a hazard ahead for which you'll have to slow down. If you're being tailgated, avoid such tricks as flashing your brake lights. Handle tailgaters in a different way: Keep right and increase your following distance.
Question: Which of these statements about using mirrors is true?
Answer: C. There are blind spots that your mirrors cannot show you.
Explanation: Mirrors can show a great deal around your vehicle, but there are still blind spots that you can't see. Keep an eye on all the vehicles around you that you can see, in case one of them starts to move into one of your blind spots. Also use a helper when backing.
Question: What are some advantages of going right instead of left around an obstacle?
Answer: C. Both of the above are advantages.
Explanation: Steering to the left of a hazard can cause you to move into the path of an oncoming vehicle or a vehicle that is trying to pass you on the left.
Question: The total weight of the powered unit, the trailer, and the cargo is called
Answer: A. gross combination weight.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following is true about hours of service regulations?
Answer: A. On-duty time must be balanced with time for rest.
Explanation:
Question: Under the Hours of Service regulations, you must not be on duty longer than ____ hours in an 8-day period.
Answer: A. 70
Explanation:
Question: Overloading can have a bad effect on
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Overloading can adversely affect steering, braking, and speed control. Also, most states impose maximum weight limits on CMVs to prevent excessive weight from damaging roadways or bridges.
Question: Which of the following does NOT cause a front-wheel skid?
Answer: A. Too little weight on the tandem trailer axles
Explanation:
Question: Under federal regulations, you MUST contact the police if you're involved in a crash that results in
Answer: D. any of the above.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, if you're involved in a crash, you must contact the police if (a) there was a fatality, (b) an injured person was transported from the scene to be medically treated, or (c) a disabled vehicle was towed from the scene. All such crashes are considered reportable crashes.
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, after ____ cumulative hours of driving without a break, you must take a 30-minute break.
Answer: D. 8
Explanation: Under the Hours of Service regulations, after you've driven for 8 cumulative hours without a break, you must take a 30-minute break. Note that time that you spend on duty but not driving can be counted as part of the break. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: Which of these statements about shifting gears is true?
Answer: A. You can use the tachometer to tell you when to shift.
Explanation:
Question: When you're starting off on dry, level pavement, it is usually necessary to do which of the following?
Answer: C. Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation: If you're starting off your vehicle on an incline, take several steps to keep from rolling back. If you have a manual transmission vehicle, partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake. Apply the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling back. Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back. On a combination vehicle equipped with a trailer brake hand valve, the hand valve can be applied to keep from rolling back.
Question: To reduce emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOx), today's semi-trucks are typically equipped with
Answer: A. a Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) system.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about cold-weather driving is true?
Answer: C. Windshield washer antifreeze should be used.
Explanation: Prevent your windshield from freezing in cold weather. Fill your windshield washer reservoir with a windshield washer antifreeze that is rated for the cold temperatures in which you expect to be driving.
Question: Communication means
Answer: B. letting other road users know your intentions.
Explanation: Other drivers may not always notice you even if you're driving a big vehicle in plain sight. Before passing another vehicle, communicate your presence by tapping your horn lightly or flashing your headlights. In bad weather in the daytime, turn on your headlights to make your vehicle more visible to other road users.
Question: When you start a CMV on level, dry pavement, you usually do NOT have to
Answer: D. do both (a) and (c).
Explanation: If you start to move your vehicle when facing uphill, you need to take steps to keep from rolling back. If your vehicle has a manual transmission, partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake. Put on the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling back. Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back. But if you start your vehicle on level, dry pavement, you're unlikely to roll backward, so these steps are not necessary.
Question: The distance your vehicle travels from the time your eyes see a hazard to the time your brain recognizes it is called _______ distance.
Answer: C. perception
Explanation: The distance that your vehicle travels from when your eyes see a hazard to when your brain finally recognizes it as a hazard is called the perception distance.
Question: You should NOT use water on a _______ fire.
Answer: C. gasoline
Explanation: If you pour water on burning gasoline, you will just spread the burning gasoline over a wider area. Instead, use a fire extinguisher that is rated class B (flammable liquids) at least.
Question: Which of these statements about engine overheating is true?
Answer: C. You should never remove the radiator cap on a pressurized system until the system has cooled.
Explanation: Never remove the radiator cap if the engine is overheated. Steam and boiling water could shoot out under high pressure and injure you. Wait until you can touch the radiator cap with your bare hand without it feeling excessively hot. Some vehicles have coolant overflow tanks or sight glasses that let you check the coolant level without removing the radiator cap.
Question: You should log your duty status times in your logbook or ELD according to which time zone?
Answer: D. Your home terminal
Explanation: According to federal regulation 49 CFR 395.8 and FMCSA Guidance FMCSA-HOS-ELD-TECH-395-FAQ26, you must record your duty status according to the time zone at your home terminal, including daylight savings time if it is in effect at your home terminal. Your "home terminal" is the place designated by your carrier, where you report for work at the start of your workday. Note that your carrier's main office may not be in the same time zone as your carrier's home terminal. Consider keeping a watch or smartphone app always set to your home terminal's local time so you can more easily log those times.
Question: Under the Hours of Service regulations, you must not be on duty longer than ____ hours in a 7-day period.
Answer: C. 60
Explanation: Under the Hours of Service 60-Hour Rule, you must not be on duty longer than 60 hours in a 7-day period. That's an average of about 8.6 on-duty hours per day. Learn how to budget your time so you can work a reasonable number of hours each day. Note that "on duty" includes all work time, both driving and not driving (such as when conducting pre-trip inspections).
Question: You'll be driving a loaded 5-axle tractor-trailer equipped with sliding tandems. Currently, the weight on the drive axles is 32,000 pounds, and the weight on the trailer tandem axles is 35,000 pounds. Assume 250 pounds per tandem hole. Which way should you slide the trailer tandems to comply with federal weight limits?
Answer: D. 6 holes backward
Explanation: Under federal regulations, the maximum gross weight on the drive axles is 34,000 pounds, and the maximum gross weight on the tandem axles is also 34,000 pounds. In this case, the tandem axles are 1,000 pounds overweight. To calculate how far to slide the tandems to correct this problem, a formula favored by many truckers is to calculate half the difference of the drive axle weight and the tandem axle weight, and then divide that by 250 pounds per hole. (Some trailers can support more weight per hole. Check the specifications for your trailer.) In this case, 35,000 - 32,000 = 3,000 pounds. Now divide this figure by 2, which equals 1,500 pounds. Finally, divide 1,500 pounds by 250 pounds per hole, which equals 6 holes. In general, you should slide the tandems in the direction of the overweight condition. In this case, the tandem axles are overweight, so we slide the tandems backward. (If the drive axles were overweight, we would slide the tandems forward.) Therefore, the correct answer is 6 holes backward. In practice, however, we would also need to check whether the vehicle's weights are compliant with weight limits imposed by the federal bridge gross weight formula. (Note: Nowadays, there are smartphone apps available that can run the calculations for you.) [23 CFR 658.17]
Question: What are two ways to know when to upshift?
Answer: B. Use engine speed (rpm) and road speed (mph).
Explanation: Before driving your vehicle, check the driver's manual to find out the recommended operating rpm range. As you're driving, keep your eye on your tachometer as your vehicle increases speed. Shift up when engine rpm gets to the top of the recommended range. Another way to know when to shift up is to learn in advance which gears are suited to which speeds. As you drive, watch your speedometer and shift accordingly.
Question: Where or when should you test the stopping action of your service brakes?
Answer: A. When the vehicle is moving at about 5 mph
Explanation:
Question: Your CMV's rear tires each have a maximum load rating of 4,500 pounds. You've been driving at 55 mph for well over an hour, and now you're going to park overnight. According to federal regulations, as your tires cool off, you should assume that the tire pressures will decrease by
Answer: C. 15 psi.
Explanation: According to federal regulation 49 CFR 393.75, if the average speed of a vehicle in the previous hour has been 41–55 mph, the tire pressure of a tire whose maximum load rating is 4,000 pounds or less should be about 5 psi higher than its cold tire pressure. The tire pressure of a tire whose maximum load rating is over 4,000 pounds should be about 15 psi higher than its cold tire pressure. This means that as the tire cools, it should lose about 15 psi again. According to that regulation, you may not drive a vehicle if its cold tire pressures are too low to support the load. This is grounds for placing your vehicle out of service at a roadside inspection.
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a passenger-carrying vehicle who has been on duty for 15 hours may not drive _________ before going off duty.
Answer: B. at all
Explanation: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a passenger-carrying vehicle must not drive for more than 10 hours following 8 consecutive hours off duty. The driver may not drive at all after having been on duty for 15 hours. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: Which of these statements about backing large vehicles is true?
Answer: A. You should avoid backing whenever you can.
Explanation:
Question: When you check the condition of visible parts during your pre-trip inspection, make sure that the ___________ are secured against snagging, rubbing, or wearing.
Answer: A. air lines and electrical cables
Explanation:
Question: To help prevent a rollover, you should do two things: keep the cargo as close to the floor as possible, and
Answer: A. drive slowly around turns.
Explanation:
Question: When making a left turn,
Answer: C. drive to the center of the intersection before you start turning.
Explanation: On a left turn, make sure you have reached the center of the intersection before you start the left turn. If you turn too soon, the left side of your vehicle may hit another vehicle because of off-tracking. If there are two turning lanes, always take the right turn lane. Don't start in the inside lane because you may have to swing right to make the turn. Drivers on your left can be more readily seen.
Question: According to the state CDL handbook, when you pass another vehicle, you should NOT do which of the following?
Answer: A. At night, keep your high beams on as you pass the vehicle.
Explanation:
Question: Whether or not you load or secure your cargo yourself, you are responsible for
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Regardless of who loads and secures the cargo, you, the driver, are responsible for its safety. As part of your pre-trip inspection, make sure that the cargo is balanced, secured, and not overloaded, and does not get in the way of emergency equipment. The cargo's safety could be compromised otherwise.
Question: Medical certificates must be renewed every
Answer: C. 2 years.
Explanation: An FMCSA-approved medical examiner's physical examination is valid for up to 24 months. However, the medical examiner may issue you a medical certificate that expires sooner if you have a medical condition that should be monitored more frequently, such as high blood pressure or diabetes mellitus.
Question: If you are found guilty of violating federal regulations on driving a CMV at railroad crossings, you will be fined up to
Answer: A. $2,750
Explanation:
Question: Lumpers are persons usually employed by _________ to unload cargo from the truck at the receiver.
Answer: A. a third party
Explanation:
Question: If you are found to have violated an out-of-service order while driving a coach bus, you will be disqualified from commercial driving for up to
Answer: D. 2 years.
Explanation: For violating an out-of-service order, a driver is normally disqualified for between 180 days and one year. However, if the driver was transporting hazardous materials or was driving a vehicle designed to transport at least 16 occupants including the driver, the driver will be disqualified for between 180 days and two years. [49 CFR 383.51]
Question: You are driving a 40-foot vehicle at 50 mph. Driving conditions are ideal (dry pavement, good visibility). What is the least amount of space that you should keep in front of your vehicle to be safe?
Answer: B. 5 seconds
Explanation: The formula for following distance is one second per ten feet of vehicle, plus an extra second if you are traveling over 40 mph. Therefore, for a 40-foot vehicle traveling at 50 mph, you should leave a following distance of five seconds.
Question: Which of these is the proper way to change lanes?
Answer: B. Signal before you change lanes, and change lanes slowly and smoothly.
Explanation: To change lanes, (1) make the necessary traffic checks first; (2) give the proper signals; and (3) smoothly change lanes when it is safe to do so.
Question: Hydroplaning
Answer: A. is more likely when the tire pressures are low.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these tells you that cargo contains hazardous materials?
Answer: C. Both of these answers are correct.
Explanation: Federal regulations require shippers to warn drivers and others about the nature of the hazardous materials they are shipping. The shipper affixes US DOT-compliant HazMat labels to the packages and supplies the driver with the appropriate placards to attach to his or her vehicle. The shipper also notes the hazardous nature of the materials on the shipping papers. [49 CFR 172.400], [49 CFR 172.407]
Question: Which of the following should you NOT do in the event of hydraulic brake failure?
Answer: C. Upshift.
Explanation: If your hydraulic brakes fail while you're driving, try pumping the brake pedal to build up enough hydraulic pressure to stop your vehicle. If this fails, downshift to use engine braking and apply the parking brake. Release the parking brake before you lock the wheels. If all else fails, look for an escape route. Head for an escape ramp or an open field and let your vehicle slow to a stop.
Question: Convex curved mirrors
Answer: B. show a wider area than flat mirrors.
Explanation: A convex mirror has a wider field of view than a flat mirror. However, objects viewed in a convex mirror look smaller and farther away than they really are. Bear this in mind when you're trying to judge the distance of an object that you're viewing in a convex mirror.
Question: Good Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) is what color?
Answer: B. Clear
Explanation: Fresh Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) looks like clear water. If the DEF fluid in a vehicle's DEF tank looks cloudy, is any other color but clear, or has contaminants floating in it, the fluid has gone bad and must be replaced.
Question: What percentage of new trucks sold in the United States are equipped with automated transmissions?
Answer: C. 80%
Explanation: About 80% of new trucks sold in the United States are equipped with automated manual transmissions (popularly though inaccurately called "automatic transmissions"). There is no clutch pedal. A computer handles the shifting for the driver automatically. A small percentage of trucks are equipped with fully automatic transmissions, which employ a torque converter for shifting. The rest are still sold with traditional unsynchronized manual (stick-shift) transmissions.
Question: Heavy vehicles must sometimes travel more slowly than other traffic. Which of these is NOT a good rule to follow when you are driving such a vehicle?
Answer: A. Signal other drivers when it is safe for them to pass you.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following statements about downshifting is true?
Answer: B. Downshift before you enter a curve.
Explanation: Before entering a curve, slow down to a safe speed and downshift to the right gear. This lets you use some power through the curve to help the vehicle be more stable while turning. It also allows you to speed up as soon as you are out of the curve. Taking a curve too fast or braking while in the curve risks a skid. When downshifting by double clutching, remember that engine speed should be higher in the lower gear that you're trying to shift into.
Question: Truck escape ramps
Answer: B. are designed to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers and passengers.
Explanation: Escape ramps are located on many steep mountain grades. Escape ramps are built to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers or passengers. Escape ramps use a long bed of loose, soft material such as gravel to slow a runaway vehicle, sometimes in combination with an upgrade. Regardless of the type of vehicle you're driving or the other options open to you to stop your runaway vehicle, always look for one of these escape ramps. They can save lives, equipment, and cargo.
Question: Which of these statements about certain types of cargo is true?
Answer: A. Unstable loads such as hanging meat or livestock require extra caution on curves.
Explanation:
Question: As part of your pre-trip inspection, you check your suspension and brakes. Which of these claims is accurate?
Answer: C. Both of the above should be true.
Explanation: During your pre-trip inspection, check that the brake pads and shoes are all present, free of debris and oil, and not cracked or broken.
Question: When driving on grades, which of these is the best choice for a safe speed?
Answer: B. Based on your vehicle and its cargo, select a speed that is safe within the posted limit.
Explanation: When driving on a downgrade, select a speed that is appropriate for the total weight of your vehicle and its cargo, the length and steepness of the grade, the road conditions, and the weather. Never exceed the posted speed limit or the speed indicated on any posted advisory speed sign.
Question: In a CMV with a manual transmission, how do you engage the clutch brake?
Answer: B. Depress the clutch pedal all the way to the floor.
Explanation: In large CMVs, manual transmissions are usually unsynchronized. You can shift gears by double clutching or floating the gears. To shift into low gear when your vehicle is stopped and the engine is idling, you can engage the clutch brake. This stops the transmission's input shaft (connected to the engine) from rotating so you can smoothly shift into low gear. To engage the clutch brake, depress the clutch pedal all the way to the floor. Never engage the clutch brake while your vehicle is moving; doing so can damage the clutch brake.
Question: Which of these statements about drinking alcohol are true?
Answer: C. Both of the above are true.
Explanation: Alcohol first affects a driver's judgment and self-control, and then it affects coordination, vision, and muscle control. These are all essential driving skills. Impairment of these skills significantly increases the chance of an accident. For a first offense of driving a commercial vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, you will lose your CDL for at least one year. In fact, you will also lose your CDL for a first offense of driving with a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of 0.04% or higher, even though 0.04% is below the legal limit for licensed adult car drivers.
Question: When loading the cargo compartment of a vehicle, you should place heavy items on the bottom and the light items on top.
Answer: C. True
Explanation: Cargo that is piled up high raises a vehicle's center of gravity, making the vehicle top-heavy and therefore more prone to rollovers. This is especially true if the heaviest parts of the cargo are near the top. You can lower the center of gravity by placing the heaviest parts of the cargo underneath the lightest parts.
Question: Which of these statements is true about warning other drivers of a stopped vehicle?
Answer: B. Move the rear reflective triangle back if the driver's vision is obscured to within 500 feet.
Explanation: Other drivers should be able to see your stopped vehicle or its warning devices from at least 500 feet away in either direction. If your vehicle is obscured by a hill or curve, set out a warning device up to 500 feet behind your vehicle.
Question: When you inspect your vehicle during cold weather, you should pay particular attention to
Answer: A. the exhaust system.
Explanation:
Question: Your carrier must keep a copy of your duty logs and supporting documentation for
Answer: C. 6 months.
Explanation: Under federal regulation 49 CFR 395.8, your carrier is responsible for keeping a copy of your duty logs and supporting documentation for six months. An example of supporting documentation is your fuel bills, with time stamps. As the driver, you must keep your copy of the log for today and the last 7 days.
Question: If you cannot avoid driving through deep puddles or flowing water, which of the following can help keep your brakes working?
Answer: B. Gently apply the brakes while driving through the water.
Explanation: If you must drive through water, slow down, shift into a low gear, and keep applying the brakes gently to prevent water, mud, or other contaminants from getting into the brakes.
Question: You're driving a truck, and a passenger is seated next to you in the cab. Under federal regulations, is the passenger required to wear a seat belt?
Answer: D. Yes.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, you may not drive a property-carrying motor vehicle unless every passenger is wearing a seat belt (if the seat is so equipped). [49 CFR 392.16]
Question: While driving at highway speeds, you should look ahead
Answer: C. 1/4 mile.
Explanation: While driving, you should scan the road 12–15 seconds ahead. At 60 mph, your vehicle will travel a quarter of a mile in 15 seconds.
Question: What is the definition of "sleep debt?"
Answer: A. The cumulative effect of not getting enough sleep
Explanation:
Question: Tie-downs must be of the proper type and strength. According to federal regulations, the aggregate working load limit of the cargo tie-downs must be enough to secure
Answer: A. one-half times the weight of the cargo tied down.
Explanation:
Question: At a roadside inspection, which of the following violations can place a driver out of service?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: At a roadside inspection, inspectors will place a driver out of service for any of the following violations: (1) fatigue, serious illness, or under the influence of alcohol or drugs; (2) lack of proper CDL or proper endorsements; (3) inadequate documentation of the last 7 days of duty status on a logbook or electronic logging device (ELD).
Question: Which of these statements about double clutching and shifting are true?
Answer: A. You can use the sound of the engine to tell you when to shift.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these roadside inspections does NOT include inspecting the vehicle?
Answer: A. Level III
Explanation:
Question: During an en route inspection of your tractor-trailer, you notice that some trailer lights aren't working properly. Which of these should you try FIRST?
Answer: A. Check the electrical connections.
Explanation:
Question: You are cited for speeding in your personal car, and you pay the speeding ticket rather than go to court. You must report this to your employer within
Answer: B. 30 days.
Explanation: You must notify your employer within 30 days of conviction for any traffic violation except parking, even if you weren't driving a CMV at the time. Legally, paying the fine on a traffic ticket constitutes an admission of guilt: you are waiving your right to challenge the ticket in court.
Question: Which of the following statements is true?
Answer: A. Many heavy vehicle accidents occur between midnight and 6 a.m.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is NOT part of the basic method for shifting up?
Answer: A. Accelerating while pressing the clutch and turning toward the driver side.
Explanation:
Question: In a combination vehicle, wet brakes increase the risk of
Answer: B. jackknifing.
Explanation: Wet brakes can cause the brakes to become weak, apply unevenly, or grab. This can cause lack of braking power, wheel lockups, pulling to one side or the other, and jackknifing if you're pulling a trailer.
Question: What should you do when approaching a hazard in a work zone?
Answer: A. Use your four-way flashers or brake lights to warn others.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is a good thing to remember about using mirrors?
Answer: B. There are “blind spots” that your mirrors cannot show.
Explanation: "Blind spots" are areas around your vehicle that your mirrors cannot show you. Large CMVs have large blind spots to the front, the rear, and both sides of the vehicle. Convex mirrors can show a wider area than flat mirrors, but at the expense of making objects appear smaller and farther away than they would in a flat mirror.
Question: Which of these statements about mirror adjustment in a tractor-trailer is true?
Answer: A. You should adjust your mirrors before starting your trip.
Explanation:
Question: Are you allowed to use a cell phone while you're driving a CMV?
Answer: A. Yes, but only a hands-free phone.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following can be tested in a moving vehicle?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Your service brakes are designed to bring your vehicle to a safe, controlled stop. To test this, first release the parking brake. Pull forward at 5 mph and then apply the service brake. Check that the service brakes work properly and your vehicle does not pull to one side. This test can be performed with either air brakes or hydraulic brakes.
Question: The Illinois Commercial Driver's License Study Guide suggests several things to do when you pass a vehicle. Which of these is NOT one of them?
Answer: B. Constantly blow your horn while passing the vehicle.
Explanation: Allow for the possibility that the driver of the vehicle that you wish to pass doesn't know you're there. Make your presence known to the driver. In daytime, tap your horn very lightly; at night, briefly flash your headlights. However, sound a sharp blast on your horn only as a warning to others of danger.
Question: Your carrier directs you to perform a task that would violate federal regulations. You point this out to your carrier. The carrier then threatens you with termination if you don't perform the task. Under federal regulations, if you wish to file a complaint with FMCSA, you must do so within
Answer: C. 90 days.
Explanation: Federal regulations define "coercion" as when a motor carrier, shipper, receiver, or transportation intermediary threatens to withhold work from, take employment action against, or punish a driver for refusing to operate in violation of federal regulations. The FMCSA's Coercion Rule explicitly prohibits motor carriers, shippers, receivers and transportation intermediaries from coercing drivers to operate in violation of certain FMCSA regulations. If you have been the victim of such coercion, you can file a coercion complaint with FMCSA, but you must do it within 90 days of when the coercion took place.
Question: Which of these would probably NOT help if your windshield becomes covered with ice?
Answer: A. Brush
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is NOT an endorsement that you can obtain on your CDL?
Answer: D. Air brakes
Explanation: Federal regulation 49 CFR 383.93 defines six different endorsements: Tank Vehicle, Hazardous Materials, Double and Triple trailers, Passenger, School Bus, and Combination tank vehicle and hazardous materials. According to federal regulation 49 CFR 383.95, a restriction on your CDL will prohibit you from operating vehicles with air brakes, until you pass the official knowledge test on air brakes and pass a skills test in a vehicle equipped with air brakes. Therefore, the qualification to drive vehicles with air brakes is NOT an endorsement, but the removal of a restriction that prohibits you from driving vehicles with air brakes.
Question: During an inspection of hydraulic brakes, you should pump the brake pedal three times, then apply firm pressure to the pedal for five seconds. If the brakes are working properly,
Answer: B. the pedal should not move.
Explanation: To test a vehicle equipped with hydraulic brakes for leaks in the brakes, first pump the brake pedal three times. Next, apply firm pressure to the brake pedal for five seconds. The pedal should not move. If it moves, the brakes may have a leak or some other problem.
Question: A CMV's brakes are designed to withstand temperatures of up to
Answer: C. about 250 °C.
Explanation: Brakes are designed to withstand quite a lot of heat. The brake components can withstand temperatures up to about 250° C (482 °F) under hard braking.
Question: If you need to leave the road in a traffic emergency, you should
Answer: C. avoid braking until your speed has decreased to about 20 mph.
Explanation: If you've moved onto a shoulder that may have a loose surface, let your vehicle slow down to about 20 mph before you brake. Braking at a higher speed on a loose surface can cause a skid.
Question: Which of these statements about a spare tire is FALSE?
Answer: A. It must come from the same manufacturer as the truck's tires.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is the biggest drawback of today's fully automatic (NOT automated manual) transmissions?
Answer: B. High cost
Explanation: Like the automatic transmission in a car, a fully automatic transmission in a truck or bus typically employs a torque converter, which eliminates the need for a mechanical clutch and multiplies engine torque. Automatic transmissions can deliver smooth power from the moment the driver puts the transmission in Drive. They ease the workload on the driver by shifting automatically, allowing the driver to focus on the road. However, automatic transmissions usually cost more to purchase than manual transmissions, and their maintenance costs may also be higher.
Question: If there are two left turn lanes for you to choose from, you should
Answer: B. use the one on the right.
Explanation: If there are two left turn lanes, use the one on the right. That will leave you more room to swing around the turn and make it easier for you to see traffic on your left.
Question: Which of these statements about vehicle fires is true?
Answer: B. A burning tire should be cooled with water.
Explanation: If the cargo is on fire, opening the trailer's doors will let more oxygen into the trailer and feed the fire. If a tire is on fire, it should be cooled, preferably with a lot of water.
Question: How often should you check your gauges (air pressure, temperature, etc.)?
Answer: D. As often as is practical
Explanation: After your senses, your gauges are the next best way to monitor the status of your vehicle. Check them regularly.
Question: What is a power take-off (PTO)?
Answer: D. Using engine power to run a secondary application
Explanation: A power take-off (PTO) is a device that can transfer power from the vehicle's engine to some secondary application, such as an implement or hydraulic pump. This enables the vehicle to perform powered operations without an additional power source. A PTO can raise the boom crane on a boom truck, raise the bed of a dump truck, or operate the trash compactor on a garbage truck. The PTO may be mounted in a variety of locations on the drivetrain, such as on the transmission, on the driveshaft, or on the flywheel housing. State laws that limit engine idling may make an exception for idling while operating a PTO. Check the laws and regulations where you work.
Question: Which do NOT provide extra gears on some trucks?
Answer: B. Automatic transmissions
Explanation: Multi-speed rear axles (which tend to be less common in today's commercial vehicles) and auxiliary transmissions provide additional gears that you can select while you drive. You select the additional gears with a control switch on the gearshift lever.
Question: When you drive through a work zone, you should
Answer: B. slow down even more when workers are present.
Explanation: Speeding traffic is the number one cause of injury and death in roadway work zones. Lower speed limits are often posted in work zones; obey them. Slow down even more when workers are close to the roadway.
Question: Driving under the influence of a drug that causes you to drive unsafely is
Answer: C. against the law.
Explanation: While you're on duty, you are prohibited from using any drug that could make your driving unsafe. This includes even prescription and over-the-counter drugs (such as cold medicines) that might make you drowsy or otherwise affect your ability to drive safely. However, you may use a drug that your doctor tells you will not affect your safe driving abilities.
Question: As part of your pre-trip inspection, you must check for
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Regardless of who loads and secures the cargo, you, the driver, are responsible for its safety. As part of your pre-trip inspection, make sure that the cargo is balanced, secured, and not overloaded, and does not get in the way of emergency equipment. The cargo's safety could be compromised otherwise.
Question: Underloaded front axles can cause
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Cargo must be loaded to keep the weight of the vehicle properly balanced. If there's not enough weight over the front axle, the front tires won't have enough traction for the vehicle to be steered safely.
Question: What kinds of things should you inspect during a trip?
Answer: C. Gauges, brakes, lights, tires, and cargo securement
Explanation: During a trip, keep an eye on your gauges for signs of trouble. Whenever you stop, check such safety-critical items as the brakes, lights, tires, wheels, cargo securement devices if any, and trailer coupling devices if you're pulling a trailer.
Question: The reaction distance is the distance traveled from the time
Answer: B. the brain tells the foot to push the brake pedal to the time the foot actually pushes the pedal.
Explanation: Total stopping distance is the sum of your perception distance (how far your vehicle goes from when you see the hazard until your brain processes it), reaction distance (how far the vehicle goes from when your brain orders your foot to take action until your foot actually starts to brake), and braking distance (how far the vehicle continues to travel once you apply the brake). An average driver's perception time is about 1 3/4 seconds. His or her reaction time is between 3/4 second and 1 second. (Note: 55 mph is equal to about 81 feet per second. At this speed, a reaction time of 3/4 second is equivalent to a reaction distance of 61 feet.)
Question: Which of these is NOT required knowledge for drivers needing a HAZMAT endorsement?
Answer: C. Basic chemistry
Explanation: For a HazMat endorsement, you must learn which materials require placarding your vehicle and which materials cannot be loaded together. Your training will emphasize safe and responsible practices rather than scientific theory.
Question: Why do dry bulk tanks require special care?
Answer: C. Both of the above answers are correct.
Explanation: It takes special skills to drive a tank truck. Dry bulk tanks have a high center of gravity and their loads can shift, making the vehicle more prone to rollovers. Use extreme caution on curves and when making sharp turns.
Question: Rapid acceleration can increase your fuel consumption by as much as
Answer: A. 40%.
Explanation:
Question: What of these can increase your risk of developing obstructive sleep apnea?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) can cause excessive daytime sleepiness and difficulty concentrating, which can impair your ability to drive a CMV safely. Risk factors for developing OSA include the male gender, obesity, smoking, and being age 40 or older. Many truck drivers have all these risk factors. A study sponsored by FMCSA found that 28% of commercial truck drivers have mild to severe sleep apnea. Fortunately, OSA is treatable.
Question: To fight a fire, you should aim the fire extinguisher at the top of the flames so that the chemicals will fall onto the fire.
Answer: B. False
Explanation: To use a fire extinguisher to put out a fire, stand upwind from the fire at a safe distance. Let the wind carry the extinguisher from you to the fire. Aim the extinguisher at the source or base of the fire, not up in the flames. Persist until the burning material has cooled to the point that the fire cannot restart.
Question: What should you do if you get stuck on the railroad tracks?
Answer: A. Get out of your vehicle and away from the tracks.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these will happen if a tire blows out at highway speeds?
Answer: B. A vibrating feeling
Explanation: The classic sign of a tire blowout is a loud "bang" sound. However, if you're driving a long vehicle and a rear tire blows out, you may not hear the sound. In this situation, a thumping or heavy vibration may be the first sign you get that a rear tire has failed.
Question: If you have a heavy load that is slowing you down on an upgrade, you should
Answer: A. shift into a lower gear.
Explanation:
Question: Identify component C.
Answer: B. Steering knuckle
Explanation: If the front wheels were mounted directly on the front axle, they couldn't turn left or right. Instead, each wheel pivots left or right on a steering knuckle, which is mounted to the axle. Component C is the left steering knuckle.
Question: In Illinois, if you are convicted of driving a CMV under the influence of alcohol (DUI) and this was your first such offense, you will most likely face
Answer: B. at least a one-year suspension of your CDL.
Explanation: Under Illinois law, if you are convicted of DUI in a CMV for the first time, you will be fined up to $2,500 and possibly sentenced to jail for up to one year. Furthermore, you will be disqualified from driving CMVs for at least one year. If you are convicted of DUI for a second time, you will be fined up to $2,500 and sentenced to jail for up to one year with a mandatory minimum sentence of five days or 240 hours of community service. Furthermore, you will be disqualified from driving CMVs permanently, ending your career in commercial driving. [2019 Illinois DUI Fact Book, Illinois Secretary of State], [49 CFR 383.51]
Question: You are driving a vehicle that can be driven safely at 55 mph on an open road. Although the speed limit is 55 mph, traffic is heavy, moving at 35 mph. The safest speed for your vehicle in this situation is
Answer: B. 35 mph.
Explanation: It's usually safest to drive at the speed of traffic rather than constantly pass other vehicles or invite other drivers to pass you. However, if there are lower speed limits posted for CMVs, obey them.
Question: The Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA) defines eight different levels of roadside inspections. How does the Level 3 inspection differ from the Level 1 inspection?
Answer: D. The driver is inspected but not the vehicle.
Explanation: The Level 1 roadside inspection is the most comprehensive inspection. It involves a 37-point inspection of both the driver and the vehicle. The Level 2 inspection is similar, except that nothing underneath the vehicle is inspected. In a Level 3 inspection, the driver is inspected but not the vehicle. In a Level 5 inspection, the vehicle is inspected but not the driver.
Question: Your carrier directs you to perform a task that would violate federal regulations. You point this out to your carrier. The carrier then threatens you with termination if you don't perform the task. Under federal regulations, this situation is known as
Answer: A. coercion.
Explanation:
Question: Is it safe to add coolant to a coolant recovery tank or coolant overflow tank while the engine is at operating temperature?
Answer: C. Yes, as long as the engine isn't overheated.
Explanation: Some vehicles have sight glasses, see-through coolant overflow containers, or coolant recovery containers. These permit you to check the coolant level while the engine is hot. If the container is not part of the pressurized system, the cap can be safely removed and coolant added even when the engine is at operating temperature. Never remove the radiator cap or any part of the pressurized system until the system has cooled.
Question: Your CMV broke down and is about to be towed to a repair facility. Who will be responsible for the CMV?
Answer: B. You
Explanation: As the CMV driver, you were given responsibility for the CMV and its cargo if any. That doesn't change even if the vehicle is being towed away. You must oversee the towing operation. Before towing begins, you and the tow truck driver should agree on what steps to follow.
Question: Before performing Step 2 (Check Engine Compartment) of the seven-step inspection, you must check that
Answer: B. the parking brakes are on and/or the wheels are chocked.
Explanation: Before doing anything physical with the vehicle, make sure that it can't move and endanger you or others.
Question: There are certain types of vehicle inspections, including
Answer: B. post-trip, pre-trip, and en-route.
Explanation: Before you drive your vehicle, perform a pre-trip inspection to make sure everything is in working order. Each time you stop during your trip, check critical items such as your brakes, tires, and cargo. After your trip, perform another inspection and report anything that may require maintenance.
Question: What should the wheel bearing seals be checked for?
Answer: C. The hub oil level and possible leaks
Explanation: It can be unsafe to drive with a damaged wheel bearing. Therefore, inspect each wheel bearing for leaks that can allow grease to seep out or dirty water to seep in. The wheel bearing is located behind the wheel. Check for grease on the wheel and any other evidence of cracks or leaks in the wheel bearing.
Question: Cargo that is not loaded or secured properly can
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: Overloaded trucks are harder to brake to a stop. On downgrades, brake fade and even brake failure are more likely. Loose cargo that falls off a vehicle can hurt or kill other road users. Loose cargo can also shift during a quick stop or crash, possibly injuring you.
Question: What does "communicating" mean in safe driving?
Answer: B. Letting other drivers know you're there
Explanation: Other drivers may not always notice you even if you're driving a big vehicle in plain sight. Before passing another vehicle, communicate your presence by tapping your horn lightly or flashing your headlights. In bad weather in the daytime, turn on your headlights to make your vehicle more visible to other road users.
Question: What are the three rules for using your turn signals?
Answer: A. 1. Signal early. 2. Signal continuously. 3. Make sure the signal turns off after the turn is completed.
Explanation:
Question: You are driving on a two-lane road. An oncoming driver drifts into your lane and is headed straight for you. Which of these is most often the best action to take?
Answer: A. Steer to the right.
Explanation:
Question: What are the regulations on the height of splash guards (mud flaps)?
Answer: A. It depends on the state.
Explanation:
Question: After you start the engine, how long should it take for the oil pressure gauge to start to rise?
Answer: B. Seconds
Explanation: Once you've started the engine, you should see the oil pressure gauge immediately begin a gradual rise to the normal operating range.
Question: Which of these statements about using turn signals is true?
Answer: B. When turning, you should signal early.
Explanation: Three good rules for the use of turn signals when turning are as follows: (1) Signal early. State laws typically require you to signal a certain minimum distance in advance of the turn, but you may want to signal even earlier to keep other drivers from trying to pass you. (2) Signal continuously. Keep your hands on the steering wheel and keep the turn signal on as you start the turn. (3) Cancel the turn signal after you've turned (if it hasn't turned off by itself already). You should also use your turn signal before you change lanes.
Question: When you are driving on a snow-packed road, you should reduce your speed by at least
Answer: A. one-half.
Explanation:
Question: Under federal regulations, when you're transporting a large boulder (with a stable base) on a flatbed vehicle, you must support it with at least ____ piece(s) of hardwood blocking and secure it with at least ____ chain(s).
Answer: B. 2; 2
Explanation: Under federal regulations, a "large boulder" has a volume of more than 2 cubic meters or weighs more than 11,000 pounds. Each large boulder must be supported on at least two pieces of hardwood blocking that extend the full width of the boulder. Each cubic-shaped boulder must be secured with two or more chains placed transversely across the vehicle and as close as possible to the hardwood blocking. Each non-cubic-shaped boulder must be secured with two or more chains forming an "X" pattern over the boulder and passing over the center of the boulder. These two chains must be attached to each other at their intersection. If the boulder is non-cubic shaped and has an unstable base, it must be secured with one chain over the top of the boulder and four chains attached to that chain to block the boulder from moving. [49 CFR 393.136]
Question: Escape ramps can
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: Escape ramps have been built on many steep mountain downgrades. Escape ramps are made to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers and passengers. Escape ramps use a long bed of loose, soft material to slow a runaway vehicle, sometimes in combination with an upgrade.
Question: On a two-way, two-lane road, if you must stop on a hill, how far back should you place your reflective triangles?
Answer: C. Within 500 feet behind the vehicle
Explanation: If you park on the side of the road and the view of your vehicle is obscured by a hill or curve, place a reflective triangle far enough (up to 500 feet) behind your vehicle so it can be seen by other drivers.
Question: Which of the following will not prevent distracted driving?
Answer: C. Pre-loosening the lid of your coffee cup
Explanation: Before starting your trip, you should set up your cab just as you like it, but eating and drinking should be done at rest stops.
Question: What is a "pull-up?"
Answer: B. Pulling forward while backing a trailer to reposition it
Explanation: When backing a vehicle, especially a tractor-trailer, you may need to pull forward to straighten the vehicle or reposition it for a better angle. This corrective maneuver is called a pull-up. Note, however, that you should be able to back your vehicle successfully without too many such corrections. During your CDL skills test, your examiner may penalize you for too many pull-ups.
Question: Federal regulations require truck tractors whose GVWR exceeds 26,000 pounds and _________ to be equipped with electronic stability control (ESC).
Answer: C. coach buses
Explanation: Electronic stability control (ESC) is a system that helps prevent skids. When the system senses that your vehicle isn't moving in the same direction that your steering wheel is pointing, it automatically applies the brakes on certain wheels selectively to bring the vehicle back under your control. ESC has been required on Class 7–8 truck tractors and buses (except school buses, perimeter-seating buses, and transit buses) since August 1, 2019. [49 CFR 571.136]
Question: At a roadside inspection, your vehicle will be put out-of-service if _____ of its brakes are found to be defective.
Answer: C. at least 20%
Explanation: The North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria employs the "20 percent rule" for brakes: the vehicle must be put out-of-service if at least 20 percent of its brakes are defective. However, the vehicle must also be put out-of-service if any of its front (steering) axle brakes are defective.
Question: Idling your engine for more than five minutes can
Answer: D. do all of the above.
Explanation: Idling can burn as much as one gallon of fuel per hour. Idling for longer than five minutes wastes fuel, increases emissions, and can clog fuel injectors.
Question: You're driving a loaded truck. How can you maintain your personal safety at truck stops?
Answer: D. Do all of the above.
Explanation: Sadly, the valuable cargo that you're carrying makes you a target for criminals. Take a variety of steps to ensure your safety at truck stops. First, study reviews of truck stops written by other drivers, and try to avoid truck stops that have been reported as dangerous. At a truck stop, park in a well-lit area, and lock the cab doors and cargo doors on your vehicle. Hide valuables in the cab from view. Let your carrier know where you'll be staying. Don't talk about the cargo that you're carrying; some criminal might overhear you. ["Truck Stop Guide: Safety Tips and Tricks for Truckers," LubeZone, August 4, 2021]
Question: Under federal regulations, coach buses and truck tractors manufactured since ______ are required to be equipped with electronic stability control (ESC).
Answer: D. 2019
Explanation: Electronic stability control (ESC) is a system that helps prevent skids. When the system senses that your vehicle isn't moving in the same direction that your steering wheel is pointing, it automatically applies the brakes on certain wheels selectively to bring the vehicle back under your control. ESC has been required on Class 7–8 truck tractors and buses (except school buses, perimeter-seating buses, and transit buses) since August 1, 2019. [49 CFR 571.136]
Question: How do you perform progressive shifting to reduce fuel consumption?
Answer: D. Do both (a) and (b).
Explanation: Progressive shifting is a technique for shifting gears that improves fuel economy. Instead of upshifting when your tachometer approaches the top of its normal operating rpm range, upshift into the next higher gear as soon as possible. The rpm at which you need to upshift will get higher as you select higher gears.
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, if you encounter adverse driving conditions during your trip that prevent you from completing your trip within the allowed driving time, you may extend your allowed driving time by an additional
Answer: A. 2 hours.
Explanation: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, if you encounter adverse driving conditions during your trip that prevent you from completing your trip within the allowed driving time, you may extend your allowed driving time by an additional two hours. "Adverse driving conditions" include bad weather and unusual road or traffic conditions that were not known about in advance. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: At a truck stop, you notice a young woman looking forlorn. What are some signs that she might be a victim of human trafficking?
Answer: D. All of the above are possible signs.
Explanation: Human trafficking is modern slavery. People are bought and sold for forced labor or sex work. As a trucker, you can help combat this criminal practice by staying alert. Some of the warning signs that a person may be a victim of human trafficking include the following: (1) The person appears to be malnourished or a victim of physical abuse. (2) The person seems unaware of his or her whereabouts. (3) The person is not allowed to speak for himself or herself. (4) Other persons are speaking of pimps or meeting a quota. (5) Trucks are flashing their headlights, perhaps to indicate a "buyer" location. If you notice such signs, try to ask the suspected victim a few gentle questions, but do not confront suspected traffickers yourself; leave that to the authorities. Visit the Truckers Against Trafficking website (https://truckersagainsttrafficking.org/) to learn more.
Question: Which of the following strategies can help prevent cargo theft?
Answer: D. All of the above can help.
Explanation: There are a variety of ways to help prevent cargo theft, and you should employ several of them. First, be aware of your surroundings. While driving, check frequently whether you're being followed. Park only in well-lit, relatively secure locations. Stay in communication with dispatch. Whenever you stop at a rest area or truck stop, let dispatch know about it. An uncoupled trailer should be locked so it can't be moved. Kingpin locks and landing gear locks are available for this purpose. Always lock your truck whenever you must leave it unattended. ["How to stop cargo thieves dead in their tracks," American Trucker, August 31, 2019]
Question: What is the major purpose of Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF)?
Answer: D. To reduce emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOx)
Explanation: The exhaust gases of diesel engines include nitrogen oxides (NOx), a major contributor to air pollution and acid rain. To reduce most nitrogen oxide emissions, diesel exhaust fluid (DEF) is sprayed into the stream of exhaust gases. DEF reacts with the NOx to form harmless nitrogen gas and water vapor. According to the official state CDL manual, the DEF tank should be kept more than 1/8 full. (Typically, a CMV uses about 1 gallon of DEF for every 50 gallons of diesel fuel.)
Question: Which of the following will NOT help you be more fuel efficient?
Answer: C. Quick starts and hard stops
Explanation: Quick starts, hard stops, and extremely aggressive driving can increase fuel consumption by up to 39 percent. In addition, speeding is not only illegal, but it also wastes fuel. Finally, idling your engine for longer than 10 seconds can burn more fuel then you would by restarting the engine.
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a cargo-carrying vehicle must go off duty after the driver has been on duty for
Answer: B. 14 consecutive hours.
Explanation: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a cargo-carrying vehicle must not drive after a period of 14 consecutive hours after coming on duty following 10 consecutive hours off duty. The driver may not drive for more than 11 hours during this on-duty period. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: In FMCSA's Compliance, Safety, Accountability (CSA) program, all of the following are Behavior Analysis and Safety Improvement Categories (BASICs) EXCEPT
Answer: D. on-time performance.
Explanation: FMCSA's Compliance, Safety, Accountability (CSA) program includes the following seven Behavior Analysis and Safety Improvement Categories (BASICs): Unsafe driving, crash indicator, Hours of Service compliance, vehicle maintenance, controlled substances/alcohol, hazardous materials compliance, and driver fitness. Carriers who fail to correct unsafe behaviors can be taken off the road. Your performance as a truck driver is an important part of your company's record. ["CSA: Compliance, Safety, Accountability," FMCSA, https://csa.fmcsa.dot.gov/]
Question: You're driving a truck, and a passenger is seated next to you in the cab. Under federal regulations, is the passenger required to wear a seat belt?
Answer: A. Yes.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, you may not drive a property-carrying motor vehicle unless every passenger is wearing a seat belt (if the seat is so equipped). [49 CFR 392.16]
Question: Your tractor-trailer is equipped with an 18-speed manual transmission. To reach gear 7L, the range selector should be in _____, and the splitter should be in _____.
Answer: D. HIGH; LOW
Explanation: For forward gears, the range selector switch (usually located on the front of the gear shifter) lets you switch between the low-range gears (Low, 1, 2, 3, 4) and the high-range gears (Low, 5, 6, 7, 8). Flip the range selector switch down for the low range and up for the high range. The splitter button (usually located on the left side of the gear shifter) lets you "split" each gear into a lower gear (L) and a higher gear (H). Move the splitter button backward for the lower gear and forward for the higher gear. Thus, for gear 7L, the range selector should be in HIGH (up), and the splitter should be in LOW (backward).
Question: Which of these is the most serious reported problem with some GPS navigation devices?
Answer: A. They can make navigation errors.
Explanation: Federal, state, and local regulations can restrict the routes that CMVs can legally and safely take. A GPS navigation device or smartphone app that is designed for CMV operators can choose an allowable route, even avoiding grades and sharp curves that might be difficult for your vehicle. But for these features to work properly, you must input the weight and dimensions of your vehicle as well as whether it is carrying hazardous materials (which is why you shouldn't use Google Maps or a car navigation device or app). If you don't do this properly, the device or app may choose an inappropriate route. Plus, it's always possible for your device to mislead you anyway because of erroneous or out-of-date software. Don't depend entirely on your GPS navigator while you're driving. Double-check the route before you attempt to drive it.
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a passenger-carrying vehicle must not drive for more than _______ while on duty.
Answer: C. 10 hours
Explanation: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a passenger-carrying vehicle must not drive for more than 10 hours following 8 consecutive hours off duty. The driver may not drive at all after having been on duty for 15 hours. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: Under federal regulations, on any interstate highway, the maximum allowed gross weight on the tandem axles of a 5-axle tractor-trailer is
Answer: D. 34,000 pounds.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, the maximum gross vehicle weight (GVW) of a truck on the interstate system of highways is 80,000 pounds. The maximum gross weight upon any one axle is 20,000 pounds. The maximum gross weight on tandem axles is 34,000 pounds. This figure applies to both the tandem axles (drive axles) of the tractor and the tandem axles of the trailer. [23 CFR 658.17]
Question: Your electronic daily log must contain which of the following entries?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Your daily log (which must be recorded on an electronic logging device) must include the following information for the past 24 hours: the date; the total miles you drove today; the vehicle number or license number for each vehicle you drove; the name, address, and time zone of the carrier you work for; the name of your co-driver if any; the total hours for each duty status; the locations at which your duty status changed; and for each shipment, either the shipping document number or the name of the shipper and the contents of the shipment.
Question: You're having some trouble backing your truck into the dock. Your helper offers to back your truck for you. You should
Answer: D. politely refuse.
Explanation: The safety of the cargo is your responsibility. Never allow anyone who is unauthorized by your carrier to drive your truck. The person may be planning to drive off with your truck. Evidently, it's happened before.
Question: In the wintertime, asphalt tends to look
Answer: D. grayish white.
Explanation: In the wintertime, road salt used to clear snow and ice makes a road look grayish white. Therefore, if the road ahead looks black and shiny, be suspicious. It may be covered with a thin layer of ice known as black ice, which can be very slippery.
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a passenger-carrying vehicle who has been on duty for 15 hours may not drive _________ before going off duty.
Answer: B. at all
Explanation: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a passenger-carrying vehicle must not drive for more than 10 hours following 8 consecutive hours off duty. The driver may not drive at all after having been on duty for 15 hours. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: Under federal regulations, to transport logs, which of the following must be true?
Answer: B. The vehicle must be equipped with a means of cradling the logs.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, logs must be transported on a vehicle designed or adapted for the transportation of logs. Any such vehicle must be fitted with some means of cradling the logs (such as bunks, bolsters, stakes, or standards) to prevent the logs from rolling. Tiedowns must be used as well, unless (a) the logs are transported in a crib-type log trailer, and (b) the outer logs are resting against the bunks, bolsters, stakes, or standards. [49 CFR 393.116]
Question: Which of the following are signs of a suspicious package?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: If a package that you're supposed to transport is unlabeled, or if it has a strange smell, oily stains on the wrapper, or wires protruding from the package, don't touch or handle the package. Leave it where it is and notify your employer immediately. If you did touch the package, wash your hands thoroughly as a precaution. ["Suspicious Mail or Packages," United States Postal Service, September 2006]
Question: You're driving a concrete mixer truck (cement mixer) to your next job site. In this context, what is "slump"?
Answer: B. The consistency of the concrete to be poured
Explanation: "Slump" is a measure of the consistency of fresh concrete. You measure slump by forming a sample of the concrete into a standard-shaped 12-inch-high cone, and measuring how far the cone "slumps" (i.e., how much its height declines). The more it slumps, the thinner the consistency of the concrete. For example, concrete with a 5-inch slump is thinner than concrete with a 3-inch slump.
Question: You'll be driving a tractor-trailer with tandem drive axles and tandem trailer axles. You're installing tire chains on the vehicle to cope with the bad winter weather. Which tires are legally required to be chained?
Answer: D. It depends on the state.
Explanation: There is no national standard governing which tires must be chained on various types of commercial vehicles. Instead, each state can set its own rules. Some states have no such rules. In such cases, learn what is best for the type of vehicle you'll be driving, and chain up accordingly.
Question: Your employer told you to transport some cargo in a manner that you believed was unsafe. You refused, expressing your safety concerns. As a result, your employer took retaliatory action against you. What should you do?
Answer: C. File a complaint with OSHA.
Explanation: The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Whistleblower Protection Program enforces the whistleblower provisions of more than 20 whistleblower statutes protecting employees from retaliation for reporting violations of various federal workplace laws. If your employer retaliated against you for expressing a job-related safety concern, you may file a complaint with OSHA within 30 days. ["The Whistleblower Protection Program," Occupational Safety and Health Administration, https://www.whistleblowers.gov/]
Question: You'll be driving a 5-axle tractor-trailer. The distance from the front drive axle to the rear tandem trailer axle is 36 feet. Using the federal Bridge Gross Weight Formula, what is the maximum combined weight that can be carried by the drive axles and trailer axles?
Answer: B. 66,000 pounds
Explanation: To avoid overloading bridges, a bridge formula is used to specify a lower maximum axle weight for axles that are closer together. The Federal Gross Bridge Weight formula is W = 500 ( L N / (N - 1) + 12 N + 36 ) where W is the maximum allowed weight of a group of axles (rounded off to the nearest 500 pounds), L is the distance between the outer axles of the group, and N is the number of axles in the group. "L N" means L multiplied by N, and "12 N" means 12 multiplied by N. In this case, we consider the drive axles and trailer axles as one group of 4 axles. Therefore, N equals 4. The distance between the outer axles of this group is 36 feet. Therefore, L = 36. L × N = 144. N - 1 = 3. 144 divided by 3 = 48. 12 × N = 48 also. 48 + 48 + 36 = 132. Multiply this figure by 500 to get 66,000 pounds. Finally, round off the result to the nearest 500 pounds, which in this case is still 66,000 pounds. [23 CFR 658.17]
Question: Which of the following statements about bias-ply tires and radial tires are true?
Answer: A. In bias-ply tires, the plies criss-cross each other diagonally.
Explanation: In a bias-ply tire, the plies are at an angle of 30–45 degrees to the centerline of the tread, so the plies crisscross each other diagonally. A radial tire has plies that are at an angle of 90 degrees to the centerline of the tread.
Question: Under federal regulations, when you're transporting a large boulder (with a stable base) on a flatbed vehicle, you must support it with at least ____ piece(s) of hardwood blocking and secure it with at least ____ chain(s).
Answer: B. 2; 2
Explanation: Under federal regulations, a "large boulder" has a volume of more than 2 cubic meters or weighs more than 11,000 pounds. Each large boulder must be supported on at least two pieces of hardwood blocking that extend the full width of the boulder. Each cubic-shaped boulder must be secured with two or more chains placed transversely across the vehicle and as close as possible to the hardwood blocking. Each non-cubic-shaped boulder must be secured with two or more chains forming an "X" pattern over the boulder and passing over the center of the boulder. These two chains must be attached to each other at their intersection. If the boulder is non-cubic shaped and has an unstable base, it must be secured with one chain over the top of the boulder and four chains attached to that chain to block the boulder from moving. [49 CFR 393.136]
Question: At a roadside inspection, your vehicle will be put out of service if a tire leak is found and
Answer: D. any of the above are true.
Explanation: The North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria includes many criteria for tires that if not met will cause the vehicle to be put out of service. These criteria supplement federal regulations on tires. Among these criteria are the following: No tire may have a leak that is noticeable (i.e., can be heard or felt), that has caused the tire to go flat, or that has reduced tire pressure to 50% or less of the maximum pressure marked on the tire sidewall. [49 CFR 393.75]
Question: When performing the pre-trip inspection of a bus, what checks should you perform on the driveshaft assembly?
Answer: D. Check all of the above.
Explanation: The drive shaft transmits torque from the transmission to a drive axle. During your pre-trip inspection, check that the drive shaft is not bent or cracked, and the U-joints aren't loose or worn. These U-joints are safety-critical components. If the drive shaft comes loose at one end, it may dig into the pavement, causing loss of vehicle control, or whip up into the passenger compartment, possibly causing injury. As an additional safety feature on buses (but not trucks), federal regulations require the use of one or more guards to prevent the end of the drive shaft from dropping down into the pavement or whipping up into the passenger compartment. If your vehicle is so equipped, check that the guards are securely mounted and in good condition. [49 CFR 393.89]
Question: What is the purpose of the central apron in a roundabout?
Answer: A. To prevent you from overrunning the central island
Explanation: Because of the length of your vehicle, its rear wheels follow a significantly shorter path than its front wheels, a phenomenon known as off-tracking. While you are negotiating the curves of a roundabout, you might overrun the central island if it weren't for the central apron. The central apron (also called a truck apron) is a special area surrounding the central island, intended for use only by large vehicles. While driving through a roundabout, you can legally and safely drive over the apron if necessary without hitting the central island. The apron is usually slightly raised to discourage cars from driving on it while still making it possible for trucks to drive on it.
Question: When is an engine retarder most efficient?
Answer: B. Higher rpm and lower vehicle speeds
Explanation: An engine retarder is more efficient at a higher engine rpm and a lower vehicle speed, so it’s important to select the right gear. Select your gear before you start down a hill. You’re more likely to miss a shift if you wait until you’re on the downgrade.
Question: Which of the following are true about an automated manual transmission (AMT)?
Answer: D. All of the above are true.
Explanation: An automated manual transmission (AMT) is designed rather like an ordinary manual transmission. That is, unlike an automatic transmission that usually employs a torque converter, an AMT employs gears mounted on shafts, and it shifts with the aid of a clutch. However, in an AMT, a computer controls various linkages to handle the clutching and gear shifting (there is no shifter stick), freeing the driver to focus more on the road. Some older AMTs used to come with a clutch pedal for manual shifting when starting or stopping. With today's AMTs sold in the United States, however, there is no clutch pedal, making the driving experience more like that of a fully automatic transmission.
Question: Your vehicle has tandem drive axles and is equipped with an inter-axle differential. You should NOT engage it if
Answer: D. a wheel is spinning.
Explanation: A differential lock allows you to lock the drive wheels on both sides of an axle together so they'll rotate at the same rate. On a vehicle with tandem drive axles, an inter-axle differential (IAD; also known as a power divider) allows you to lock both rear axles together so they'll rotate at the same rate. These devices can improve traction on a slippery surface and reduce the chance that one of the wheels will spin (because it's locked to another wheel that may not be spinning). However, don't engage these devices if a wheel is already spinning, because this might cause damage. In this situation, disengage the clutch to cut power to the drive wheels so they'll stop spinning, and then engage the differential lock (and inter-axle differential if available).
Question: You're driving on a curve to the left. How can you ensure that your rear wheels stay in your lane?
Answer: D. Keep your front wheels close to the right edge of your lane.
Explanation: When you curve to the right, keep the front wheels close to the centre line of the roadway to keep your rear wheels from drifting onto the shoulder or off the pavement. When curving to the left, keep the front wheels close to the right edge of your lane to keep your driver’s-side rear wheels from drifting into the lane to your left.
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a cargo-carrying vehicle may not drive more than _______ during a 14-hour on-duty period.
Answer: C. 11 hours
Explanation: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, the driver of a cargo-carrying vehicle must not drive after a period of 14 consecutive hours after coming on duty following 10 consecutive hours off duty. The driver may not drive for more than 11 hours during this on-duty period. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: Polarized gladhands on a tractor
Answer: C. can be incorrectly connected to non-polarized trailer couplers.
Explanation: To prevent cross-connection of the supply and service lines, polarized gladhands and polarized trailer couplers are now available. The supply gladhands and couplers are shaped slightly differently from the service gladhands and couplers, making cross-connection impossible. However, polarized gladhands can still be connected to universal (non-polarized) trailer couplers, so cross-connection in this situation is still possible.
Question: You'll be driving a loaded 5-axle tractor-trailer equipped with sliding tandems. Currently, the weight on the drive axles is 32,000 pounds, and the weight on the trailer tandem axles is 35,000 pounds. Assume 250 pounds per tandem hole. Which way should you slide the trailer tandems to comply with federal weight limits?
Answer: C. 6 holes backward
Explanation: Under federal regulations, the maximum gross weight on the drive axles is 34,000 pounds, and the maximum gross weight on the tandem axles is also 34,000 pounds. In this case, the tandem axles are 1,000 pounds overweight. To calculate how far to slide the tandems to correct this problem, a formula favored by many truckers is to calculate half the difference of the drive axle weight and the tandem axle weight, and then divide that by 250 pounds per hole. (Some trailers can support more weight per hole. Check the specifications for your trailer.) In this case, 35,000 - 32,000 = 3,000 pounds. Now divide this figure by 2, which equals 1,500 pounds. Finally, divide 1,500 pounds by 250 pounds per hole, which equals 6 holes. In general, you should slide the tandems in the direction of the overweight condition. In this case, the tandem axles are overweight, so we slide the tandems backward. (If the drive axles were overweight, we would slide the tandems forward.) Therefore, the correct answer is 6 holes backward. In practice, however, we would also need to check whether the vehicle's weights are compliant with weight limits imposed by the federal bridge gross weight formula. (Note: Nowadays, there are smartphone apps available that can run the calculations for you.) [23 CFR 658.17]
Question: Under federal regulations, the maximum allowed gross vehicle weight (GVW) of a truck on an interstate highway is
Answer: B. 80,000 pounds.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, the maximum gross vehicle weight (GVW) of a truck on the interstate system of highways is 80,000 pounds. The maximum gross weight upon any one axle is 20,000 pounds. The maximum gross weight on tandem axles is 34,000 pounds. [23 CFR 658.17]
Question: Your 5-axle tractor-trailer is equipped with a sliding fifth wheel. You find that the current weights are 10,900 pounds on the steering axle and 34,600 pounds on the drive axles. Assume 500 pounds for each fifth-wheel hole. Which way should you slide the fifth wheel to balance the weight on the tractor and be compliant with federal weight limits on the tractor axles?
Answer: A. 2 holes forward
Explanation: Under federal regulations, the maximum gross vehicle weight (GVW) is 80,000 pounds, the maximum gross weight on the drive axles is 34,000 pounds, and the maximum gross weight on the tandem axles is also 34,000 pounds. This leaves 12,000 pounds on the steering axle. In this case, the steering axle is quite underweight (by 1,100 pounds), and the drive axles are overweight by 600 pounds. The weight on the steering axle should be close to 12,000 pounds without exceeding it. To better balance the weight on the tractor, we need to move some weight off the drive axles and put it on the steering axle. To add weight to the steering axle and remove weight from the drive axles, move the fifth wheel forward (toward the steering axle). Assuming 500 pounds per hole, moving two holes will move 1,000 pounds from the drive axle to the steering axle. The resulting weights are 11,900 pounds on the steering axle and 33,600 pounds on the drive axles. [23 CFR 658.17]
Question: Rapid acceleration can increase your fuel consumption by as much as
Answer: C. 40%.
Explanation: Rapid acceleration and changes in speed can increase fuel consumption by as much as 40 percent. Cruise control can help maintain a fuel-efficient steady speed on the highway.
Question: According to the Hours of Service (HOS) regulations, after ____ cumulative hours of driving without a break, you must take a 30-minute break.
Answer: C. 8
Explanation: Under the Hours of Service regulations, after you've driven for 8 cumulative hours without a break, you must take a 30-minute break. Note that time that you spend on duty but not driving can be counted as part of the break. ["Summary of Hours of Service Regulations," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/summary-hours-service-regulations]
Question: To secure a metal coil weighing at least 5,000 pounds with its eye vertical on a flatbed truck, at least _____ tiedowns must be used.
Answer: C. 3
Explanation: To transport an individual metal coil (weighing at least 5,000 pounds) with its eye vertical on a flatbed truck, all of the following must be used: (1) At least one tiedown attached diagonally from the left side of the vehicle, across the eye of the coil, to the right side of the vehicle (2) At least one tiedown attached diagonally from the right side of the vehicle, across the eye of the coil, to the left side of the vehicle (3) At least one tiedown attached transversely (from side to side) over the eye of the coil (4) Either blocking and bracing, friction mats, or direct tiedowns to prevent forward-and-backward movement [49 CFR 393.120]
Question: Your vehicle is equipped with hydraulic brakes. At a roadside inspection, your vehicle will be put out of service if the fluid level in any master cylinder reservoir is less than
Answer: D. 1/4 full.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, your vehicle will be put out of service if the fluid level in any master cylinder reservoir is less than 1/4 full or below the minimum marking. [49 CFR 571.105]
Question: Which of these is the biggest drawback of today's fully automatic (NOT automated manual) transmissions?
Answer: B. High cost
Explanation: Like the automatic transmission in a car, a fully automatic transmission in a truck or bus typically employs a torque converter, which eliminates the need for a mechanical clutch and multiplies engine torque. Automatic transmissions can deliver smooth power from the moment the driver puts the transmission in Drive. They ease the workload on the driver by shifting automatically, allowing the driver to focus on the road. However, automatic transmissions usually cost more to purchase than manual transmissions, and their maintenance costs may also be higher.
Question: You are going to load and transport a cargo of perishable foodstuffs in your refrigerated (reefer) truck. You should do which of the following?
Answer: A. Provide for adequate air circulation in the cargo area.
Explanation: Different foodstuffs need to be kept at different temperatures. Find out what the proper temperature should be for the load you'll be carrying. Make sure that the load is already at the proper temperature before you load it into the truck. Your refrigeration unit can maintain a load at the proper temperature, but it should not be expected to cool down a warm load. For the same reason, make sure that the cargo area is pre-cooled before you load it. Adequate air circulation is vital to ensure that all parts of the load are kept at the proper temperature. Space between parts of the load, a chute (air duct) at the ceiling to conduct air from the refrigeration unit, and pallets that allow for air to circulate can help maintain adequate airflow.
Question: Load binders are used for what purpose?
Answer: C. To tighten tiedown chains
Explanation: A load binder (also known as a chain binder) is used to tighten a tiedown chain so the load can't shift. Some load binders are tightened with a lever; others use a ratchet mechanism.
Question: Driving on snow-covered roads can increase your fuel consumption by as much as
Answer: D. 20%.
Explanation: Driving on snow-covered roads can increase fuel consumption by 15 to 20 percent.
Question: In the continental United States, the maximum width of any CMV operated on interstate highways is _______ unless a special permit is obtained.
Answer: B. 8½ feet
Explanation: Under federal regulations, the maximum width of CMVs operated on interstate highways is 102 inches (approximately 2.6 meters) except in Hawaii, where the maximum width is allowed to be 108 inches. (Lanes on interstate highways are 12 feet wide.) If you are transporting a load that is wider than 102 inches, it is considered an oversize load, and you'll have to obtain a special transit permit from the state to transport it. Such loads may also require pilot vehicles, a police escort, or special equipment such as flags, flashing lights, or "Wide Load" signs. Driving is usually limited to certain times. Contact the Department of Transportation of the state in which you'll be hauling the load. [23 CFR 658.15]
Question: You are cited for speeding in your personal car, and you pay the speeding ticket rather than go to court. You must report this to your employer within
Answer: C. 30 days.
Explanation: You must notify your employer within 30 days of conviction for any traffic violation except parking, even if you weren't driving a CMV at the time. Legally, paying the fine on a traffic ticket constitutes an admission of guilt: you are waiving your right to challenge the ticket in court.
Question: When driving at night, you should
Answer: C. adjust your speed to keep your stopping distance within your sight distance.
Explanation: In the dark, you have no way of knowing what lies beyond the reach of your headlights. At night, you should slow to a speed that allows you to stop safely within the range of your headlights. Otherwise, if there is a hazard just beyond the range of your headlights, you may not be able to take action in time to avoid it.
Question: In which of these situations should you flash your brake lights?
Answer: C. You are about to exit the road and need to slow down.
Explanation: Use your brake lights to warn other drivers that you are preparing to slow down or stop, or there is a hazard ahead for which you'll have to slow down. If you're being tailgated, avoid such tricks as flashing your brake lights. Handle tailgaters in a different way: Keep right and increase your following distance.
Question: If a straight truck goes into a front-wheel skid, it will
Answer: B. go straight ahead even if the steering wheel is turned.
Explanation: In a front-wheel skid, the front end tends to go in a straight line regardless of how much you turn the steering wheel.
Question: If you're driving a tractor-trailer down a long, steep downgrade, you should
Answer: B. use the braking effect of the engine.
Explanation: When you drive down long, steep downgrades, the braking effect of your engine is what's most important, and your service brakes are only a supplement to being in the proper low gear. They cannot compensate for your vehicle being in an unsafe high gear without putting too much pressure on your brakes. Save your brakes so you will be able to slow or stop as required by road and traffic conditions.
Question: Each lane on an interstate highway is at least _______ wide.
Answer: B. 12 feet
Explanation: Each lane on an interstate highway is at least 12 feet (144 inches) wide. Note that under federal regulations, the maximum width of CMVs operated on interstate highways is 8½ feet or 102 inches (approximately 2.6 meters) except in Hawaii, where the maximum width is allowed to be 9 feet (108 inches). [23 CFR 658.15]
Question: How do you correct a drive-wheel acceleration skid on a slippery road?
Answer: C. Stop accelerating and push in the clutch.
Explanation: To recover from a skid, first stop doing what caused it in the first place. To recover from a drive-wheel acceleration skid, first take your foot off the accelerator. If the road is slippery, push in the clutch; otherwise, the engine may keep the wheels from rolling freely and regaining traction.
Question: Which of these is true about driving in a tunnel?
Answer: B. There may be strong winds when exiting.
Explanation: Inside a tunnel, you don't feel the effect of crosswinds pushing you sideways. But once you emerge from the tunnel into an open space, the crosswinds will hit you. If your vehicle is traveling alongside another vehicle, there is some chance that the crosswinds will push one of the vehicles against the other.
Question: Which of these statements about using turn signals is true?
Answer: A. When turning, you should signal early.
Explanation: Three good rules for the use of turn signals when turning are as follows: (1) Signal early. State laws typically require you to signal a certain minimum distance in advance of the turn, but you may want to signal even earlier to keep other drivers from trying to pass you. (2) Signal continuously. Keep your hands on the steering wheel and keep the turn signal on as you start the turn. (3) Cancel the turn signal after you've turned (if it hasn't turned off by itself already). You should also use your turn signal before you change lanes.
Question: Which of the following vehicles will have the longest stopping distance?
Answer: A. Bobtail tractor
Explanation: The brakes and suspension of a truck are designed to handle heavy cargo. Trucks that are empty or only lightly loaded take longer to stop because the stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it easier to lock the wheels. (This is not usually the case for buses, however.) Likewise, "bobtail" tractors (tractors without semitrailers) can take even longer to stop than an unloaded tractor-trailer. Be very careful when driving a "bobtail" tractor.
Question: If a tractor-trailer's cargo is loaded too far to the rear, the result may be
Answer: A. poor traction on the drive wheels.
Explanation: When loading a semitrailer, make sure that the load is properly balanced. For example, insufficient weight on the tractor's drive axles (caused by placing the load too far to the rear) can cause poor traction and cause the drive wheels to spin more easily, especially on slippery roads.
Question: What is a power take-off (PTO)?
Answer: B. Using engine power to run a secondary application
Explanation: A power take-off (PTO) is a device that can transfer power from the vehicle's engine to some secondary application, such as an implement or hydraulic pump. This enables the vehicle to perform powered operations without an additional power source. A PTO can raise the boom crane on a boom truck, raise the bed of a dump truck, or operate the trash compactor on a garbage truck. The PTO may be mounted in a variety of locations on the drivetrain, such as on the transmission, on the driveshaft, or on the flywheel housing. State laws that limit engine idling may make an exception for idling while operating a PTO. Check the laws and regulations where you work.
Question: Which of the following is true about hours of service regulations?
Answer: C. On-duty time must be balanced with time for rest.
Explanation: “Hours of service” (HOS) refers to the maximum amount of time that drivers are permitted to be on duty (including driving time). HOS regulations also specify the number and length of rest periods to help ensure that drivers stay awake and alert. In general, all carriers and drivers operating CMVs must comply with the HOS regulations in 49 CFR 395. Note: Effective September 29, 2020, several aspects of HOS regulations were revised. Among these changes: (1) A driver is required to take a break of at least 30 consecutive minutes after 8 cumulative hours of driving time. (2) A driver can meet the 10-hour minimum off-duty requirement by spending at least 7 hours of that period in the sleeper berth, combined with a minimum off-duty period of at least 2 hours spent inside or outside the berth, provided the two periods total at least 10 hours. ["Hours of Service (HOS)," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-of-service]
Question: What kinds of things should you inspect during a trip?
Answer: A. Gauges, brakes, lights, tires, and cargo securement
Explanation: During a trip, keep an eye on your gauges for signs of trouble. Whenever you stop, check such safety-critical items as the brakes, lights, tires, wheels, cargo securement devices if any, and trailer coupling devices if you're pulling a trailer.
Question: Cargo inspections
Answer: C. should be performed after every break you take while driving.
Explanation: While the rules may vary by jurisdiction, your state CDL handbook states that you should check your cargo within the first 50 miles of your trip and then every 3 hours or 150 miles, as well as after each break you take.
Question: Your brakes fail while you are traveling down a long, steep downgrade. What should you do?
Answer: A. Look for an escape ramp or escape route.
Explanation: If your brakes fail on a long, steep downgrade and your vehicle starts to pick up speed, you may not be able to downshift. Instead, find an escape route as soon as possible. Use an escape ramp if available or take the least hazardous escape route you can – such as an open field or a side road that flattens out or turns uphill.
Question: Which of these is a sign of tire failure?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: The most obvious sign of a tire blowout is a loud "bang," but there are other signs too. If the vehicle thumps or vibrates heavily, it may be a sign that one of the tires has gone flat. If the steering feels "heavy," one of the front (steering) tires may have failed.
Question: According to the state CDL handbook, when you pass another vehicle, you should NOT do which of the following?
Answer: A. At night, keep your high beams on as you pass the vehicle.
Explanation: Whenever you are about to pass a vehicle, pedestrian, or bicyclist, assume they don't see you. They could suddenly move in front of you. Where it is legal, tap the horn lightly or, at night, flash your lights momentarily from low beams to high beams and back. (High beams can be distracting or even blinding if left on.)
Question: To help prevent a rollover, you should do two things: keep the cargo as close to the floor as possible, and
Answer: A. drive slowly around turns.
Explanation: The higher the truck's center of gravity, the more likely it is to roll over. If the cargo is to one side, it will make the trailer lean, which can also make a rollover more likely. To help prevent a rollover, keep your cargo centered and as low as possible, and drive slowly around turns.
Question: The key point in balancing cargo weight is to keep the load
Answer: C. centered.
Explanation: It's best to keep your cargo centered in the cargo area. Too much weight to the front can cause steering problems. Too much weight to the rear can reduce traction available to the drive wheels. Too much weight to one side increases the chance of a rollover.
Question: Your brakes can get wet when you drive in heavy rain. Wet brakes can cause
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Wet brakes can be weak, apply unevenly, or grab. This can cause loss of braking power, wheel lockups, pulling to one side or the other, and even a jackknife if you pull a trailer.
Question: Which of these statements about drinking alcohol are true?
Answer: C. Both of the above are true.
Explanation: Alcohol first affects a driver's judgment and self-control, and then it affects coordination, vision, and muscle control. These are all essential driving skills. Impairment of these skills significantly increases the chance of an accident. For a first offense of driving a commercial vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, you will lose your CDL for at least one year. In fact, you will also lose your CDL for a first offense of driving with a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of 0.04% or higher, even though 0.04% is below the legal limit for licensed adult car drivers.
Question: Communication means
Answer: C. letting other road users know your intentions.
Explanation: Other drivers may not always notice you even if you're driving a big vehicle in plain sight. Before passing another vehicle, communicate your presence by tapping your horn lightly or flashing your headlights. In bad weather in the daytime, turn on your headlights to make your vehicle more visible to other road users.
Question: Escape ramps can
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: Escape ramps have been built on many steep mountain downgrades. Escape ramps are made to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers and passengers. Escape ramps use a long bed of loose, soft material to slow a runaway vehicle, sometimes in combination with an upgrade.
Question: In bad weather, car drivers are more likely to tailgate CMVs. If that happens to you, what should you do?
Answer: A. Increase your following distance.
Explanation: Tailgating is a major cause of rear-end collisions. If you're being tailgated, increase your following distance behind the vehicle ahead of you. That way, if you have to stop or slow down, you can do so gradually, reducing the risk of being rear-ended by the tailgater. It will also make it easier for the tailgater to pass you. Never increase your speed to appease or outdistance a tailgater. No speed is too fast for some tailgaters.
Question: To drive down a mountain road safely, you'll have to downshift into lower gears. Which of these should NOT affect your choice of gears?
Answer: B. Type of tire tread
Explanation: To determine which low gear to use to begin a descent, consider the weather, the length and steepness of the downgrade, the weight of your cargo, and the road conditions.
Question: Which of these statements about drinking alcohol is true?
Answer: C. A few beers have the same effect on driving as a few shots of whiskey.
Explanation: When you drink alcohol, it goes directly from your stomach into the bloodstream. Your body breaks down alcohol at a predictable rate. Typically, this is one standard drink per hour, where one standard drink equals 1.5 ounces of hard liquor, 5 ounces of wine, or 12 ounces of beer. Neither coffee nor fresh air nor a cold shower can increase that rate. You need to wait until the alcohol has been broken down.
Question: Which of these statements about using the steering wheel is true?
Answer: B. If you do not hold the steering wheel with both hands, it could pull out of your grasp.
Explanation: Hold the steering wheel firmly with both hands. Your hands should be on opposite sides of the steering wheel. If you hold the steering wheel with just one hand, it could pull out of your grasp if a front tire fails or you hit a pothole or the curb.
Question: As a driver's blood alcohol concentration (BAC) rises, what happens?
Answer: A. The driver's chances of an accident increase.
Explanation: As a driver's blood alcohol concentration (BAC) increases, the driver is less and less capable of driving safely. At a BAC of 0.05%, the driver's coordination starts to become impaired. At 0.08%, there is definite impairment of judgment and coordination. At 0.10%, the driver's reaction time increases. At 0.30%, there is a good chance that the driver will pass out.
Question: When you're driving in snowy weather, your tire tread depth should
Answer: B. provide enough traction to drive through snow.
Explanation: Snow-covered road surfaces provide much less traction than dry surfaces. Your tires must provide enough traction to maneuver your vehicle on snow safely. Under federal regulations, your front tires must have a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch, and all other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch. For best traction, however, make sure that the treads are even deeper before you try to drive on snow. [49 CFR 570.62]
Question: While you're driving, if your reaction time increases by _______, your chances of a crash will double.
Answer: B. ½ second
Explanation: If drivers react a half-second slower because of distractions, crashes double. This is why it is so important to avoid distractions while you're driving.
Question: What are the two main kinds of jackknifing for a tractor-trailer?
Answer: B. Tractor and trailer
Explanation: Either the tractor or the trailer can skid. If the drive wheels of the tractor lock, the tractor may skid, and the trailer may push the tractor sideways, causing a tractor jackknife. On the other hand, if the trailer wheels lock, the rear of the trailer may swing sideways, out of your lane. (This is more likely if the trailer is empty or lightly loaded.) This will result in a trailer jackknife.
Question: You should take a break from driving
Answer: C. whenever you become drowsy.
Explanation: To help prevent the onset of drowsiness, take a short break from driving every two hours or 100 miles, whichever comes first. However, if you start to feel drowsy anyway, get off the road and get some sleep.
Question: You should turn on your four-way flashers whenever you
Answer: C. stop on the roadway.
Explanation: If you must stop on the roadway to load or unload passengers or cargo, turn on your four-way flashers to alert other drivers to your presence. (However, if you're driving a school bus, use your eight-way light system instead if so equipped.)
Question: Which of these is a good thing to remember about using mirrors?
Answer: A. There are “blind spots” that your mirrors cannot show.
Explanation: "Blind spots" are areas around your vehicle that your mirrors cannot show you. Large CMVs have large blind spots to the front, the rear, and both sides of the vehicle. Convex mirrors can show a wider area than flat mirrors, but at the expense of making objects appear smaller and farther away than they would in a flat mirror.
Question: An en route inspection should include checking
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Each time you stop your vehicle during your trip, check the following: gauges, controls, mirrors, tires, lights, and securement of the cargo (if any). Use several of your senses—sight, hearing, feel, and smell—to detect signs of trouble.
Question: When you drive through a work zone, you should
Answer: C. slow down even more when workers are present.
Explanation: Speeding traffic is the number one cause of injury and death in roadway work zones. Lower speed limits are often posted in work zones; obey them. Slow down even more when workers are close to the roadway.
Question: You should use your mirrors to check
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Before driving your vehicle, adjust your mirrors to show parts of your vehicle as well as what's around your vehicle. During your trip, you can use your mirrors to keep an eye on your tires and open cargo if any. When merging, use your mirrors to make sure the gap in traffic is large enough for you to enter safely.
Question: Driving under the influence of a drug that causes you to drive unsafely is
Answer: B. against the law.
Explanation: While you're on duty, you are prohibited from using any drug that could make your driving unsafe. This includes even prescription and over-the-counter drugs (such as cold medicines) that might make you drowsy or otherwise affect your ability to drive safely. However, you may use a drug that your doctor tells you will not affect your safe driving abilities.
Question: Which of these statements about double clutching and shifting are true?
Answer: B. You can use the sound of the engine to tell you when to shift.
Explanation: Learn the operating rpm range for your vehicle's engine. Watch your tachometer, and shift up when your engine reaches the top of the range. With practice, you can learn how your engine sounds when it reaches the top of the range. Then you can use the onset of that sound instead of the tachometer to tell you when to shift up. This way, you won't have to take your eyes off the road to check your tachometer every time you shift up. Double clutching is necessary only for unsynchronized manual transmissions.
Question: Cargo that is not loaded or secured properly can
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: Overloaded trucks are harder to brake to a stop. On downgrades, brake fade and even brake failure are more likely. Loose cargo that falls off a vehicle can hurt or kill other road users. Loose cargo can also shift during a quick stop or crash, possibly injuring you.
Question: You are driving a long vehicle that makes wide turns. You want to turn left from a two-way, four-lane street onto another two-way, four-lane street. What should you do?
Answer: C. Start to turn your vehicle after you reach the center of the intersection.
Explanation: Long vehicles are prone to significant off-tracking (the rear wheels following a quite different path than the front wheels). With two lanes going in your direction, enter the intersection from the outside lane because you may have to swing right to make the left turn. Make sure you have reached the center of the intersection before you start the left turn. If you turn too soon, the left side of your vehicle may hit another vehicle.
Question: Which of these statements about downshifting is true?
Answer: B. When you downshift to take a curve, you should do so before you enter the curve.
Explanation: The safest way to take a curve is to slow down to a safe speed and downshift before entering the curve. This lets you use some power through the curve to help your vehicle be more stable while turning. It also allows you to speed up as soon as you are out of the curve. When you're about to start down a steep downgrade, release the gas pedal, downshift, and use engine braking to slow your vehicle. Don't try to downshift after your speed has already built up. You will not be able to shift into a lower gear then. If you try to downshift an automatic transmission after your speed has already built up, you may damage the transmission.
Question: At highway speeds, how far ahead should you be looking?
Answer: B. 1/4 mile.
Explanation: You should look ahead the distance that your CMV will travel in 12 to 15 seconds. At 60 mph (a mile a minute), your CMV will travel a quarter mile (1,320 feet) in 15 seconds.
Question: Federal regulations do NOT require every CMV to have
Answer: C. a first-aid kit.
Explanation: Federal regulations require every CMV to carry one of the following warning devices in case the driver must stop the CMV on the road: three reflective triangles, three liquid-burning flares, or six fusees. Federal regulations also require every CMV to carry a fire extinguisher. Your state may also require a first-aid kit or seat belt cutter to be carried on certain types of CMVs, such as school buses. [49 CFR 393.95]
Question: Underinflated tires can cause a tire fire.
Answer: B. True
Explanation: Tires that overheat can catch fire. Underinflation causes increased flexing of the tire, which increases tire temperature.
Question: Which of these is part of your vehicle's suspension?
Answer: C. Neither of the above
Explanation: The drag link and Pitman arm are two components of the steering system.
Question: What do the letters "GVW" stand for?
Answer: B. Gross vehicle weight
Explanation: Gross vehicle weight (GVW) is the simplest of the vehicle weight terms, defined as the weight of just a single vehicle and the load that it is carrying.
Question: A vehicle is loaded with very little weight on the drive axles. What may happen?
Answer: A. Poor traction
Explanation: Poor weight balance can make vehicle handling unsafe. For example, insufficient weight on the drive axles can cause poor traction and cause the drive wheels to spin more easily, especially on slippery roads.
Question: Should your vehicle catch fire, pull into a service station because it has plenty of firefighting equipment.
Answer: A. False
Explanation: If your vehicle catches fire, pull off the road and park in an open area away from anything that might catch fire, such as buildings or trees. Especially avoid parking your burning vehicle near a gas station!
Question: Identify component O.
Answer: C. Neither of the above
Explanation: Components N and O are bearing plates.
Question: Which of these statements about a differential is FALSE?
Answer: A. On a curve, it lets the outside wheels turn slower.
Explanation: A differential uses a series of gears to accomplish several functions. First, it transfers torque from the drive shaft to the axle. Because the axle is at 90 degrees from the drive shaft, the differential also turns the torque by 90 degrees accordingly. The outside of a curved road is longer than the inside. On such a curve, the differential lets the outside half of the axle turn faster than the inside half of the axle, so that the outside wheels can cover a greater distance than the inside wheels. If there were no differential, the outside wheels would turn at the same rate as the inside wheels, causing at least some of the wheels to drag on the pavement.
Question: You and your co-driver have just completed your trips for the day. If the two of you found any defects in your CMV, who must sign the Driver Vehicle Inspection Report (DVIR)?
Answer: D. Either you or your co-driver
Explanation: Under federal regulations, at the end of each day, you must prepare a Driver Vehicle Inspection Report (DVIR) to document any defects you found in your CMV. If you had a co-driver, only one of you needs to sign the DVIR, provided that both of you agree about the defects or deficiencies identified.
Question: Which of these CDL tests can you fail and still be issued a CDL?
Answer: C. Neither of the above
Explanation: You must pass the knowledge test before you'll be allowed to take the skills test. The skills test consists of three parts: vehicle inspection, basic vehicle control, and on-road driving. You must pass each part before you'll be allowed to take the next part. You must pass all three parts before you can be issued a CDL.
Question: If you are found guilty of texting while driving for the second time in three years, you will be disqualified from commercial driving for
Answer: D. 60 days.
Explanation: Federal regulations impose tough penalties for texting while driving. If you are convicted of texting for the second time in three years, you will be disqualified from commercial driving for 60 days. If you are convicted of texting for the third time in three years, you will be disqualified from commercial driving for 120 days.
Question: According to the federal regulations on hours of service (HOS), when must you start to log your day's duty status?
Answer: A. At midnight
Explanation: Duty logging starts at midnight at the start of the day, no matter when you start driving on that day. You must log the entire 24 hours for each day that you drive. If you take a day off, you must still log that day (as off-duty) for the purpose of tracking your last 7 days.
Question: Most trucks on the road today have a _______ electrical system.
Answer: B. 12-volt
Explanation: Most trucks on the road today have a 12-volt electrical system. In some of these trucks, however, batteries can be temporarily connected in series to drive a more powerful 24-volt starter for the purpose of cranking the engine.
Question: When backing and turning a large CMV, you should
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: Backing a large CMV is potentially hazardous. Before you start to back up, check your intended path of travel. Exit the cab and walk around the vehicle. Check your clearance to the sides and overhead, in and near the path of your vehicle. To make backing up easier and safer, turn toward the driver's side so you can watch the rear of your vehicle through your window.
Question: Blocking is used to keep the cargo from shifting.
Answer: C. True
Explanation: Blocking and bracing can prevent cargo from shifting. Use blocking and bracing to keep cargo from shifting in whichever directions it might move. Blocking fits snugly against cargo; bracing runs from the upper part of the cargo to the floor or walls of the cargo compartment.
Question: Identify component C.
Answer: A. Steering knuckle
Explanation: If the front wheels were mounted directly on the front axle, they couldn't turn left or right. Instead, each wheel pivots left or right on a steering knuckle, which is mounted to the axle. Component C is the left steering knuckle.
Question: Are you allowed to use a cell phone while you're driving a CMV?
Answer: C. Yes, but only a hands-free phone.
Explanation: Under FMCSA regulations, a CMV driver is not allowed to hold a mobile device to make a call, or dial by pressing more than a single button. While driving, a CMV driver can only use a hands-free device in close proximity. Using a hand-held mobile phone while driving a CMV can result in driver disqualification, as well as stiff fines levied against both the driver and the driver's employer. ["Mobile Phone Restrictions Fact Sheet," Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration, May 2012]
Question: What is the Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR)?
Answer: C. The maximum allowed weight of a vehicle and its load
Explanation: The Gross Vehicle Weight (GVW) is the actual weight of a single vehicle plus its load, at some point in time. The Gross Vehicle Weight Rating (GVWR) is the maximum combined weight of a vehicle and its cargo, that is permitted and specified by the vehicle's manufacturer.
Question: Identify component G.
Answer: B. Steering arm
Explanation: Component G is the steering arm. It connects the drag link to the tie rod.
Question: What is the advantage of pre-setting radio stations, pre-programming the GPS navigator, reading maps, and adjusting mirrors BEFORE the driver starts the trip?
Answer: A. It can help prevent distracted driving.
Explanation: Anything that takes your eyes off the road constitutes a distraction. This can include fiddling with vehicle controls, such as mirrors, radio controls, or climate controls; reading maps or programming GPS navigators; or talking or texting on a hand-held cell phone. Try to get these activities done before you start your trip.
Question: Identify component K.
Answer: A. Front axle hanger
Explanation: A front (steering axle) suspension, like the one shown here, may also employ shock absorbers to further reduce up-and-down movements, producing a smoother ride. The axle is fastened to the suspension with a U-bolt.
Question: Identify component A.
Answer: A. Tie rod
Explanation: Component A is the tie rod. The tie rod connects the left and right steering knuckles to each other so that the left and right front wheels will turn in unison.
Question: Which of these is part of the steering system?
Answer: C. Pitman arm
Explanation: The Pitman arm is attached to the output shaft of the steering box. The Pitman arm changes the rotation of the output shaft into back-and-forth movement, which is used to turn the front wheels of the CMV. The torque arm (also known as a radius rod) and bearing plate are parts of a vehicle's suspension.
Question: In your duty log, times are normally calculated in
Answer: D. quarter hours.
Explanation: In your duty log, time is normally calculated in quarter hours or 15-minute intervals. However, for a short-duration status change (i.e., one lasting less than 15 minutes), draw a line from the status line, down to the Remarks section. You enter the location of the change, what the short change was, and how long it lasted.
Question: Approximately ________ of train-vehicle collisions have involved a CMV.
Answer: D. one-fourth
Explanation: In 2020, there were 1,900 crashes at railroad crossings in the United States. These included 437 crashes of CMVs at railroad crossings. This means 23% of all train-vehicle crashes involved a CMV.
Question: In the context of trucking, what is drayage?
Answer: B. The short-haul part of intermodal transportation
Explanation: In intermodal transportation, "drayage" refers to short-haul transportation by truck as part of a longer distance. Typically, the truck hauls products from the shipper to a railroad car, where they are loaded onto the railroad car for long-haul shipment elsewhere. Or the reverse: goods transported by rail are then loaded onto a truck for "last-mile" delivery. "Dunnage" is all the loose materials used to support and protect cargo. "Outage" is the extra room allocated to liquid cargo to handle expansion as the liquid warms up.
Question: Under federal regulations, states must allow buses on Interstates and U.S. Routes that are at least
Answer: A. 45 feet long.
Explanation: Federal regulations specify the minimum bus and trailer lengths that states must allow on the National Network of Highways, which includes Interstates and U.S. Routes. The minimum lengths are 45 feet for a bus, 48 feet for a semi-trailer, and 28 feet for a pup trailer..
Question: Under federal regulations, a carrier must maintain each Driver Vehicle Inspection Report (DVIR) for
Answer: D. 3 months.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, every carrier must maintain each DVIR, along with its certification of repairs, for three months from the date that the report was prepared. However, there are a few exceptions: (1) A carrier that operates only one CMV. (2) A CMV that transports passengers for non-business; in other words, not for hire. (3) A driveaway-towaway operation. Federal regulation 49 CFR 390.5 defines a "driveaway-towaway operation" as transporting an empty CMV to a repair facility, to a carrier's terminal for repair purposes, or to or from a dealership.
Question: Identify component F.
Answer: B. Steering gear box
Explanation: The steering gear box contains gears that translate the rotation of the steering column into rotation of the gear box's output shaft. This rotation drives the steering linkage to turn the wheels.
Question: Which of these statements about double clutching is true?
Answer: C. When you upshift, the engine speed should decrease to the rpm required for the next gear.
Explanation: In double clutching, you apply the clutch twice: once to shift out of the current gear into neutral and again to shift out of neutral into the next gear. After you shift out of the current gear into neutral, adjust your engine speed to match the rpm required for the next gear. For a higher gear, allow your engine to slow down; for a lower gear, use the gas pedal to speed up the engine. Then shift out of neutral into the next gear.
Question: One gallon of diesel fuel weighs approximately
Answer: D. 7 pounds.
Explanation: One gallon of diesel fuel weighs about 7 pounds, meaning that a full fuel tank in a tractor-trailer can weigh well over 1,000 pounds. Bear this in mind when calculating how your vehicle can remain within legal weight limits.
Question: You're driving a tractor-trailer on a slick road surface. Suddenly, excessive braking locks your drive wheels. Your tractor starts to skid, and the trailer starts to push the tractor sideways. You must act to correct the skid before the trailer swings out approximately
Answer: C. 15 degrees.
Explanation: Drive-wheel braking skids occur when braking causes the drive wheels to lock. Because locked wheels have less traction than rolling wheels, the rear wheels usually slide sideways in an attempt to "catch up" with the front wheels. With combination vehicles, a drive-wheel skid can let the trailer push the tractor sideways, leading to a sudden jackknife. You can recover from the skid and get the trailer back into position – if you act fast before the trailer swings out about 15 degrees. (You have only a couple of seconds to react.) Past that point, it will be very difficult to prevent a jackknife.
Question: What are the three rules for using your turn signals?
Answer: C. 1. Signal early. 2. Signal continuously. 3. Make sure the signal turns off after the turn is completed.
Explanation: Three good rules for the use of turn signals are as follows: (1) Signal early. States usually have laws on how far in advance drivers must signal a turn, but you may want to signal even earlier to keep other drivers from trying to pass you. (2) Signal continuously. Keep your hands on the steering wheel and keep the turn signal on as you start the turn. (3) Cancel the turn signal after you've completed the turn (if it hasn't turned off by itself already).
Question: When you start to move up a hill from a stop,
Answer: A. release the parking brake as you apply engine power.
Explanation: If you start to move your vehicle when facing uphill, you need to take steps to keep from rolling back. If your vehicle has a manual transmission, partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake. Put on the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling back. Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back. On a tractor-trailer equipped with a trailer brake hand valve, the hand valve can be applied to keep from rolling back until you've built up engine power.
Question: In a four-stroke diesel engine, fuel is first injected into the cylinder during the
Answer: B. compression stroke.
Explanation: Most trucks on the road today have four-stroke diesel engines. During the intake stroke, the downward motion of the piston pulls fresh air into the cylinder. During the compression stroke, the upward motion of the piston compresses the air. This causes the temperature of the air to rise sharply. Toward the end of the compression stroke, the fuel injector sprays fuel into the hot compressed air. The fuel-air mixture is now hot enough to ignite. As the power (combustion) stroke begins, fuel continues being injected, and the combustion of the fuel-air mixture produces energy to push the piston downward again.
Question: Identify component P.
Answer: A. Spring hanger
Explanation: Component P is a spring hanger. Note: Your state CDL handbook misidentifies this part as a "front axle hanger."
Question: In which of these situations should you consider turning off your vehicle's retarder?
Answer: C. Under wet or icy road conditions
Explanation: Retarders can slow your vehicle on a downgrade so you can avoid straining the service brakes. Many retarders can absorb as much or more horsepower as the engine can develop. But when the drive wheels have poor traction (such as on a slippery surface), some retarders can cause the drive wheels to lock, which can result in a skid. Therefore, you should turn the retarder off whenever the road is wet, icy, or snow covered.
Question: Which of these statements about certain types of cargo is true?
Answer: C. Unstable loads such as hanging meat or livestock can require extra caution on curves.
Explanation: Hanging meat can sway on curves, and livestock can move around. These motions can affect the handling of your vehicle. One reason that you must drive a tanker vehicle carefully is that liquid surge can push the vehicle in the same direction as the surge. This can be especially hazardous on icy roads, where your truck may be pushed forward a dangerous amount, maybe past a red light into an intersection. Another concern is that liquid expands when it warms. Outage is the space in the tank that must be allocated to handle the expansion. Different types of liquids expand by different amounts. Therefore, the amount of outage you will need depends on the type of liquid.
Question: When loading the cargo compartment of a vehicle, you should place heavy items on the bottom and the light items on top.
Answer: B. True
Explanation: Cargo that is piled up high raises a vehicle's center of gravity, making the vehicle top-heavy and therefore more prone to rollovers. This is especially true if the heaviest parts of the cargo are near the top. You can lower the center of gravity by placing the heaviest parts of the cargo underneath the lightest parts.
Question: When a DOT inspector pulls you over for a roadside inspection, which of these is the inspector likely to look at FIRST?
Answer: D. You
Explanation: After motioning you over, the first thing the DOT inspector will do is walk up to your cab and look at you and the cab interior. The inspector will note whether you're wearing your seatbelt. He or she will check if you look like you've been dozing off. He or she will see or smell whether you've been smoking marijuana or drinking alcohol. Before starting the inspection of your truck, the inspector will ask to see your logbook.
Question: When transporting cargo, how often should you check the securement of the cargo?
Answer: C. Within the first 50 miles of the trip and then every 150 miles or every 3 hours, whichever comes first
Explanation: While the rules vary by jurisdiction, your state CDL handbook states that you should check your cargo within the first 50 miles of your trip and then every 3 hours or 150 miles, as well as after each break you take.
Question: Identify component E.
Answer: B. Pitman arm
Explanation: Component E is the Pitman arm. The Pitman arm connects the drag link to the output shaft of the steering box. As the output shaft rotates, the other end of the Pitman arm moves forward or backward, causing the drag link to move left or right, which turns the front wheels in that direction.
Question: In which of these situations can strong winds most affect your driving?
Answer: A. Upon exiting a tunnel
Explanation: Inside a tunnel, you don't feel the effect of crosswinds pushing you sideways. But once you emerge from the tunnel into an open space, the crosswinds will suddenly hit you. If your vehicle is traveling alongside another vehicle, there is some chance that the crosswinds will push one of the vehicles against the other.
Question: To fight a fire in the engine compartment, you should open the hood to target the base of the fire.
Answer: A. False
Explanation: If there's a fire under the hood, opening the hood will allow more oxygen to reach the fire, which can make the fire worse. Instead, try to shoot extinguishing foam through louvers or the radiator, or from the vehicle’s underside.
Question: Why can a damaged exhaust system be hazardous to you?
Answer: A. Poisonous fumes can enter the cab or sleeping compartment.
Explanation: The exhaust system is designed to help remove toxic gases produced by the engine. A leak in the exhaust system can allow poisonous carbon monoxide (CO) to seep into the cab or sleeping compartment. A buildup of CO is more likely in cold weather, when you may have the cab windows closed.
Question: Under federal regulations, what is the maximum tandem axle weight rating for axles that are spaced up to 96 inches apart?
Answer: B. 34,000 pounds
Explanation: Federal regulations impose maximum weight limits on CMVs traveling on interstate highways. The maximum allowable Gross Combination Weight Rating (GCWR) is 80,000 pounds. The single axle weight rating is 20,000 pounds, and the tandem axle weight rating is 34,000 pounds for typical tandem axles that are spaced 40 to 96 inches apart, from center to center. For tandem axles spaced 97 inches apart, the axle weight rating is 38,000 pounds. The tridem axle, or three-axle, weight rating is 42,000 pounds if the outermost two axles are 97 inches apart.
Question: Your carrier must keep a copy of your duty logs and supporting documentation for
Answer: D. 6 months.
Explanation: Under federal regulation 49 CFR 395.8, your carrier is responsible for keeping a copy of your duty logs and supporting documentation for six months. An example of supporting documentation is your fuel bills, with time stamps. As the driver, you must keep your copy of the log for today and the last 7 days.
Question: A combination vehicle's stopping distance is longest when it is
Answer: A. empty.
Explanation: Trucks brake best when they are used as they were designed: to carry a properly balanced load. When a combination vehicle is empty or lightly loaded, its braking distance increases. The very stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it very easy to lock the wheels.
Question: To fight a fire, you should aim the fire extinguisher at the top of the flames so that the chemicals will fall onto the fire.
Answer: A. False
Explanation: To use a fire extinguisher to put out a fire, stand upwind from the fire at a safe distance. Let the wind carry the extinguisher from you to the fire. Aim the extinguisher at the source or base of the fire, not up in the flames. Persist until the burning material has cooled to the point that the fire cannot restart.
Question: Identify component R.
Answer: A. Main spring
Explanation: Component R is a main leaf spring. Component U is an auxiliary leaf spring (sometimes called a helper spring), attached to the axle with the same U-bolt. Auxiliary springs are often employed in rear suspensions that have to support heavy loads.
Question: Which of the following does NOT cause a front-wheel skid?
Answer: B. Too little weight on the tandem trailer axles
Explanation: A skid happens whenever the tires lose traction (grip of the road). The type of skid depends on which tires lose traction. A front-wheel skid can be caused by driving too fast for conditions, such as in a sharp curve or turn. Other causes include insufficient tread on the front tires and insufficient cargo weight on the front axle. Too little weight on the trailer axles can cause the trailer to skid, especially on slippery roads.
Question: Which of these statements is true about using emergency reflective triangles at night?
Answer: B. If you stop on a hill or curve, it's necessary to place them up to 500 feet behind your vehicle.
Explanation: Under federal regulation 49 CFR 392.22, if you must stop your CMV in an emergency at night or when visibility is low, you must turn on your four-way hazard flashers, AND you must set out your emergency warning devices (flares, fusees, or reflective triangles) within 10 minutes. That same regulation also states where you must place your emergency warning devices. If your vehicle is stopped within 500 feet of a curve, a crest of a hill, or another obstruction to viewing, you must place a warning device within 100–500 feet of your vehicle, in the direction of that obstruction.
Question: Lumpers are persons usually employed by _________ to unload cargo from the truck at the receiver.
Answer: B. a third party
Explanation: Lumpers (freight handlers) are persons usually employed by a third party to unload cargo from the truck at the receiver. Lumpers are tasked with operating the unloading equipment, such as fork lifts and pallet jacks, so you won't have to do this. The fee for using lumpers should be charged to the carrier; it is illegal under US law for you to be forced to eat the cost yourself. [49 US Code § 14103]
Question: Identify component J.
Answer: A. Vehicle frame
Explanation: The vehicle frame is the main supporting structure of the vehicle, to which all other components are attached. It is supported by the vehicle's suspension.
Question: When you start a CMV on level, dry pavement, you usually do NOT have to
Answer: D. do both (a) and (c).
Explanation: If you start to move your vehicle when facing uphill, you need to take steps to keep from rolling back. If your vehicle has a manual transmission, partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake. Put on the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling back. Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back. But if you start your vehicle on level, dry pavement, you're unlikely to roll backward, so these steps are not necessary.
Question: A loaded tractor-trailer with a gross combination weight rating (GCWR) of 80,000 pounds has tandem drive axles and tandem trailer axles, both spaced 96 inches apart or less. Under federal regulations, what is the approximate maximum percentage weight that the tractor's drive tandems can carry?
Answer: A. 43%
Explanation: Federal regulations impose maximum weight limits on CMVs traveling on interstate highways. The maximum allowable GCWR is 80,000 pounds. The single axle weight rating is 20,000 pounds, and the tandem axle weight rating is 34,000 pounds. This weight rating is for typical tandem axles that are spaced 40 to 96 inches apart, from center to center. 34,000/80,000 = about 43%. If both the drive tandems and trailer tandems are each carrying their maximum allowable weight of 34,000 pounds, that leaves only 12,000 pounds (about 14% of the weight) for the steering axle, even though the maximum allowable weight is 20,000 pounds.
Question: GPS navigation smartphone apps designed for truckers can take which of the following into account?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: When planning or following a route, you have a lot more to consider than a car driver does. GPS navigation apps designed for truckers are programmed to deal with many of those issues. If you input the dimensions and weight of your truck, the navigation app will select an appropriate route so you won't violate road restrictions on trucks, height restrictions, or legal truck weight limits. For loads of hazardous materials, some apps will select a route that avoids roads on which hazmat transportation is prohibited. Apps can also help you locate truck stops, diesel fuel stations, weigh stations, and DOT inspection stations. However, always bear in mind that GPS navigators aren't perfect. Truckers sometimes complain that their navigators misled them with wrong or confusing navigation instructions. For this reason, it's wise to double-check the GPS navigator's directions against hardcopy paper maps, such as those in the Rand McNally Deluxe Motor Carriers' Road Atlas. Like the GPS navigators, the Atlas also contains information on restricted routes, low-clearance locations, and weigh station locations.
Question: In your logbook, which of these do you record in the Remarks section?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: In your logbook, you must record each change of duty status, accurate to the nearest quarter hour (15 minutes). For each change, enter the location of the change and the reason for it in the Remarks section. Federal regulations refer to this information as an annotation, and electronic logging devices (ELDs) should have a way to enter such annotations electronically. Another use for the Remarks section is to record and annotate short-duration changes of duty status (those lasting less than 15 minutes), such as stopping for a few minutes to check the cargo securement. If you're temporarily exempt from some hours of service regulations because of an emergency or adverse condition, you should note that in the Remarks section, too. Finally, in the Remarks section, you should also identify the loads you picked up. One way (but not the only way) to identify a load is to enter the bill of lading number in the Remarks section.
Question: In a CMV with a manual transmission, how do you engage the clutch brake?
Answer: C. Depress the clutch pedal all the way to the floor.
Explanation: In large CMVs, manual transmissions are usually unsynchronized. You can shift gears by double clutching or floating the gears. To shift into low gear when your vehicle is stopped and the engine is idling, you can engage the clutch brake. This stops the transmission's input shaft (connected to the engine) from rotating so you can smoothly shift into low gear. To engage the clutch brake, depress the clutch pedal all the way to the floor. Never engage the clutch brake while your vehicle is moving; doing so can damage the clutch brake.
Question: Federal cargo securement rules apply to what types of commercial vehicles?
Answer: C. Trucks, truck tractors, semitrailers, full trailers, and tractor-pole trailers with a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 10,000 pounds
Explanation: Federal cargo securement rules apply to trucks, truck tractors, semitrailers, full trailers, and tractor-pole trailers with a gross vehicle weight rating of more than 10,000 pounds.
Question: Which federal agency is responsible for establishing national policies to help prevent hazardous materials incidents during transportation?
Answer: B. PHMSA
Explanation: The Pipeline and Hazardous Materials Safety Administration (PHMSA) isn't just about pipeline transport. PHMSA develops and enforces regulations for the safe, reliable, and environmentally sound transportation of energy products by pipeline and of hazardous materials by land, sea, and air. PHMSA establishes national policies, sets and enforces standards, educates, and conducts research to prevent hazmat incidents. PHMSA is also the agency that publishes the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG). (Note: This topic is not usually found in the official state CDL handbook.)
Question: Under federal regulations, in which of these situations are you NOT allowed to drive your CMV as a personal conveyance while you're off duty?
Answer: B. To drive to a facility to get your CMV repaired
Explanation: Under federal regulations, "personal conveyance" is the movement of a CMV for personal use while off duty. A driver may record time operating a CMV for personal conveyance as off duty only when the driver is relieved from work and all responsibility for performing work by the motor carrier. Electronic logging devices (ELDs) are required to have some means for recording time spent driving the CMV as a personal conveyance. Acceptable uses of the CMV as a personal conveyance include (1) traveling to a nearby, reasonably safe location to obtain required rest after loading or unloading; (2) traveling from a driver’s en route lodging (such as a motel or truck stop) to restaurants and entertainment facilities; and (3) commuting between the driver's residence and his or her terminal or a work site. Unacceptable uses include (1) traveling to a facility for CMV maintenance; and (2) traveling closer to the driver's next loading or unloading point while bypassing available resting locations along the way. ["Personal Conveyance," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/regulations/hours-service/personal-conveyance]
Question: Can a driver who has lost an arm or a leg be allowed to operate a CMV?
Answer: D. Yes, if the driver passes a skills test.
Explanation: A missing or impaired finger, hand, arm, foot, or leg is not an automatic disqualification for driving CMVs. FMCSA's Skill Performance Evaluation (SPE) program allows drivers with missing or impaired limbs to drive CMVs, even across state lines, if they wear the right kind of prosthetic device and can demonstrate the ability to operate the CMV safely by completing on- and off-road activities. If the driver passes a skills test, he or she will receive a SPE certificate. Drivers who have been issued an SPE certificate must carry it with them at all times. To date, FMCSA has granted thousands of SPE certificates to truck drivers who were missing limbs but have shown that they can operate CMVs safely. ["Skill Performance Evaluation Certificate Program," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/medical/driver-medical-requirements/skill-performance-evaluation-certificate-program]
Question: Where might a FAST card come in handy?
Answer: B. At the border
Explanation: The Free and Secure Trade (FAST) program is a commercial clearance program for known low-risk shipments entering the United States from Canada and Mexico. The FAST program offers pre-authorized importers, carriers, and drivers expedited clearance for eligible products. FAST enrollment is open to truck drivers from the United States, Canada, and Mexico. Dedicated FAST vehicle lanes at certain border crossings process commercial cargo to speed up the process of crossing the border. To obtain a FAST card, you must have a valid US passport and apply for the card at the Trusted Traveler Programs website of the Department of Homeland Security. Then you'll need to schedule an in-person interview. Note that you need one FAST card to cross the Mexican border and a different FAST card to cross the Canadian border.
Question: The standard list of out-of-service criteria used at roadside inspections of CMVs is published by
Answer: D. CVSA.
Explanation: The Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA) is a nonprofit organization comprised of local, state, provincial, territorial and federal commercial motor vehicle safety officials and industry representatives. CVSA was created to improve commercial motor vehicle safety and enforcement by providing guidance, education, and advocacy for enforcement and industry across North America. The CVSA National Roadside Inspection Program defines eight standard levels of roadside inspections, with a list of corresponding out-of-service criteria to be used by roadside inspectors when deciding whether a vehicle or driver should be put out of service. ["North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria," Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance, April 2022]
Question: Your semi-truck has 5 axles with 2 brakes on each axle. At a roadside inspection, if ____ or more of these brakes are found to be defective, your vehicle will be placed out of service.
Answer: B. 2
Explanation: According to CVSA's North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria, the vehicle will be placed out of service if 20% (rounded up to the next whole number) or more of its brakes are found to be defective. For a 5-axle tractor-trailer, which has 10 brakes, if 20% × 10 = 2 or more brakes are defective, the vehicle will be placed out of service. In this context, defects include a brake shoe or brake pad that fails to contact the brake drum or rotor when the service brakes are applied, or an audible air leak at a brake chamber.
Question: Your employer assigns you a task that you believe may result in serious injury to you. Under federal law, you can refuse to do the task, but only if which of these conditions are met?
Answer: D. All of the above conditions must be met.
Explanation: Section 405 of the Surface Transportation Assistance Act (STAA) protects you from employer retaliation if you refuse a task because you believe it violates federal laws or regulations or may result in serious injury to you or others. However, to be entitled to such protection, you must have first asked your employer to correct the problem, your employer refused to do it, you asked your employer for other work to perform, and any other reasonable person would agree with you about the violation or risk of serious injury. If your employer does retaliate against you for your refusal to do the task, you may file a complaint with the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
Question: Most incidents of cargo theft occur between
Answer: D. Friday evening and Monday morning.
Explanation: One study found that from 2006 to 2010, about 68% of cargo theft incidents occurred on weekends (from Friday evening to Monday morning). During these times, warehouses and distribution centers are often closed, and drivers are more likely to leave their loads parked in unsecured locations.
Question: In the event of an emergency while you're driving, which of these Hours of Service regulations will you be exempt from?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: In the event of an emergency, you may complete your run without violating any Hours of Service regulations, provided that you would have satisfied the regulations if the emergency hadn't occurred. Federal regulations list the specific conditions that are considered emergencies. These include various extreme weather events, earthquakes, tsunamis, and electrical power outages, among others. [49 CFR 390.5T], [49 CFR 395.1]
Question: To gain access to secure areas of US seaports, you'll need
Answer: B. a TWIC card.
Explanation: The Transportation Worker Identification Credential, also known as TWIC®, is required by the Maritime Transportation Security Act for workers who need access to secure areas of the nation’s maritime facilities and vessels. To obtain a TWIC card, you must apply to the Transportation Security Administration (TSA), either at their website or in person at a TWIC application center. TSA will conduct a security threat assessment (background check) of you, and if all goes well, they will issue you a TWIC card. Note that if you have a valid TWIC card, you won't need to go through another security threat assessment to obtain a Hazardous Materials endorsement.
Question: You may be exempt from the Hours of Service regulations if you operate your CMV within _________ of your home terminal or yard.
Answer: A. 150 miles
Explanation: A short-haul driver is exempt from the Hours of Service regulations, if he or she meets all the following requirements: (1) the driver operates within a 150-mile radius of the driver's home terminal or yard; (2) the driver goes off duty within 14 consecutive hours of work; (3) each 14 hours on duty is followed by at least 10 off-duty hours for a truck driver or 8 off-duty hours for a bus driver; and (4) the driver's employer keeps accurate records of the driver's duty status for the next six months. [49 CFR 395.1]
Question: Under federal regulations, every CMV with air brakes that was manufactured since _________, must have automatic slack adjusters.
Answer: A. October 20, 1994
Explanation: Under federal regulations, every CMV with air brakes that was manufactured since October 20, 1994, must have automatic slack adjusters. Antilock brakes (ABS) have been required on all buses with air brakes that were built since March 1, 1998. ABS has also been required on all tractors with air brakes that were built after March 1, 1997, and all trailers with air brakes that were built after March 1, 1998. [49 CFR § 393.53]
Question: Before throwing a strap over your load on a flatbed trailer, you should NOT
Answer: A. coil or loop the strap with the buckle on the outside.
Explanation: When throwing straps over a load on a flatbed trailer, minimize the chance of a buckle hitting someone on the opposite side. First, it's safer to coil or loop the strap with the buckle on the inside. Next, look under the trailer to make sure no one is on the opposite side. But just to be sure, shout a warning just before you throw the strap. Another point: Throwing straps can strain your arm or shoulder muscles. Consider doing some limbering-up exercises before starting this activity.
Question: Your CMV's rear tires each have a maximum load rating of 4,500 pounds. You've been driving at 55 mph for well over an hour, and now you're going to park overnight. According to federal regulations, as your tires cool off, you should assume that the tire pressures will decrease by
Answer: D. 15 psi.
Explanation: According to federal regulation 49 CFR 393.75, if the average speed of a vehicle in the previous hour has been 41–55 mph, the tire pressure of a tire whose maximum load rating is 4,000 pounds or less should be about 5 psi higher than its cold tire pressure. The tire pressure of a tire whose maximum load rating is over 4,000 pounds should be about 15 psi higher than its cold tire pressure. This means that as the tire cools, it should lose about 15 psi again. According to that regulation, you may not drive a vehicle if its cold tire pressures are too low to support the load. This is grounds for placing your vehicle out of service at a roadside inspection.
Question: A CMV's brakes are designed to withstand temperatures of up to
Answer: A. about 250 °C.
Explanation: Brakes are designed to withstand quite a lot of heat. The brake components can withstand temperatures up to about 250° C (482 °F) under hard braking.
Question: Under federal regulations, when hauling non-hazardous cargo, you may use three flares as emergency warning devices, provided they can burn for at least
Answer: B. 60 minutes.
Explanation: According to federal regulation 49 CFR 393.95, acceptable warning devices include (1) three bidirectional reflective triangles; (2) six fusees, each of which can burn for at least 30 minutes; or (3) three flares, each of which can burn for at least 60 minutes. However, you may not use flares or fusees if your vehicle is carrying flammable or explosive hazardous materials. In that case, reflective triangles are your only option.
Question: Under the Hours of Service regulations, you must not be on duty longer than ____ hours in an 8-day period.
Answer: A. 70
Explanation: Under the Hours of Service 70-Hour Rule, you must not be on duty longer than 70 hours in an 8-day period. That's an average of about 8.75 on-duty hours per day. Learn how to budget your time so you can work a reasonable number of hours each day. Note that "on duty" includes all work time, both driving and not driving (such as when conducting pre-trip inspections).
Question: What are some advantages of an automatic (power) tarping system for trailers or dump trucks?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: To cover the load in some trucks, the driver cranks a handle. In other trucks, the driver just pulls the tarp manually. In a truck equipped with an automatic power tarping system, the driver moves a switch or lever, and the system tarps the load automatically. An automatic tarping system usually costs more up front, but it has several advantages, especially when compared with pulling the tarp over the load manually. First, it's usually faster. This gives the driver more time to do other things – like carrying more loads. More loads means the system will pay for itself in lower long-term costs. Finally, it's safer. With the system doing most of the work, there's less chance of driver injury.
Question: At a roadside inspection, which of the following violations can place a driver out of service?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: At a roadside inspection, inspectors will place a driver out of service for any of the following violations: (1) fatigue, serious illness, or under the influence of alcohol or drugs; (2) lack of proper CDL or proper endorsements; (3) inadequate documentation of the last 7 days of duty status on a logbook or electronic logging device (ELD).
Question: Why should you keep some cans of spray paint in your CMV in case of an accident?
Answer: C. To mark significant points at the accident scene
Explanation: If you're involved in an accident, you should take photos of the accident scene. Your photos will be more informative if you first use a can of white or brightly colored spray paint to mark significant points, such as the directions in which the vehicles were traveling and the precise points of impact. (The vehicles may have come to a complete stop elsewhere.)
Question: Driving through a tunnel can present which of the following challenges?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: If you must drive through a tunnel, there are several issues you must deal with. First, make sure that the tunnel is tall enough for your vehicle to get through it safely. Plan in advance. Know the height of your CMV and the height of the tunnel ceiling. Second, tunnels often have reduced lane widths. Your CMV may be 8½ feet wide. Drive with caution and watch the sides of your vehicle. Finally, there can be strong winds inside the tunnel, and strong crosswinds as you exit the tunnel.
Question: Under federal regulations, if you've been notified to get alcohol and drug tested after a crash, you must submit the alcohol test within ________ and the drug test within ________.
Answer: B. 2 hours; 32 hours
Explanation: Under federal regulation 49 CFR 382.303, if you've been notified to get alcohol and drug tested after a crash, you must submit the alcohol test to your employer within 2 hours of the notification and the drug test within 32 hours of the notification. It is your responsibility to get tested. If you're unavailable for testing, your employer may consider you as having refused testing, which can have serious consequences. Of course, you are legitimately unavailable if you're being treated for injuries you sustained in the crash, or you're helping to get medical assistance for others involved in the crash.
Question: Most heavy-duty diesel engines are governed at
Answer: D. 2,000 rpm.
Explanation: Most heavy-duty diesel engines are governed at 2,000 rpm. The typical operating range is 1,300 – 2,000 rpm.
Question: If you are found guilty of a railroad crossing violation, you will lose your CDL for at least _______ for a first offense.
Answer: B. 60 days
Explanation: You will be disqualified from operating a CMV for at least 60 days if you are convicted of any of the following offenses at railroad crossings: (1) failing to slow down and check that the tracks are clear; (2) failing to stop if a train is approaching; (3) failing to stop before driving onto the crossing; (4) failing to ensure that there is sufficient space for you to drive completely through the crossing without stopping; (5) failing to obey a traffic control device or the directions of an enforcement official; (6) failing to negotiate the crossing because of insufficient undercarriage clearance. [49 CFR 383.51]
Question: What is the definition of Working Load Limit (WLL)?
Answer: A. The Working Load Limit is the maximum load that may be applied to a component of a cargo securement system during normal service. It is usually assigned by the manufacturer of the component.
Explanation: The Working Load Limit (WLL) is the maximum load that may be applied to a component of a cargo securement system during normal service. It is usually assigned by the manufacturer of the component. No component of the cargo securement system should exceed its WLL during normal service.
Question: Under federal regulations, you MUST contact the police if you're involved in a crash that results in
Answer: D. any of the above.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, if you're involved in a crash, you must contact the police if (a) there was a fatality, (b) an injured person was transported from the scene to be medically treated, or (c) a disabled vehicle was towed from the scene. All such crashes are considered reportable crashes.
Question: What percentage of new trucks sold in the United States are equipped with automated transmissions?
Answer: B. 80%
Explanation: About 80% of new trucks sold in the United States are equipped with automated manual transmissions (popularly though inaccurately called "automatic transmissions"). There is no clutch pedal. A computer handles the shifting for the driver automatically. A small percentage of trucks are equipped with fully automatic transmissions, which employ a torque converter for shifting. The rest are still sold with traditional unsynchronized manual (stick-shift) transmissions.
Question: If you are convicted of human trafficking, you will lose your CDL for
Answer: A. life.
Explanation: The "No Human Trafficking on Our Roads" Act became law on January 8, 2018. On July 29, 2019, based on this law, FMCSA announced a new rule: Any driver who is convicted of human trafficking will be permanently banned from operating a CMV for which a CDL or a commercial learner’s permit (CLP) is required.
Question: While climbing onto a truck to secure the load, you should maintain ____ point(s) of contact.
Answer: A. 3
Explanation: Whenever you climb on or off a truck or ladder, you should maintain at least three points of contact during the climb: two hands and one foot, or one hand and two feet. This method will reduce the chance of slipping or falling.
Question: Good Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) is what color?
Answer: A. Clear
Explanation: Fresh Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) looks like clear water. If the DEF fluid in a vehicle's DEF tank looks cloudy, is any other color but clear, or has contaminants floating in it, the fluid has gone bad and must be replaced.
Question: Semi-trucks have large blind spots on all four sides. Which blind spot is considered the most dangerous?
Answer: D. Passenger side
Explanation: Large CMVs have large blind spots, called "No-Zones," on all four sides. For a tractor-trailer or semi-truck, the front No-Zone extends up to 20 feet in front of the truck, and the rear No-Zone extends up to 200 feet behind the trailer. The driver's-side No-Zone extends from the driver's door, back to just past the front of the trailer. The passenger-side No-Zone is the largest No-Zone, and also the most dangerous. It can extend up to three lanes wide.
Question: As you're driving a tractor-trailer, you see in your mirrors that your trailer is drifting to one side. Which of these is most likely to be the cause?
Answer: D. Axles
Explanation: All of a vehicle's axles should be aligned perpendicular (a 90-degree angle) to the centerline of the vehicle. If the trailer axles are not properly aligned, the trailer may drift to one side, a condition commonly known as dog-legging or dog-tracking. At a roadside inspection, your trailer can be placed out of service for misaligned axles (49 CFR 393.207(a)). Another possible cause of dog-tracking is incorrectly adjusted tandems (if the trailer is so equipped).
Question: You should log your duty status times in your logbook or ELD according to which time zone?
Answer: C. Your home terminal
Explanation: According to federal regulation 49 CFR 395.8 and FMCSA Guidance FMCSA-HOS-ELD-TECH-395-FAQ26, you must record your duty status according to the time zone at your home terminal, including daylight savings time if it is in effect at your home terminal. Your "home terminal" is the place designated by your carrier, where you report for work at the start of your workday. Note that your carrier's main office may not be in the same time zone as your carrier's home terminal. Consider keeping a watch or smartphone app always set to your home terminal's local time so you can more easily log those times.
Question: A bill of lading is a legal document between
Answer: A. the shipper and the carrier.
Explanation: A bill of lading is a required document when shipping products by carrier. The bill of lading is issued by the carrier to the shipper, detailing the cargo that the carrier will transport for the shipper. It is a legally binding document. It includes the number of packages, a description of what is in each package, the weight of the packages, and the shipping rate. The bill of lading also lists the name and address of the shipper (consignor), and the name and address of the receiver (consignee). If there will be any Collect on Delivery (C.O.D.) charges, the bill of lading provides the necessary information, including who will pay the charges: the shipper or the receiver.
Question: Your CMV broke down and is about to be towed to a repair facility. Who will be responsible for the CMV?
Answer: C. You
Explanation: As the CMV driver, you were given responsibility for the CMV and its cargo if any. That doesn't change even if the vehicle is being towed away. You must oversee the towing operation. Before towing begins, you and the tow truck driver should agree on what steps to follow.
Question: In a motor vehicle, the components that transmit power from the engine are known as
Answer: A. the drivetrain.
Explanation: In a motor vehicle, the drivetrain is the group of components that transmit power from the engine to the drive wheels. This usually includes the transmission, the clutch (with a manual transmission), the driveshaft and U-joints, and the differential. The powertrain includes all the drivetrain components plus the engine itself.
Question: While driving, how often should you scan the gauges and warning lights on your instrument panel?
Answer: C. Every 15 to 20 seconds
Explanation: While driving, you should scan the environment ahead of you every 12 to 15 seconds. But it's also important to constantly monitor the status of your vehicle. You should scan your instrument panel, including the gauges and warning lights, every 15 to 20 seconds.
Question: Under the Hours of Service regulations, you must not be on duty longer than ____ hours in a 7-day period.
Answer: D. 60
Explanation: Under the Hours of Service 60-Hour Rule, you must not be on duty longer than 60 hours in a 7-day period. That's an average of about 8.6 on-duty hours per day. Learn how to budget your time so you can work a reasonable number of hours each day. Note that "on duty" includes all work time, both driving and not driving (such as when conducting pre-trip inspections).
Question: To secure a large boulder for transport, which of these tiedowns should be used?
Answer: A. Chains
Explanation: Under federal regulations, a "large boulder" has a volume of more than 2 cubic meters or weighs more than 11,000 pounds. Each large boulder must be supported on at least two pieces of hardwood blocking that extend across the full width and 3/4 of the length of the boulder. Only chains can be used as tie-downs. The chains should be placed in valleys or notches on the top of the boulder, and arranged to prevent the chains from sliding across the rock surface. [49 CFR 393.136]
Question: Which of the following health conditions is most likely to disqualify a person from driving CMVs?
Answer: A. Chronic marijuana use
Explanation: Many chronic health conditions are not necessarily disqualifications for driving CMVs. Your medical examiner will make a determination as to whether your condition is adequately controlled by treatment so you can still operate a CMV safely. However, regular use of a Schedule I controlled substance is an automatic disqualification from driving CMVs. Federal law prohibits Schedule I drugs from being legitimately prescribed for any purpose. Schedule I drugs include heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), marijuana, and methylenedioxymethamphetamine (ecstasy). Marijuana is still a federal Schedule I drug and hence still illegal at the federal level, so if you smoke marijuana regularly, you will not be qualified to drive CMVs even if marijuana is legal in your state. Federal regulation 21 CFR 1308.11 contains the full list of Schedule I controlled substances.
Question: Which of these can affect the amount of off-tracking of your vehicle?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The amount of off-tracking depends on three factors: the length of the vehicle, the sharpness of the curve or turn, and the amount of sideways drag on the rear tires. In general, the longer the vehicle, the greater the off-tracking. In a tractor-trailer, the amount of off-tracking depends on both the distance from the steering axle to the trailer kingpin, and the distance from the trailer kingpin to the trailer rear wheels. If your trailer is equipped with sliding tandems, then sliding the tandems backward will increase off-tracking. Also, the sharper the curve or turn, the greater the off-tracking. And the stronger the sideways drag on the rear tires, the greater the off-tracking.
Question: Which information about a driver is NOT entered into CDLIS?
Answer: B. Medical history
Explanation: The Commercial Driver’s License Information System (CDLIS) is a national database of all CDL holders and their driving records. CDLIS enables state driver licensing agencies (SDLAs; popularly known as DMVs) to ensure that each commercial driver has only one driver license and one complete driver record. When you apply for a CDL with the SDLA or DMV of your state, that agency must check CDLIS to ensure that you don't already hold a CDL from some other state, and you weren't already disqualified by some state from holding a CDL. After you obtain a CDL, if you move to another state, your state SDLA or DMV will also use CDLIS to transfer your driving record to the new state's SDLA or DMV. Moreover, whenever you are convicted of a moving violation, your state is required to enter that information into CDLIS. Whenever you apply for a commercial driving job, your prospective employer will check your driving record through CDLIS. Any moving violation convictions you've received from any state will show up there.
Question: If you are found guilty of texting while driving a CMV, you will be fined up to
Answer: B. $2,750
Explanation: The current penalties for texting while driving a CMV are up to $2,750 for drivers and up to $11,000 for employers who allow or require their drivers to engage in texting while driving. Furthermore, if you are convicted of texting for the second time in three years, you will be disqualified from commercial driving for at least 60 days. If you are convicted of texting for the third time in three years, you will be disqualified from commercial driving for at least 120 days.
Question: Which of these are risk factors for developing obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is a medical condition in which a sleeping person repeatedly stops breathing for 10 seconds or more, caused by repeated closures of the upper airway. Physical effects of OSA include daytime sleepiness and reduced performance. OSA is quite common; 3 million Americans suffer from it. Risk factors for developing OSA include the male gender; ages 40 and older; obesity or overweight; a large neck size; and a family history of OSA. Many CMV drivers have several of these risk factors. Fortunately, the condition is treatable.
Question: Which of these is NOT an endorsement that you can obtain on your CDL?
Answer: A. Air brakes
Explanation: Federal regulation 49 CFR 383.93 defines six different endorsements: Tank Vehicle, Hazardous Materials, Double and Triple trailers, Passenger, School Bus, and Combination tank vehicle and hazardous materials. According to federal regulation 49 CFR 383.95, a restriction on your CDL will prohibit you from operating vehicles with air brakes, until you pass the official knowledge test on air brakes and pass a skills test in a vehicle equipped with air brakes. Therefore, the qualification to drive vehicles with air brakes is NOT an endorsement, but the removal of a restriction that prohibits you from driving vehicles with air brakes.
Question: What are some downsides of deleting (removing) emissions-control devices from your diesel-powered truck?
Answer: D. All of the above are downsides.
Explanation: Some emissions-control devices on diesel-powered trucks can adversely affect fuel economy and add to maintenance costs. For these reasons, some drivers have opted to "delete" (defeat or remove) the emissions-control devices and retune the engine to run well without the devices. However, doing so can cause you major problems. First, deleting an emissions-control device violates the federal Clean Air Act and federal regulations. The penalties include stiff fines. Second, a number of states, such as California, New York, and Minnesota, now require emissions testing of trucks. You will not be able to drive your truck there if it fails emissions testing there. Third, dealers and large reputable repair shops may refuse to service your vehicle after it's illegally modified. Fourth, if you ever wish to sell your vehicle, you must disclose its illegal modifications to potential buyers. If you sell the vehicle without disclosing this information, you risk legal action from the buyer after the buyer discovers the modifications. [40 CFR 1068.101], [42 U.S. Code 7522]
Question: Which of these is NOT an advantage of diesel engines as compared with gasoline engines?
Answer: A. Quieter operation
Explanation: For large CMVs, diesel engines offer several advantages over gasoline engines. A diesel engine's high compression ratio gives it higher thermal efficiency, and therefore, about 25% greater fuel efficiency. Diesel engines produce a lot of power at low rpms. Diesel engines can last more than twice as long as gasoline engines (although this obviously depends on the specific models of engines). Finally, diesel fuel is safer than gasoline. Gasoline is highly flammable, and its vapors are highly explosive. Diesel fuel won't burn readily unless it's compressed (as in the cylinders of diesel engines). However, diesel engines are typically louder than gasoline engines.
Question: If you are found to have violated an out-of-service order while driving a coach bus, you will be disqualified from commercial driving for up to
Answer: A. 2 years.
Explanation: For violating an out-of-service order, a driver is normally disqualified for between 180 days and one year. However, if the driver was transporting hazardous materials or was driving a vehicle designed to transport at least 16 occupants including the driver, the driver will be disqualified for between 180 days and two years. [49 CFR 383.51]
Question: A 5/8-inch chain that has a working load limit of 13,000 pounds should have links marked with what strength rating?
Answer: C. 5/8 - G43
Explanation: The Working Load Limit (WLL) of a component of a cargo securement system is assigned by the component manufacturer or the default rating in the Working Load Limit table. (See federal regulation 49 CFR 393.108 for the table.) According to the WLL table, the only size 5/8" chain with a WLL of 13,000 pounds has a grade of 43. Therefore its links should be marked with the strength rating "5/8 - G43."
Question: During an en route inspection of your tractor-trailer, you notice that some trailer lights aren't working properly. Which of these should you try FIRST?
Answer: B. Check the electrical connections.
Explanation: If your trailer lights aren't working properly, the cause may be as simple as a loose electrical cable connection to the trailer, or perhaps to the tractor. Electrical connections can loosen over time from constant use. Wiggle each connector back and forth to see if it's loose. If it is, tie something around it to keep it from moving. If the connector isn't loose, check if the pins in the receptacle are clean and make good contact. Lastly, check if the cable itself is bad. If none of these are the cause of the problem, the next thing to check is the fuses or circuit breakers, and finally, the trailer light bulbs. Note: Don't ignore the problem. If any required trailer lights aren't working properly, your vehicle is in violation of federal regulation 49 CFR 393.23 and can be placed out of service at a roadside inspection.
Question: According to the Federal Highway Administration's truck classifications, a medium-duty truck with a gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) of 26,000 pounds is in class
Answer: B. 6.
Explanation: According to the Federal Highway Administration's truck classifications, there are three classes of medium-duty trucks: 4, 5, and 6. Class 6 trucks are the heaviest of these, each with a gross vehicle weight rating (GVWR) of 19,501–26,000 pounds. Classes 7 and 8 are heavy-duty trucks. Class 7 trucks have a GVWR of 26,001–33,000 pounds. They include heavy-duty single-unit trucks. Class 8 trucks, which include the big combination tractor-trailers, have a GVWR of over 33,000 pounds.
Question: What is the normal operating range for coolant temperature in a large CMV?
Answer: B. 170 to 195 °F
Explanation: After you've started your engine, the coolant temperature should start to rise gradually to the normal operating range. The typical normal operating range is 170 to 195 degrees Fahrenheit. If your coolant temperature gauge starts to rise above this range, pull over and shut off the engine before it overheats.
Question: Which types of exhaust regeneration are performed automatically?
Answer: D. (b) and (c)
Explanation: A CMV's diesel particulate filter traps particulate emissions from the engine. Eventually, enough particulates build up in the filter that they must be removed by burning them off at a relatively high temperature. This process is called regeneration. Passive regeneration and active regeneration both take place while the vehicle is moving. In passive regeneration, just the normally high temperature of the exhaust is used for regeneration. If this is not sufficient to burn off all the particulates, active regeneration takes place. The CMV's engine control unit (ECU) will inject fuel into the exhaust to raise its temperature. If even this is not sufficient, you'll have to park your vehicle and perform a regeneration manuallly, again by injecting fuel into the exhaust. Parked regeneration can take from 30 minutes to one hour. (Note: This topic is not usually found in the official state CDL handbook.)
Question: Which of these is located at each end of the driveshaft?
Answer: D. U-joint
Explanation: A universal joint (U-joint) connects two shafts to enable them to rotate together, even if they are at an angle to each other. As part of the drivetrain, one U-joint connects the transmission shaft to the drive shaft, and another U-joint connects the drive shaft to the input shaft of the differential. These U-joints are critical. If the drive shaft comes loose at one end, it may dig into the pavement, causing loss of vehicle control.
Question: While you're driving, it takes you 4 seconds to dial your hand-held cell phone. About how far will your CMV travel during that time?
Answer: D. 320 feet
Explanation: Distracted driving is dangerous. 55 mph equals 80.7 feet per second. In 4 seconds, your CMV will travel 4 × 80.7 = 323 feet. For that entire distance, your eyes will be watching your phone, not the road. Studies have shown that drivers take an average of 3.8 seconds to dial their cell phones. The length of a football playing field (i.e., not counting the two end zones) is 300 feet.
Question: If you are found guilty of violating federal regulations on driving a CMV at railroad crossings, you will be fined up to
Answer: D. $2,750
Explanation: The current penalties for violating federal regulations on driving a CMV at railroad crossings, are up to $2,750 for drivers and up to $11,000 for employers who allow or require their drivers to commit such violations. Furthermore, you will be disqualified from driving for at least 60 days for a first offense, at least 120 days for a second offense within three years, and at least one year for a third offense within three years.
Question: Your tandem dump truck has 3 axles with 2 brakes on each axle. At a roadside inspection, if ____ or more of these brakes are found to be defective, your vehicle will be placed out of service.
Answer: A. 2
Explanation: According to CVSA's North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria, no more than 20% (rounded up to the next whole number) of a vehicle's brakes can be defective. A 3-axle truck has 6 brakes. 20% × 6 = 1.2, which rounded up to the next whole number equals 2. Therefore, no more than 2 brakes can be defective, or else the vehicle will be placed out of service. In this context, defects include a brake shoe or brake pad that fails to contact the brake drum or rotor when the service brakes are applied, or an audible air leak at a brake chamber.
Question: Under federal regulations, you MUST be tested for drugs and alcohol, if you're involved in a crash that results in
Answer: B. death.
Explanation: Under federal regulation 49 CFR 382.303, if you're involved in a crash, your employer must test you for drugs and alcohol if (a) there was a fatality, or (b) you received a citation under local or state law AND the crash involved an injured person being transported from the scene or a disabled vehicle being towed from the scene. If you were not cited, then you need not be tested as long as the crash didn't result in death.
Question: You are transporting a 22-foot-long piece of cargo on your flatbed trailer. There are no bulkheads or other devices blocking the cargo from moving in the forward direction. Under federal regulations, you must use at least ____ tiedown(s) to secure the cargo.
Answer: D. 4
Explanation: As stated in your official CDL manual, the basic rule for tiedowns is one tiedown for every 10 feet of cargo length rounded up to the nearest 10 feet. Thus under this rule, you need at least 3 tiedowns for a 22-foot-long piece of cargo. However, federal regulation 49 CFR 393.110 imposes an additional rule not stated in the manual: if the cargo is not blocked from moving forward by bulkheads, other devices, or other cargo, you must use one additional tiedown (which used to be called a "penalty strap") for the first 10 feet of cargo length. Hence, for a 22-foot-long piece of cargo that's not blocked from moving forward, you must use at least 4 tiedowns.
Question: Your carrier directs you to perform a task that would violate federal regulations. You point this out to your carrier. The carrier then threatens you with termination if you don't perform the task. Under federal regulations, if you wish to file a complaint with FMCSA, you must do so within
Answer: B. 90 days.
Explanation: Federal regulations define "coercion" as when a motor carrier, shipper, receiver, or transportation intermediary threatens to withhold work from, take employment action against, or punish a driver for refusing to operate in violation of federal regulations. The FMCSA's Coercion Rule explicitly prohibits motor carriers, shippers, receivers and transportation intermediaries from coercing drivers to operate in violation of certain FMCSA regulations. If you have been the victim of such coercion, you can file a coercion complaint with FMCSA, but you must do it within 90 days of when the coercion took place.
Question: Which of these does NOT constitute an automatic failure of your CDL skills test?
Answer: B. Ending a backing exercise while over a boundary line
Explanation: Any of a variety of certain actions or inactions on your part can cause you to fail the entire CDL skills test. Of the four choices here, you must demonstrate to your test examiner that you can exit your vehicle safely whenever you have to. This includes properly securing the vehicle by setting the parking brakes and taking the ignition key with you. If you don't, you will automatically fail the entire CDL skills test. Also, failure to perform every one of the braking tests required for your vehicle, whether it's equipped with air brakes or hydraulic brakes, will constitute an automatic failure. Finally, overrunning a curb or sidewalk even slightly during the road test will also constitute an automatic failure. On the other hand, attempting to end a backing exercise while you're over a boundary line will lose you points, but it's not necessarily an automatic failure. Your examiner will tell you to move your vehicle inside the boundary lines, and your skills test will continue.
Question: While you're driving a truck at a smooth speed, the oil pressure gauge should read
Answer: D. 35 to 75 psi.
Explanation: When you're stopped and the engine is idling, engine oil pressure should be between 5 and 20 psi. When you're driving at speed, oil pressure should be between 35 and 75 psi. Never try to drive with low oil pressure. Driving without sufficient oil can easily damage the engine. The oil level warning light on the dash should come on if the oil level drops too low. In some modern CMVs, the engine will automatically shut down.
Question: Under federal regulations, the maximum allowable speedometer error of a CMV traveling at 50 mph is
Answer: D. plus or minus 5 mph.
Explanation: According to federal regulation 49 CFR 393.82, the speedometer of a CMV traveling at 50 mph must be accurate to within plus or minus 5 mph, which would be a relative error of plus or minus 10%. This requirement applies to buses, trucks, and truck tractors.
Question: Under federal regulations, which of these are considered "highways"?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: You may have encountered the term "highway" in state or federal regulations. In state and federal regulations, the word "highway" means something different from what it often means in ordinary conversation. When many people speak of "driving on the highway," they usually mean a freeway or expressway. But federal regulation 49 CFR 390.5 defines a "highway" as any road, street, or way, whether on public or private property, that is open to public travel. In other words, any public road qualifies as a highway in federal regulations.
Question: Which of these is NOT considered a critical vehicle inspection item during a roadside inspection?
Answer: B. Mirrors
Explanation: In the North American Standard Out-of-Service Criteria, by CVSA, the critical vehicle inspection items are the most critical systems in the vehicle. These are the brakes, the cargo securement, the driveline, the suspension, the steering, and others. Mirrors are not considered a critical vehicle inspection item. To pass inspection, the vehicle must not have any defects in any of these critical vehicle inspection items. Furthermore, if inspectors discover a defect in one of these items that is likely to cause a crash or breakdown, they will place the vehicle out of service.
Question: You've parked your tractor-trailer at a loading dock, where a forklift (fork truck) operator will load cargo into the trailer. You should do all of the following EXCEPT
Answer: C. use a dock plate.
Explanation: Forklifts weigh an average of 9,000 pounds, and some weigh much more. Before allowing a forklift operator to drive into your trailer, take these precautions: (1) To restrain the trailer, use wheel chocks or the loading dock's own locking system (if so equipped). Don't depend entirely on your truck's parking brakes. The movements of a heavy forklift can push the trailer away from the dock even with the brakes engaged. (2) Use a dock board, not a dock plate, to bridge the gap between the trailer and the dock. Typical dock plates are too light to take the weight of a forklift and are not rated for forklift use. (3) Check the floor of your trailer for any weak spots that may not be able to take the weight of the forklift. (4) Add more lighting if it's too dark in the trailer for the forklift operator to operate safely.
Question: At a roadside inspection, which of these is NOT likely to result in your vehicle being placed out of service?
Answer: A. Broken shock absorber
Explanation: According to federal regulations and the North American Out-of-Service Criteria, among the many violations that can place your vehicle out of service are a broken axle (49 CFR 393.207(a)), a broken leaf spring (49 CFR 393.207(b)), and a broken U-bolt (49 CFR 393.207(a)). However, a broken shock absorber is not considered an out-of-service condition.
Question: Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is characterized by which of the following?
Answer: A. Stoppage of breathing
Explanation: In obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), the person stops breathing during sleep. These episodes can occur repeatedly. OSA can cause excessive daytime sleepiness and difficulty concentrating, which can impair your ability to drive a CMV safely. A study sponsored by FMCSA found that 28% of commercial truck drivers have mild to severe sleep apnea. Fortunately, OSA is treatable. Asthma is characterized by constricted airways in the lungs, causing wheezing and shortness of breath. Angina pectoris is characterized by insufficient blood flow to the heart muscle, resulting in chest pain or pressure. Epilepsy is characterized by repeated seizures.
Question: The average person's "biological clock" causes a dip in the person's alertness
Answer: A. between 2 p.m. and 5 p.m.
Explanation: Human beings have a natural circadian rhythm or "biological clock" that controls a variety of body functions, including when alertness and drowsiness occur. A person who usually awakens around 6 a.m. has two separate dips in alertness during a 24-hour day: one between 2 a.m. and 6 a.m. (when the person is normally asleep), and one between 2 p.m. and 5 p.m. (when the person is awake but may feel drowsy). This afternoon dip in alertness can be hazardous for a commercial driver who's on the road during those times.
Question: When you apply for a CMV driver's job with a prospective DOT-regulated employer, that employer must check whether you failed any DOT-regulated employer's test for drugs or alcohol within the past
Answer: A. 3 years.
Explanation: When you apply for a CMV driver's job with a prospective DOT-regulated employer, that employer is required to query the FMCSA Drug & Alcohol Clearinghouse to find out whether you failed any DOT-regulated employer's test for drugs or alcohol within the past three years. ("DOT-regulated" employers include all employers that are subject to the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations.) You must give the prospective employer written authorization to perform this background check on you.
Question: The Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA) defines eight different levels of roadside inspections. How does the Level 3 inspection differ from the Level 1 inspection?
Answer: B. The driver is inspected but not the vehicle.
Explanation: The Level 1 roadside inspection is the most comprehensive inspection. It involves a 37-point inspection of both the driver and the vehicle. The Level 2 inspection is similar, except that nothing underneath the vehicle is inspected. In a Level 3 inspection, the driver is inspected but not the vehicle. In a Level 5 inspection, the vehicle is inspected but not the driver.
Question: According to the Hours of Service regulations, you must submit your day's log of duty status to your carrier within
Answer: B. 13 days.
Explanation: Whether you use an ELD or a paper log, you must submit your day's record of duty status to your carrier within 13 days of that day. If your ELD malfunctions, you must use a paper log to record your duty status. Keep a paper logbook in your vehicle in case your ELD fails. [49 CFR 395.8]
Question: To reduce emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOx), today's semi-trucks are typically equipped with
Answer: C. a Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) system.
Explanation: The exhaust gases of diesel engines include nitrogen oxides (NOx), a major contributor to air pollution and acid rain. To reduce most nitrogen oxide emissions, today's semi-trucks are equipped with a Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) system. Diesel exhaust fluid (DEF) is sprayed onto a special catalyst (a material that facilitates chemical reactions). DEF is a 32.5% solution of urea in water. As exhaust gases pass over the catalyst, DEF acts as a reductant, reacting with the NOx to form harmless nitrogen gas and water vapor, with a tiny amount of carbon dioxide as well. This system can reduce NOx emissions by up to 90%. The semi-truck's Diesel Particulate Filter (DPF) reduces particulates in the vehicle's emissions.
Question: What is the purpose of an auxiliary power unit (APU)?
Answer: D. To provide power to the cab while the engine is off
Explanation: A power take-off (PTO) is a device that can transfer power from the idling engine to some secondary application, such as an implement or hydraulic pump. For example, a PTO can raise or lower the bed of a dump truck. An auxiliary power unit (APU) provides electrical power to run your cab's heater, A/C, and appliances without idling the engine. Idling the engine produces air pollution, so most states limit how long you can idle your engine (although they may make an exception for operating a PTO).
Question: The Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA) defines eight different levels of roadside inspections. Which level includes the most comprehensive inspection?
Answer: B. 1
Explanation: The Commercial Vehicle Safety Alliance (CVSA) developed the National Roadside Inspection Program, which defines eight different levels of inspections, each with its own list of items to be inspected. Level 1 is the most comprehensive. Both the driver and the vehicle are checked. The inspector checks the vehicle by a walkaround inspection and by getting physically underneath the vehicle to check for defects there. Level 2 is similar to Level 1, except the inspector doesn't get underneath the vehicle. Only a walkaround inspection is performed on the vehicle.
Question: How can you prevent your tractor-trailer from being stolen while you're out of the vehicle?
Answer: D. All of the above can help.
Explanation: If you must leave your tractor-trailer in an unsecured location so you can get a meal or shower, it's at risk of being stolen. There are several steps you can take to help prevent its theft. First, take the ignition key with you and lock the truck's doors. However, professional thieves know how to break into a truck and hot-wire it. Consider installing a vehicle alarm or an air cuff (air brake control) lock, which locks the parking brake and trailer air supply knobs. Finally, if you're traveling with a co-driver or family member, have him or her stay with the truck whenever you are away from it.
Question: On the gear shifters of semi-trucks with 18-speed manual transmissions, the range selector is usually on the ______, and the splitter is usually on the ______.
Answer: B. front; left
Explanation: On shifters that have both a range selector and a splitter, the range selector is usually on the front, and the splitter is usually on the left. As you hold the shifter, your index finger can move the range selector up and down, and your thumb can move the splitter forward or backward.
Question: Diesel #2 (2-D) fuel starts to gel when the ambient temperature drops to
Answer: A. 10 – 15 degrees Fahrenheit.
Explanation: Diesel #2 (2-D) fuel is the most common type of fuel for large commercial diesel-powered vehicles. This type of fuel contains paraffin. When the ambient temperature drops to around 14 degrees Fahrenheit, the paraffin starts to form visible crystals, making the fuel appear cloudy. The vehicle may still be drivable. However, if the temperature continues to drop further, the paraffin may gel to the point that it clogs the fuel filter. At this point, the vehicle won't start at all, or engine performance will be impaired. To prevent gelling, you can add an anti-gel additive to the fuel, switch to a winter blend of fuel that is less likely to gel at these temperatures, or use a fuel warmer or fuel line heater.
Question: A load is secured with 3/8-inch chains that do not display a strength rating. What are the default strength rating and working load limit (WLL) of each chain?
Answer: A. 3/8-G30; 2,650 pounds
Explanation: Welded steel chain that is not marked or labeled with a grade or working load limit (WLL) is considered to have a WLL equal to that of grade 30 proof coil chain. Hence, each size 3/8" chain should be marked "3/8-G30." According to the WLL table in federal regulation 49 CFR 393.108, size 3/8" proof coil chain with grade 30 has a WLL of 2,650 pounds.
Question: Which of these roadside inspections does NOT include inspecting the vehicle?
Answer: D. Level III
Explanation: A Level III inspection is a driver inspection. The inspector interviews you and checks your CDL and other documents. The inspector checks whether you're wearing your seat belt. The inspector also looks for obvious signs of impairment on your part, such as being under the influence of alcohol. Finally, the inspector identifies and verifies your carrier to be sure it is authorized to operate in the country. Unlike Levels I and II, the inspector does not examine your vehicle or cargo.
Question: What of these can increase your risk of developing obstructive sleep apnea?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) can cause excessive daytime sleepiness and difficulty concentrating, which can impair your ability to drive a CMV safely. Risk factors for developing OSA include the male gender, obesity, smoking, and being age 40 or older. Many truck drivers have all these risk factors. A study sponsored by FMCSA found that 28% of commercial truck drivers have mild to severe sleep apnea. Fortunately, OSA is treatable.
Question: Under federal regulations, what is the maximum tandem axle weight rating for axles that are spaced 97 inches apart?
Answer: A. 38,000 pounds
Explanation: Federal regulations impose maximum weight limits on CMVs traveling on interstate highways. The maximum allowable Gross Combination Weight Rating (GCWR) is 80,000 pounds. The single axle weight rating is 20,000 pounds, and the tandem axle weight rating is 34,000 pounds for typical tandem axles that are spaced 40 to 96 inches apart, from center to center. For tandem axles spaced 97 inches apart, the axle weight rating is 38,000 pounds. The tridem axle, or three-axle, weight rating is 42,000 pounds if the outermost two axles are 97 inches apart.
Question: Your carrier directs you to perform a task that would violate federal regulations. You point this out to your carrier. The carrier then threatens you with termination if you don't perform the task. Under federal regulations, this situation is known as
Answer: B. coercion.
Explanation: Federal regulations define "coercion" as when a motor carrier, shipper, receiver, or transportation intermediary threatens to withhold work from, take employment action against, or punish a driver for refusing to operate in violation of federal regulations. The FMCSA's Coercion Rule explicitly prohibits motor carriers, shippers, receivers and transportation intermediaries from coercing drivers to operate in violation of certain FMCSA regulations. If you have been the victim of such coercion, you can file a coercion complaint with FMCSA, but you must do it within 90 days of when the coercion took place.
Question: The active ingredient in Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) is
Answer: C. urea.
Explanation: Today's large CMVs typically use a Selective Catalytic Reduction (SCR) system to reduce emissions of nitrogen oxides (NOx). Diesel Exhaust Fluid (DEF) is a 32.5% solution of urea in water. Yes, urea is also found in the urine of mammals, but there are other chemicals in urine as well. DEF is sprayed onto a special catalyst (a material that facilitates chemical reactions), and reacts with the NOx to form harmless nitrogen gas and water vapor, with a tiny amount of carbon dioxide as well. This system can reduce NOx emissions by up to 90%.
Question: The sidewall of a tire is marked with the size "295/75R22.5." What does the number 75 refer to?
Answer: D. The aspect ratio
Explanation: Tire size designations evolved over time and ended up with a mix of inches, millimeters, and percentages. The first number, 295 in this case, is the width of the tire in millimeters, measured from sidewall to sidewall. 1 inch = 25.4 millimeters, so the width of this tire in inches is 295 / 25.4 = 11.6 inches. The next number, 75, is the aspect ratio: the ratio of the sidewall's height to the aforementioned width, expressed as a percentage. In this case, the aspect ratio is 75%, so the sidewall's height is 75% × 11.6 inches = 8.7 inches. After the aspect ratio, the capital letter indicates whether the tire is radial ('R') or bias-ply ('D'). In this case, the letter 'R' indicates that this tire is radial. The final number, 22.5 in this case, gives the diameter of the rim in inches.
Question: In a CMV equipped with an unsynchronized manual transmission, when might you engage the clutch brake?
Answer: B. To shift into a low gear when you're stopped
Explanation: When driving a CMV with an unsynchronized manual transmission, you can shift gears by double clutching or floating the gears. To shift into low gear or reverse when your vehicle is stopped and the engine is idling, you can engage the clutch brake. This stops the transmission's input shaft (connected to the engine) from rotating, so you can smoothly shift into low gear or reverse. To engage the clutch brake, depress the clutch pedal all the way to the floor. Never engage the clutch brake while your vehicle is moving; doing so can damage the clutch brake.
Question: As compared with the general US adult population, which of these is true of CMV drivers?
Answer: D. All of the above are true.
Explanation: 49% of CMV drivers smoke, compared with 27% of the general adult population. 73% of CMV drivers are obese, compared with 33% of the general population. 33% of CMV drivers have hypertension (high blood pressure), compared with 26% of the general population. Finally, only 8% of CMV drivers exercise regularly, compared with 25% of the general population.
Question: Which of these turns the torque by 90 degrees?
Answer: B. Differential
Explanation: A differential uses a series of gears to accomplish several functions. First, it transfers torque from the driveshaft to the axle. Because the axle is at 90 degrees from the driveshaft, the differential also turns the torque by 90 degrees accordingly. The outside of a curved road is longer than the inside. On such a curve, the differential lets the outside half of the axle turn faster than the inside half of the axle, so that the outside wheels can cover a greater distance than the inside wheels. If there were no differential, the outside wheels would turn at the same rate as the inside wheels, causing at least some of the wheels to drag on the pavement.
Question: Which of these statements about truck safety belts is true?
Answer: D. None of the above are true.
Explanation: Many commonly held beliefs about safety belts are false, including all three here. To begin with, the large size of a semi-truck doesn't adequately protect the driver. In 2006, for example, 805 drivers and occupants of large trucks died in truck crashes, and 393 of them (49%) were not wearing safety belts. Of the 217 drivers and occupants who were killed and ejected from their vehicles, nearly 81% were not wearing safety belts. Fire or submersion occurs in less than 5% of fatal large truck crashes. Should your CMV catch fire or be submerged, it will take you at most one second to unhook your safety belt. The laws of physics make even relatively low-speed crashes dangerous. In a frontal crash at 30 mph, an unbelted driver will continue moving forward at 30 mph until he or she hits the windshield, unless the truck is equipped with a driver's-side airbag. Only some models of semi-trucks have driver's-side airbags, because it's still not a federal requirement. A final point: For large trucks, rollovers are among the deadliest of crashes. About half of fatalities in large trucks involve a rollover. But in a rollover, the driver is 80% less likely to die when wearing a safety belt. ["9 Myths About Safety Belts for Truck Drivers," FMCSA, https://www.fmcsa.dot.gov/9-myths-about-safety-belts-truck-drivers]
Question: Which of these is NOT a common symptom of obstructive sleep apnea (OSA)?
Answer: A. Fainting spells
Explanation: In obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), the person stops breathing during sleep. These episodes can occur repeatedly. While you're asleep, OSA can cause loud snoring. While you're awake, OSA can impair your short-term memory and cause excessive sleepiness and difficulty concentrating, which can impair your ability to drive a CMV safely. A study sponsored by FMCSA found that 28% of commercial truck drivers have mild to severe sleep apnea. Fortunately, OSA is treatable.
Question: If you are found to have a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of 0.02%, you will be placed out-of-service for
Answer: C. 24 hours.
Explanation: If your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is found to be 0.04% or more, you can be charged with driving under the influence (DUI). (An average 180-pound man may reach a BAC above 0.04% after drinking just two cans of beer.) Even if you are found to have any detectable amount of alcohol in your system under 0.04%, you will be placed out-of-service for 24 hours.
Question: Heavy vehicles must sometimes travel more slowly than other traffic. Which of these is NOT a good rule to follow when you are driving such a vehicle?
Answer: C. Signal other drivers when it is safe for them to pass you.
Explanation: If you must drive slowly, keep right and (if state laws allow it) use your four-way flashers to warn other drivers. Don't try to signal other drivers when you believe it's safe for them to pass you. If something were to go wrong, resulting in an accident, you could be held legally liable.
Question: How does "bleeding tar" affect the road surface and driving conditions?
Answer: B. It makes the road slippery.
Explanation: On hot days, tar in the pavement can rise to the surface and create a slippery film on the road surface.
Question: If you are driving a long distance, you should
Answer: B. stop often and take short breaks before you feel really drowsy or tired.
Explanation: To maintain your alertness during a long drive, especially at night, plan to take frequent rest breaks – about every two hours or 100 miles.
Question: While you're driving, ice builds up on your wipers and they no longer clean the windshield. What should you do?
Answer: B. Stop safely and fix the problem.
Explanation: If your view through the windshield is obscured because your windshield wipers aren't clearing the windshield, pull over as soon as possible and fix the problem. Remember: If you can't see, you can't drive.
Question: How do you correct a drive-wheel acceleration skid?
Answer: A. Stop accelerating.
Explanation: To recover from a skid, first stop doing what caused it in the first place. To recover from a drive-wheel acceleration skid, first take your foot off the accelerator. To recover from a drive-wheel braking skid, stop braking. To recover from a front-wheel skid that was caused by driving too fast for current conditions, slow down.
Question: If a straight vehicle (no trailer or articulation) goes into a front-wheel skid, it will
Answer: B. go straight ahead even if the steering wheel is turned.
Explanation: In a front-wheel skid, the front end tends to go in a straight line regardless of how much you turn the steering wheel.
Question: During a pre-trip inspection, you discover an exhaust leak or power steering leak. You should
Answer: B. report the problem and make arrangements to use another vehicle.
Explanation: Report any problems that could jeopardize your safety or that of others or lead to a breakdown. Don't drive the vehicle until those defects are corrected. Obviously the steering system is critical and must be in good working order. An exhaust system leak could let poisonous fumes into your cab or sleeper berth.
Question: For your safety, when setting out reflective triangles, you should
Answer: C. hold the triangles between yourself and oncoming traffic.
Explanation: As you carry the reflective triangles to place them around your vehicle, hold them between yourself and traffic to help you stay visible to other drivers.
Question: How far ahead should you be looking while driving in town?
Answer: B. One block
Explanation: While driving, you should scan the road 12–15 seconds ahead. At typical speeds in urban areas, your vehicle will travel about one block in 12–15 seconds. At 60 mph, your vehicle will travel a quarter of a mile in 15 seconds.
Question: If the vehicle in front of you is smaller than yours, it can probably
Answer: C. stop faster than you.
Explanation: Large vehicles like CMVs tend to have longer braking distances than smaller vehicles. Always maintain an adequate following distance behind the vehicle in front of you. Otherwise, if it suddenly slows down, you may not have enough space to avoid rear-ending it.
Question: Blocking the cargo to keep it from shifting must be done
Answer: A. at the front, back, or sides of a piece of cargo.
Explanation: Blocking and bracing can prevent cargo from shifting. Use blocking and bracing to keep cargo from shifting in whichever directions it might move. Blocking fits snugly against cargo; bracing runs from the upper part of the cargo to the floor or walls of the cargo compartment.
Question: How does the height of a vehicle's center of gravity affect safe handling?
Answer: B. Trucks with a high center of gravity can roll over at the posted speed limit for a curve.
Explanation: Trucks with a high center of gravity are much more likely to roll over on a curve, even if they are not exceeding the posted or recommended speed limit. When driving such a vehicle on a curve, slow down well below the posted speed limit.
Question: Hydroplaning
Answer: A. is more likely when the tire pressures are low.
Explanation: Hydroplaning is more likely if traction is low. This can happen if the tire treads are worn or the tire pressures are low (because there is less pressure pushing down on the road to supply traction).
Question: If you cannot avoid driving through deep puddles or flowing water, which of the following can help keep your brakes working?
Answer: B. Gently apply the brakes while driving through the water.
Explanation: If you must drive through water, slow down, shift into a low gear, and keep applying the brakes gently to prevent water, mud, or other contaminants from getting into the brakes.
Question: If you have a heavy load that is slowing you down on an upgrade, you should
Answer: C. shift into a lower gear.
Explanation: Trucks with heavy loads are often slower when going uphill. In this situation, keep right and shift into a lower gear for more torque if possible.
Question: All of the following behaviors are signs of aggressive driving EXCEPT
Answer: C. changing speeds frequently.
Explanation: Aggressive driving is driving in a selfish or pushy manner, which is dangerous enough. Road rage is even worse: intentionally driving to harm someone or physically assaulting someone in his or her vehicle. Examples of aggressive driving include tailgating, purposely straddling two lanes of traffic, purposely blocking another vehicle from changing lanes, and honking the horn to express annoyance, anger, or frustration. Examples of road rage include deliberately ramming another vehicle and exiting one's vehicle to directly confront another driver. However, there are legitimate situations in which a motorist may need to change speeds frequently, such as in heavy traffic or on winding roads.
Question: How far ahead should you look while driving?
Answer: A. 12–15 seconds
Explanation: While driving, you should scan the road 12–15 seconds ahead. At typical speeds in urban areas, your vehicle will travel about one block in 12–15 seconds. At 60 mph, your vehicle will travel a quarter of a mile in 15 seconds.
Question: Escape ramps are
Answer: B. used to stop runaway vehicles.
Explanation: Escape ramps are located on many steep mountain grades. Escape ramps are built to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers or passengers. Escape ramps use a long bed of loose, soft material such as gravel to slow a runaway vehicle, sometimes in combination with an upgrade.
Question: According to the Illinois Commercial Driver's License Study Guide, why should you limit the use of your horn?
Answer: B. It can startle other drivers.
Explanation: Your horn can startle other drivers, pedestrians, or animals. Hence, it should only be used to warn others of a potential hazard, not for general communication and certainly not to express anger or frustration.
Question: How do you test hydraulic brakes for leaks?
Answer: A. Pump the brake pedal three times; then apply firm pressure to the pedal and hold it for five seconds. The pedal should not move.
Explanation: To test a vehicle equipped with hydraulic brakes for leaks in the brakes, first pump the brake pedal three times. Next, apply firm pressure to the brake pedal for five seconds. If it moves, the brakes may have a leak or some other problem.
Question: Can federal inspectors inspect your truck or bus?
Answer: A. Yes, and they might place it out-of-service.
Explanation: Federal or state inspectors may inspect your vehicle. If they find a problem that makes the vehicle potentially unsafe, they will put the vehicle out-of-service until the problem is fixed.
Question: How can you avoid wet brake problems?
Answer: A. Slow down, shift into a low gear, and gently apply the brakes.
Explanation: If you must drive through water, slow down, shift into a low gear, and keep applying the brakes gently to prevent water, mud, or other contaminants from getting into the brakes.
Question: Which of the following best describes how sleep debt can be paid off?
Answer: A. It can only be paid off by sleeping.
Explanation: Sleep debt is a dangerous condition in which missing sleep adds up until you risk falling asleep at the wheel unless you get some rest. People are often surprised that getting less than 6 hours of sleep per night triples the risk of an accident. At least 15% of heavy truck crashes are believed to involve driver fatigue. Before each trip, you should get adequate sleep. (According to the Illinois Commercial Driver's License Study Guide, the average person needs seven or eight hours of sleep every 24 hours.)
Question: If you do not have a CB radio, what is the first thing you should do at an accident scene?
Answer: C. Protect the accident scene.
Explanation: At an accident scene, first protect the accident scene to help prevent another accident. Pull your vehicle as far away from traffic and as close to the side of the road as possible. Set out warning devices such as reflective triangles.
Question: How many reflective warning triangles must you carry with you for emergencies?
Answer: A. 3
Explanation: Your truck's emergency equipment must include warning devices such as three reflective red triangles, three liquid burning flares, or six fusees.
Question: Your GPS device
Answer: A. should be designed for truck navigation.
Explanation: You should always use a GPS device or GPS app that is designed for truck navigation. A good truck-enabled GPS device takes into account the dimensions and weight of your CMV and the nature of its load. The device can warn you about or even avoid roadways with height restrictions, weight restrictions, or restrictions on the transport of hazardous materials. Such a GPS device can also inform you of points of interest to CMV operators, such as truck stops, weigh stations, and repair services for CMVs.
Question: How can you test the parking brake?
Answer: C. Set the parking brake and pull forward gently.
Explanation: The parking brake is meant to keep your vehicle from moving. The best way to test it is to apply the parking brake and then try to pull forward gently. The parking brake should hold your vehicle in place. If you're pulling one or more trailers, test each trailer's parking brakes in the same way.
Question: You are driving a heavy vehicle on a highway, and you plan to exit onto an off-ramp that curves downhill. You should
Answer: C. slow down to a safe speed before taking the curve.
Explanation: On curves, the posted speed may be safe for cars but not for CMVs, especially CMVs that are more prone to rollovers. Slow down to a safe speed before you enter the curve. Taking a curve too fast can cause a rollover. Braking in a curve can cause a skid (or even a jackknife if you're pulling a trailer).
Question: If you are being tailgated, you should
Answer: C. increase your following distance.
Explanation: Tailgating is a major cause of rear-end collisions. If you're being tailgated, increase your following distance behind the vehicle ahead of you. That way, if you have to stop or slow down, you can do so gradually, reducing the risk of being rear-ended by the tailgater. It will also make it easier for the tailgater to pass you.
Question: Convex curved mirrors
Answer: A. show a wider area than flat mirrors.
Explanation: A convex mirror has a wider field of view than a flat mirror. However, objects viewed in a convex mirror look smaller and farther away than they really are. Bear this in mind when you're trying to judge the distance of an object that you're viewing in a convex mirror.
Question: Dry bulk and hanging meat cargoes
Answer: C. are unstable loads.
Explanation: Dry bulk and hanging meat cargoes have high centers of gravity. Plus, hanging meat sways significantly when you're driving on a curve, making for a very unstable load.
Question: Brake fade
Answer: A. can be caused by the brakes becoming too hot.
Explanation: Brakes use friction to convert the kinetic energy of your moving vehicle into heat. However, overuse of the brakes (which can happen if you don't use engine braking enough) can generate so much heat that brakes can fade (lose their effectiveness) or fail.
Question: Containerized loads
Answer: B. are typically used for freight carried partway by rail or ship.
Explanation: Containerized loads usually travel partway by rail or ship. They are transported by truck at the start or toward the end of their journey. Containerized loads are sealed. Usually, you are not allowed to break the seals to inspect them. However, you are responsible for ensuring that the load is secured on your vehicle and it won't cause your vehicle to exceed gross weight or axle weight limits.
Question: A driver's logbook
Answer: A. must be shown immediately if an officer requests it.
Explanation: If you're transporting hazardous materials, a law enforcement officer may stop you to inspect your vehicle. The officer may check your logbook (or electronic logging device), shipping papers, vehicle placards, and the HazMat endorsement on your CDL. If your logbook is not up to date, you may be cited and placed out-of-service for some specified amount of time.
Question: Before transporting a sealed load, you must check that
Answer: C. the load is properly secured.
Explanation: You are not responsible for the state of the contents of a sealed container, nor can you inspect those contents. You are only responsible for the safety of the cargo, ensuring that it is balanced, secured, and not overloaded, and does not get in the way of emergency equipment.
Question: When you park your vehicle and shut off the engine, you should usually
Answer: C. apply the parking brake.
Explanation: Whenever you park your vehicle, set the parking brakes. There are only two exceptions: (1) If the brakes are very hot, applying the parking brakes might damage them. (2) If the brakes are wet, applying them in cold temperatures might cause them to freeze, immobilizing your vehicle. In these two situations, use wheel chocks instead.
Question: Bridge formulas specify
Answer: C. less maximum axle weight for axles that are close together.
Explanation: The axle weight is the maximum weight that an individual axle or set of axles can support. When a vehicle's axles are relatively close together, a high axle weight risks overloading bridges and roadways. To avoid overloading bridges, a bridge formula is often used to specify a lower maximum axle weight for axles that are closer together. The US Department of Transportation uses such a bridge formula to establish the maximum axle weights on interstate highways.
Question: As your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) rises, what happens?
Answer: A. Your judgment and self-control are affected.
Explanation: Alcohol affects the body in many different ways, but it first affects your judgment and self-control. As a result, you may not realize how drunk you are becoming, and you may start to make dangerous decisions.
Question: Controlled braking
Answer: B. involves keeping a vehicle in a straight line when braking.
Explanation: In controlled braking, you apply the brakes as hard as you can without locking the wheels, keeping movement of the steering wheel to a minimum.
Question: High beams should be
Answer: B. used when it is safe and legal to do so.
Explanation: High beams will help you see farther ahead at night, making you a safer driver. However, to prevent blinding other drivers, dim your headlights whenever you are within 500 feet of an oncoming vehicle or within 500 feet of a vehicle you are following.
Question: Cargo that can shift should have at least ____ tie-down(s).
Answer: C. 2
Explanation: The rule is one tie-down for every ten feet of cargo but at least two tie-downs regardless of how small the cargo is.
Question: If you have been drinking alcohol, then before you drive, you should
Answer: B. wait for it to wear off.
Explanation: Your body breaks down alcohol at a predictable rate. Typically, this is one standard drink per hour, where one standard drink equals 1.5 ounces of hard liquor, 5 ounces of wine, or 12 ounces of beer. Neither coffee nor fresh air nor a cold shower can increase that rate. You need to wait until the alcohol has been broken down. If you are caught driving a CMV while under the influence of alcohol, the consequences can be severe.
Question: A vehicle is loaded with most of the weight on the steering axle. What may result?
Answer: A. Hard steering and possible damage to the tires
Explanation: Keep your load of cargo balanced. You need enough weight on both the steering and drive axles for adequate traction. However, too much weight on the steering axle can result in hard steering and even damage the steering axle and tires. Too much weight on one side can increase the risk that the cargo will shift.
Question: A major cause of fatal crashes is
Answer: A. driving too fast for road conditions.
Explanation: Always adjust your speed to fit current driving conditions including weather, visibility, tire traction, curves, and hills. In practice, this will sometimes mean driving at well below the posted speed limit.
Question: A key principle to remember about loading cargo is to keep the load
Answer: C. balanced in the cargo area.
Explanation: Keep your load of cargo balanced. You need enough weight on both the steering and drive axles for adequate traction. However, too much weight on the steering axle can cause hard steering and even damage the steering axle and tires. Too much weight on one side can increase the risk that the cargo will shift.
Question: A car suddenly cuts in front of you. What should you NOT do?
Answer: A. Honk and stay close behind the car.
Explanation: Always maintain a safe following distance behind the vehicle in front of you. If another vehicle suddenly cuts in front of you, either slow down or change lanes to maintain a safe following distance. Tailgating another vehicle is dangerous. For a CMV driver, federal regulations consider tailgating a serious violation. You will lose your CDL for at least 60 days if you are convicted of two serious violations involving a CMV within a three-year period. [49 CFR 383.51]
Question: Converter dollies built on or after March 1, 1998 are required to have anti-lock brakes. These dollies will have
Answer: A. a yellow malfunction lamp on the left side of the dolly.
Explanation: If the converter dolly has ABS, there will be an ABS malfunction light on the left side.
Question: How long does it take a typical tractor-trailer to clear a single railroad track? A double railroad track?
Answer: B. It takes 14 seconds to clear a single track and more than 15 seconds to clear a double track.
Explanation: A typical tractor-trailer will take at least 14 seconds to fully clear a single railroad track and more than 15 seconds to fully clear a double track.
Question: In Illinois, if you are convicted of driving a CMV under the influence of alcohol (DUI) and this was your first such offense, you will most likely face
Answer: B. at least a one-year suspension of your CDL.
Explanation: Under Illinois law, if you are convicted of DUI in a CMV for the first time, you will be fined up to $2,500 and possibly sentenced to jail for up to one year. Furthermore, you will be disqualified from driving CMVs for at least one year. If you are convicted of DUI for a second time, you will be fined up to $2,500 and sentenced to jail for up to one year with a mandatory minimum sentence of five days or 240 hours of community service. Furthermore, you will be disqualified from driving CMVs permanently, ending your career in commercial driving. [2019 Illinois DUI Fact Book, Illinois Secretary of State], [49 CFR 383.51]
Question: The total weight of the powered unit, the trailer, and the cargo is called
Answer: C. gross combination weight.
Explanation: The Gross Combination Weight is the sum of the gross vehicle weight (GVW) of the power unit and the GVW of each towed unit. (A vehicle's GVW is its weight when fully loaded.)
Question: Name some things you should check on the front of your vehicle during your pre-trip inspection.
Answer: B. Low beams, high beams, four-way flashers, and turn signals
Explanation: During Step 4 and Step 5 of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, you'll check the various lights at the front of your vehicle to make sure that they're all working properly.
Question: The braking effect of the engine is greatest when the engine is _____ the governed rpm and the transmission is in the ______ gears.
Answer: A. near; lower
Explanation: The engine braking effect is strongest when the transmission is in a low gear and the engine is operating near the governed rpm's. Note: Engine braking is NOT the same thing as using a retarder or Jake Brake. Engine braking simply relies on low gears and the partial vacuum in the engine at idle to prevent your vehicle from going too fast.
Question: While driving, you see a small (one-foot-square) cardboard box ahead in your lane. You should
Answer: A. steer around it without making a sudden or unsafe move.
Explanation: You have no way of knowing what may be inside a seemingly harmless-looking object on the roadway. Even cardboard boxes, paper or cloth sacks, or plastic containers may contain some solid or heavy material or a sharp object capable of causing damage. Always scan the roadway at least 12 to 15 seconds ahead so that you can spot such obstacles in time to steer around them safely.
Question: If your vehicle catches fire while you are driving, you should
Answer: C. park in an open area.
Explanation: If your vehicle catches fire, pull off the road and park in an open area away from anything that might catch fire, such as buildings or trees. Especially avoid parking your burning vehicle near a gas station!
Question: It takes the body about ____ hours to get rid of the alcohol in four alcoholic drinks.
Answer: A. 4
Explanation: The liver processes about one-third of an ounce of alcohol per hour, which is equivalent to at most one drink per hour.
Question: To help you stay alert while driving, you should
Answer: A. take short breaks before you get drowsy.
Explanation: The monotony and boredom of a long drive can lead to highway hypnosis and drowsiness. To prevent this, stop for a break about once every two hours or 100 miles. Some cold and allergy medications can cause drowsiness, sedation, or disturbed coordination, which makes them dangerous for CMV operators. If you are unsure about the effects of a particular medication, check the warning label or ask your pharmacist or doctor.
Question: On a two-way, two-lane road, if you must stop on a hill, how far back should you place your reflective triangles?
Answer: B. Within 500 feet behind the vehicle
Explanation: If you park on the side of the road and the view of your vehicle is obscured by a hill or curve, place a reflective triangle far enough (up to 500 feet) behind your vehicle so it can be seen by other drivers.
Question: The road you are driving on becomes very slippery because of glare ice. What should you do?
Answer: C. Stop driving as soon as you can safely do so.
Explanation: When traveling on ice, your vehicle's braking distance can increase tremendously. On ice, slow down to a crawl and stop driving as soon as you can do so safely.
Question: Which of the following is true about a vehicle with a high center of gravity?
Answer: B. The heaviest parts of the cargo should be underneath the lightest parts.
Explanation: Cargo that is piled up high raises a vehicle's center of gravity, making the vehicle top-heavy and therefore more prone to rollovers. This is especially true if the heaviest parts of the cargo are near the top. You can lower the center of gravity by placing the heaviest parts of the cargo underneath the lightest parts.
Question: To safely adjust your speed to current driving conditions, what should you look for ahead?
Answer: A. Traffic and road conditions
Explanation: Driving too fast is a major cause of fatal crashes. You must adjust your speed to current driving conditions such as visibility, traction, traffic, curves, upgrades, and downgrades.
Question: What are some advantages of going right instead of left around an obstacle?
Answer: C. Both of the above are advantages.
Explanation: Steering to the left of a hazard can cause you to move into the path of an oncoming vehicle or a vehicle that is trying to pass you on the left.
Question: Truck escape ramps
Answer: C. are designed to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers and passengers.
Explanation: Escape ramps are located on many steep mountain grades. Escape ramps are built to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers or passengers. Escape ramps use a long bed of loose, soft material such as gravel to slow a runaway vehicle, sometimes in combination with an upgrade. Regardless of the type of vehicle you're driving or the other options open to you to stop your runaway vehicle, always look for one of these escape ramps. They can save lives, equipment, and cargo.
Question: Implied consent means that when you operate a CMV on public roads, you
Answer: A. consent to be tested for alcohol in your blood.
Explanation: When you operate a CMV on public roads, you imply consent to be tested for blood alcohol concentration (BAC) upon the request of law enforcement. If you are convicted of refusing to be tested, you will lose your CDL for at least one year if this was your first offense. [49 CFR 391.15]
Question: Is it safe to add coolant to a coolant recovery tank or coolant overflow tank while the engine is at operating temperature?
Answer: B. Yes, as long as the engine isn't overheated.
Explanation: Some vehicles have sight glasses, see-through coolant overflow containers, or coolant recovery containers. These permit you to check the coolant level while the engine is hot. If the container is not part of the pressurized system, the cap can be safely removed and coolant added even when the engine is at operating temperature. Never remove the radiator cap or any part of the pressurized system until the system has cooled.
Question: After you start the engine, how long should it take for the oil pressure gauge to start to rise?
Answer: B. Seconds
Explanation: Once you've started the engine, you should see the oil pressure gauge immediately begin a gradual rise to the normal operating range.
Question: Trucks and buses are subject to certain laws, restrictions, and regulations. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: C. Laws and restrictions can vary from place to place.
Explanation: You must always follow federal, state, and local regulations for your location. These regulations cover such aspects of commercial driving as vehicle weight, cargo, and allowed routes. The regulations can vary from one jurisdiction to another, so know which jurisdictions you'll be driving through.
Question: Name two situations in which the legal maximum weights may not be safe to haul.
Answer: C. During bad weather; in the mountains
Explanation: A heavily loaded vehicle will have a longer stopping distance, and its speed will be harder to control on downgrades. Therefore, when you must travel in bad weather or in the mountains, consider keeping the load significantly below the maximum legal weight limit.
Question: No matter how small the cargo is, it should have at least
Answer: A. 2 tie-downs.
Explanation: The rule is one tie-down for every ten feet of cargo, but at least two tie-downs regardless of how small the cargo is.
Question: Stab braking
Answer: B. involves releasing the brakes only after the wheels lock up.
Explanation: In the stab braking method, you fully apply the brakes until the wheels lock. Then you release the brakes. Reapply them as soon as the wheels start to roll again. Repeat. (Note: Since this method involves deliberately locking the wheels, don't use it on a vehicle with antilock brakes. Use controlled braking instead.)
Question: It is important to shift gears correctly to keep
Answer: C. control of the vehicle.
Explanation: For full control of your vehicle, you need to know when and how to upshift or downshift. Learn under what special conditions you should downshift. For example, learn how to use engine braking to slow your vehicle on a steep descent.
Question: Name some important steering system parts.
Answer: A. Tie rod, spindle, and pitman arm
Explanation: The pitman arm, spindle, tie rod, and steering gear box are all parts of the steering system.
Question: What are the regulations on the height of splash guards (mud flaps)?
Answer: A. It depends on the state.
Explanation: Currently, there are no federal regulations governing the height of splash guards (mud flaps). Each state is free to issue its own regulations, and those regulations may vary from one state to another. Under Illinois law, the rear wheels of every Second Division vehicle except a truck tractor must have rear-fender splash guards. Each rear-fender splash guard must have a ground clearance of no more than 12 inches above the roadway when the vehicle is loaded to maximum capacity. (Illinois law defines a Second Division vehicle as a vehicle that is designed or remodeled for carrying more than 10 persons, for use as living quarters, or for pulling or carrying freight, cargo, or implements of husbandry.) [625 ILCS 5/1-146], [625 ILCS 5/12-710]
Question: One can recognize hazardous materials by looking at the container's
Answer: B. label.
Explanation: Federal regulations require shippers to warn drivers and others about the nature of the hazardous materials they are shipping. The shipper affixes US DOT-compliant HazMat labels to the packages and supplies the driver with the appropriate placards to attach to his or her vehicle. The shipper also notes the hazardous nature of the materials on the shipping papers. [49 CFR 172.400], [49 CFR 172.407]
Question: Name two causes of fires.
Answer: C. Underinflated tires and dual tires that touch
Explanation: Tires that overheat can catch fire. Underinflation causes increased flexing of the tire, which increases tire temperature. Dual tires that touch each other or other parts of the vehicle can overheat due to friction.
Question: If you must stop on a road or the shoulder of any road, you must set out your emergency warning devices within
Answer: A. ten minutes.
Explanation: If you must stop on a road or the shoulder of any road, you must set out your emergency warning devices within ten minutes.
Question: If your brakes get wet on a rainy day, what can result?
Answer: C. Reduced braking power
Explanation: Brakes use friction to convert the kinetic energy of your moving vehicle into heat. If the brakes get wet, the brake shoes or brake pads may produce less friction. The brakes will grab, apply unevenly, or become weak. When you try to brake, your braking distance may increase, your vehicle may pull to one side, or the wheels may lock. On a wet road, locked wheels can cause a skid (or even a jackknife if you're pulling a trailer).
Question: Tie-downs must be of the proper type and strength. According to federal regulations, the aggregate working load limit of the cargo tie-downs must be enough to secure
Answer: B. one-half times the weight of the cargo tied down.
Explanation: Under federal regulations, the aggregate working load limit of the tie-downs used to secure cargo must be at least one-half times the weight of the cargo. Federal regulations also specify a formula to compute the aggregate working load limit of the tie-downs from the working load limits of the individual tie-downs. The _working load limit_ of an individual tie-down is defined as the maximum load that may be applied to it, as specified by its manufacturer. [49 CFR 393.106], [49 CFR 393.5]
Question: If you need to leave the road in a traffic emergency, you should
Answer: B. avoid braking until your speed has decreased to about 20 mph.
Explanation: If you've moved onto a shoulder that may have a loose surface, let your vehicle slow down to about 20 mph before you brake. Braking at a higher speed on a loose surface can cause a skid.
Question: The reaction distance is the distance traveled from the time
Answer: B. the brain tells the foot to push the brake pedal to the time the foot actually pushes the pedal.
Explanation: Total stopping distance is the sum of your perception distance (how far your vehicle goes from when you see the hazard until your brain processes it), reaction distance (how far the vehicle goes from when your brain orders your foot to take action until your foot actually starts to brake), and braking distance (how far the vehicle continues to travel once you apply the brake). An average driver's perception time is about 1 3/4 seconds. His or her reaction time is between 3/4 second and 1 second. (Note: 55 mph is equal to about 81 feet per second. At this speed, a reaction time of 3/4 second is equivalent to a reaction distance of 61 feet.)
Question: Is it legal to drive a vehicle if one-fourth of the leaves in a leaf spring are broken or missing?
Answer: C. No.
Explanation: If one-fourth or more of the leaves in any leaf spring are broken or missing, the vehicle will be put out of service until the problem is repaired.
Question: You are driving a new truck with a manual transmission. To take a long, steep downhill grade,
Answer: A. use a lower gear than you would use to climb the hill.
Explanation: With older trucks, you typically use the same gear for driving uphill and driving downhill. Today's trucks tend to have more powerful engines and be more efficient than older trucks. Hence, you can drive such a truck uphill in higher gears than you would use to drive downhill with engine braking.
Question: The tendency for long commercial vehicles to swing wide on turns is called
Answer: A. off-tracking.
Explanation: When any vehicle turns, its rear wheels will follow a shorter path than its front wheels. This is called off-tracking or "cheating." The longer the vehicle, the greater the difference. In a combination vehicle, the trailer's wheels will off-track more than the tractor's rear wheels. In a double or triple combination vehicle, the wheels of the last trailer will off-track the most.
Question: To prevent a load from shifting, there should be at least one tie-down for every ____ feet of cargo.
Answer: C. 10
Explanation: The rule is one tie-down for every ten feet of cargo but at least two tie-downs regardless of how small the cargo is.
Question: The distance your vehicle travels from the time your eyes see a hazard to the time your brain recognizes it is called _______ distance.
Answer: B. perception
Explanation: The distance that your vehicle travels from when your eyes see a hazard to when your brain finally recognizes it as a hazard is called the perception distance.
Question: Stab braking should not be used in vehicles with
Answer: B. antilock brakes.
Explanation: In stab braking, you deliberately keep locking and unlocking the wheels. Hence, stab braking should not be used in a vehicle with antilock brakes. Use controlled braking instead.
Question: To correct a drive-wheel braking skid, you should
Answer: A. countersteer.
Explanation: To correct a drive-wheel braking skid, stop braking so the drive wheels will unlock. However, as your vehicle turns back on course, it may overshoot and start to skid in the opposite direction. Quickly countersteer to counteract this tendency.
Question: In your mirror, you see a car approaching from the rear. The next time you check your mirror, you don't see the car. To change lanes, you should
Answer: B. wait until you are sure the car isn't in your blind spot.
Explanation: Before you change lanes, you must first make sure that no vehicles are hiding in your blind spots.
Question: Optional safety equipment may include emergency phone numbers, tire chains, and
Answer: C. tire changing equipment.
Explanation: Your vehicle must be equipped with a properly charged fire extinguisher and warning devices (flares, fusees, or reflective triangles). Optional emergency equipment can include tire chains in certain climates, tire changing equipment, emergency phone numbers, and an accident reporting packet.
Question: Medical certificates must be renewed every
Answer: A. 2 years.
Explanation: An FMCSA-approved medical examiner's physical examination is valid for up to 24 months. However, the medical examiner may issue you a medical certificate that expires sooner if you have a medical condition that should be monitored more frequently, such as high blood pressure or diabetes mellitus.
Question: If you must stop your vehicle beyond a curve that hides your vehicle from other drivers within 500 feet, place your warning devices
Answer: A. 10 feet behind and up to 500 feet behind your vehicle.
Explanation: This is required by federal regulation 49 CFR 392.22. This regulation also specifies where to place warning devices on other types of roadways such as undivided two-way roads and hills. These situations are also covered in the section on "Communicating Your Presence" in the Illinois Commercial Driver's License Study Guide.
Question: The best drivers watch for hazards and prepare for them in advance. This is called ________ driving.
Answer: C. defensive
Explanation: The National Safety Council defines defensive driving as "driving to save lives, time, and money, in spite of the conditions around you and the actions of others." Defensive driving is about anticipating potentially dangerous situations in advance, including driving conditions and mistakes made by others, and planning how to deal with those situations. To be a defensive driver, you must constantly scan for hazards all around your vehicle. When you spot a hazard, think about the emergencies that might develop from it and formulate plans to deal with them.
Question: To prevent brake fade, you should
Answer: C. select a gear that will keep your vehicle at a safe speed on steep downgrades.
Explanation: If you keep applying the brakes to control your speed on steep downgrades, the brakes may fade (lose their effectiveness). Instead, shift into a low gear. This will generate a braking effect to slow the vehicle, known as engine braking. The lower the gear, the greater the engine braking effect. Apply the brakes only when engine braking is insufficient or you want to stop.
Question: The best way to stop all skids is to
Answer: B. restore traction to the tires.
Explanation: If braking or steering force exceeds the tires' traction with the road surface, a skid may result. You can recover from the skid by restoring sufficient traction.
Question: Under federal regulations, if a vehicle is carrying a load that is more than two feet wide and extends more than four feet beyond the rear of the vehicle, _________ must be placed at the extreme end of the load.
Answer: A. two red flags
Explanation: Under federal regulations, if the load is more than two feet wide and extends more than four feet behind the rear of the CMV, two square red flags, each 18 inches square, must be placed at the end of the load. If the load is no more than two feet wide, one square red flag will suffice. There are additional requirements on illuminating the load at night. US states may impose their own additional requirements on the transportation of oversized loads. You can learn about Illinois's detailed requirements by contacting the Illinois Department of Transportation or reviewing their webpage "Oversize/Overweight Permits" (http://idot.illinois.gov/doing-business/permits/Oversize-and-Overweight-Permits/index). [49 CFR 393.11], [49 CFR 393.87]
Question: To avoid a crash, you had to drive onto the right shoulder. You are now driving at 40 mph on the shoulder. How should you move back onto the pavement?
Answer: C. If possible, come to a complete stop before steering back onto the pavement.
Explanation: If you're forced to steer onto the shoulder to avoid a collision, try to come to a complete stop before you move back onto the road. Moving back onto the road at high speed could cause you to lose control.
Question: In your pre-trip inspection, you are checking your steering and exhaust systems. Which of these problems should be fixed before the vehicle is driven?
Answer: B. Steering play in excess of 10 degrees
Explanation: If there is more than 10 degrees of play in your steering wheel, your vehicle will be harder to steer. Have the problem corrected before you drive the vehicle. In cold weather, white exhaust "smoke" that soon disappears may just be water vapor from condensation. However, if white smoke persists long after the vehicle has warmed up, have the condition checked.
Question: To avoid rolling backward when you start your vehicle, you should
Answer: A. partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake.
Explanation: When you start your vehicle, avoid rolling backward or else you may hit someone behind you. Set the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling back. Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back. If you have a manual transmission vehicle, partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake. On a tractor-trailer equipped with a trailer brake hand valve, the hand valve can be applied to keep from rolling back.
Question: While driving at highway speeds, you should look ahead
Answer: A. 1/4 mile.
Explanation: While driving, you should scan the road 12–15 seconds ahead. At 60 mph, your vehicle will travel a quarter of a mile in 15 seconds.
Question: To prevent skidding, you should
Answer: A. adjust to conditions while driving.
Explanation: To prevent a skid or a rollover, adjust your speed and driving style to fit current driving conditions. On slippery roads, avoid sudden moves.
Question: Your total stopping distance equals the sum of your
Answer: A. perception distance, reaction distance, and braking distance.
Explanation: Total stopping distance is the sum of your perception distance (how far your vehicle goes from when you see the hazard until your brain processes it), reaction distance (how far the vehicle goes from when your brain orders your foot to take action until your foot actually starts to brake), and braking distance (how far the vehicle continues to travel once you apply the brake).
Question: When backing, why is it important to have a helper?
Answer: C. There are blind spots you can't see.
Explanation: If you can, use a helper when backing up. Even with all your mirrors, there are still blind spots that you cannot see. The helper can stand near the rear of your vehicle and keep an eye on your blind spots. He or she can signal you to stop before an accident can occur.
Question: When driving on grades, which of these is the best choice for a safe speed?
Answer: A. Based on your vehicle and its cargo, select a speed that is safe within the posted limit.
Explanation: When driving on a downgrade, select a speed that is appropriate for the total weight of your vehicle and its cargo, the length and steepness of the grade, the road conditions, and the weather. Never exceed the posted speed limit or the speed indicated on any posted advisory speed sign.
Question: When should you review the post-trip inspection report from the previous driver?
Answer: A. You should review it during your pre-trip inspection.
Explanation: Before performing the pre-trip inspection on your vehicle, review the previous driver's post-trip inspection report. Check whether all problems discovered by the last driver have been repaired.
Question: When you drive in the mountains, you will have to use lower gears to drive safely down grades. Which of these does NOT affect your choice of gears?
Answer: C. Type of tire tread
Explanation: To determine which low gear to use to begin a descent, consider the weather, the length and steepness of the downgrade, the weight of your cargo, and the road conditions.
Question: Wheel bearing seals should be checked for
Answer: B. leaks.
Explanation: During Step 5 (Walk-Around Inspection) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, check the wheel bearing seals for any signs of cracks or leaks.
Question: What is the minimum tread depth for tires other than steering axle tires?
Answer: A. 2/32 inch
Explanation: Steering axle tires must have a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch. All other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch.
Question: It is illegal to drive a CMV if your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is ______ or above.
Answer: A. 0.04%
Explanation: You will lose your CDL for at least one year if you are convicted of driving a CMV while your BAC is 0.04% or above.
Question: When roads are slippery, you should
Answer: B. make turns as carefully as possible.
Explanation: On slippery roads, avoid sudden moves that could lead to a skid. Drive slowly and smoothly. Accelerate, brake, and turn gradually and gently.
Question: What is the proper way to hold the steering wheel?
Answer: A. Firmly, with your hands on opposite sides of the wheel
Explanation: Hold the steering wheel firmly with both hands. Your hands should be on opposite sides of the steering wheel. If you hold the steering wheel with just one hand, it could pull out of your grasp if you hit a pothole or the curb.
Question: When driving in an area with few streetlights on a clear night, if you cannot see well with your headlights, you should
Answer: A. use your high beams when legal and keep your interior lights off.
Explanation: If the lights from your instrument panel or other interior lights are too bright, it will take time for your eyes to adjust to the darkness outside. Help your eyes adjust to the outside darkness by dimming your instrument panel lights as much as possible and turning off all other interior lights. Use your high-beam headlights whenever possible. However, dim your headlights whenever you're within 500 feet of an oncoming vehicle or within 500 feet of a vehicle you are following.
Question: What is the definition of "sleep debt?"
Answer: B. The cumulative effect of not getting enough sleep
Explanation: Sleep debt is a dangerous condition in which missing sleep adds up until you risk falling asleep at the wheel unless you get some rest. People are often surprised that getting less than 6 hours of sleep per night triples the risk of an accident. At least 15% of heavy truck crashes are believed to involve driver fatigue. Before a trip, you should get adequate sleep (adults need 8 to 9 hours to maintain alertness).
Question: What is black ice?
Answer: B. A thin layer of ice clear enough that you can see the road underneath it
Explanation: Black ice is a thin layer of ice that is clear enough for you to see the road beneath. Black ice is treacherous because it makes the road only look wet, not icy.
Question: When looking ahead of your vehicle while you are driving, you should look
Answer: A. back and forth, near and far.
Explanation: When driving your vehicle, look ahead a full 12–15 seconds. Be aware of what is happening all around your vehicle, both farther from it and closer to it. Keep shifting your attention back and forth, near and far, left and right, so that you can constantly scan all these areas.
Question: What is the first thing you should try to do if your brakes fail while you're driving downhill?
Answer: C. Get off the road as soon as possible.
Explanation: If your brakes fail while you're traveling downhill, use an escape ramp if one is available. If not, escape onto an open field or a side road that flattens out or turns uphill.
Question: What should you do if a car coming toward you at night keeps its high beams on?
Answer: A. Look toward the right edge of your lane or the right edge of the road.
Explanation: If an oncoming vehicle has not dimmed its headlights, don't retaliate with your own high beams. Instead, slow down, keep right, look away from the vehicle, and steer by the right edge of the road until the vehicle has passed you.
Question: What should you do if you get stuck on the railroad tracks?
Answer: A. Get out of your vehicle and away from the tracks.
Explanation: If your vehicle gets stuck on a railroad track, get everyone including yourself out of your vehicle. Have everyone walk at about a 45-degree angle to the tracks in the direction from which you expect a train to approach. That way, if your vehicle is hit, none of you will be struck by flying debris. Once you've reached a safe location, call 911 or the telephone number on the railroad crossing sign.
Question: What does "communicating" mean in safe driving?
Answer: C. Letting other drivers know you're there
Explanation: Other drivers may not always notice you even if you're driving a big vehicle in plain sight. Before passing another vehicle, communicate your presence by tapping your horn lightly or flashing your headlights. In bad weather in the daytime, turn on your headlights to make your vehicle more visible to other road users.
Question: What checks should you perform on the steering gear box?
Answer: C. The steering box should not be missing any nuts, bolts, or cotter keys.
Explanation: When you turn the steering wheel, the steering gear box translates the rotation of the steering column into the turning of the wheels on the steering axle. When you inspect the steering, check that the steering box is securely mounted; neither it nor the hoses connected to it are leaking; and no nuts, bolts, or cotter keys are missing.
Question: You should try to park your vehicle so that
Answer: C. you can pull forward when you leave.
Explanation: Avoid backing your vehicle whenever possible. For example, when you park, do so in a way that will let you drive forward, not backward, to exit the parking space.
Question: While driving, you should use your mirrors to check
Answer: A. where the rear of your vehicle is while you make turns.
Explanation: Before driving your vehicle, adjust your mirrors to show parts of your vehicle as well as what's around your vehicle. During your trip, you can use your mirrors to keep an eye on your tires and open cargo if any. When you turn, check your mirrors to make sure that the rear of your vehicle isn't hitting anything. If you're pulling a trailer, use your mirrors to keep an eye on it. If it starts to jackknife, you'll be able to spot it in your mirrors.
Question: What things should you check during a trip?
Answer: B. Watch gauges and mirrors and use your senses to check for problems.
Explanation: During your trip, you should be watching a number of things, such as your mirrors, gauges, instruments, lights, tires, and cargo. Use several of your senses – sight, hearing, smell, and feel – to detect possible trouble.
Question: What is your most valuable way to see the sides and rear while driving?
Answer: C. Check your mirrors regularly.
Explanation: To find out what's happening behind and to the sides of your vehicle, check your mirrors frequently. Before driving your vehicle, adjust your mirrors to show parts of your vehicle as well as what's around your vehicle.
Question: When approaching a traffic light that has been green for a long time, you should
Answer: C. start to slow down so you will be ready to stop.
Explanation: A traffic light that has been green for a long time is probably about to change to a yellow and then a red light. When approaching such a green light, slow down and be prepared to stop. Never speed up in an attempt to "beat the light" before it turns red.
Question: When a doctor prescribes medication for you and you know you will be driving, you should
Answer: A. ask the doctor if the medication will affect your ability to drive.
Explanation: Some prescription drugs can impair your driving abilities. If your doctor prescribes a medication for you, be sure to ask him or her if the medication can impair your driving abilities.
Question: What is countersteering?
Answer: C. Turning the wheel back in the other direction after steering to avoid a hazard
Explanation: In a quick turning maneuver such as recovering from a drive-wheel braking skid or moving from the shoulder onto the roadway at a higher speed, your vehicle will tend to overshoot and keep turning in the same direction more than you want it to. Be ready to counteract this by turning your steering wheel in the opposite direction. This is known as countersteering.
Question: What is the minimum tread depth for front tires?
Answer: C. 4/32 inch
Explanation: Steering axle tires must have a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch. All other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch.
Question: When must you wear a seat belt?
Answer: B. Whenever you're driving a CMV
Explanation: Federal regulations require the driver and all passengers in a moving CMV to wear seat belts (unless, of course, the vehicle isn't equipped with them). [49 CFR 392.16]
Question: When driving through roadway work zones, you should
Answer: B. watch for sharp pavement drop-offs.
Explanation: Dramatic pavement drop-offs are common in work zones, but they can also occur elsewhere. If you stray too near the edge of a drop-off, your vehicle may tilt toward that side of the road, and the top of your vehicle may hit a roadside object. If your vehicle crosses the drop-off, steering will be adversely affected.
Question: Which of the following statements about tank vehicles is true?
Answer: A. Special skills are required to haul liquid tanks.
Explanation: It takes special skills to drive a tank vehicle safely. A fully loaded tanker can be less stable and more prone to rollovers than other types of CMVs. To legally drive a tank vehicle with a rated capacity of 1,000 gallons or more, you must obtain a Tank Vehicle (N) endorsement on your CDL.
Question: When you are passing a pedestrian, a bicyclist, or another vehicle, you should assume that they
Answer: B. may move into your traffic lane.
Explanation: When passing another vehicle, pedestrian, or bicyclist, assume that they have not seen you and might move into your way. Communicate your presence to them and proceed with caution.
Question: What is hydroplaning?
Answer: B. When the tires skim over the road surface
Explanation: On a wet road at lower speeds, modern tires will usually channel water away to maintain contact with the road. However, in deep water at higher speeds, the channeling action of the tires becomes less effective and the tires start to ride on a layer of water like water skis. This is called “hydroplaning.” It may result in a loss of braking and steering control.
Question: What effects can wet brakes cause?
Answer: A. Brakes can grab or become weak.
Explanation: Brakes use friction to convert the kinetic energy of your moving vehicle into heat. If the brakes get wet, the brake shoes or brake pads may produce less friction. The brakes will grab, apply unevenly, or become weak. When you try to brake, your braking distance may increase, your vehicle may pull to one side, or the wheels may lock. On a wet road, locked wheels can cause a skid (or even a jackknife if you're pulling a trailer).
Question: What should you do if your vehicle hydroplanes?
Answer: C. Release the accelerator.
Explanation: Hydroplaning is more likely at higher speeds. If your vehicle starts to hydroplane, avoid braking. Instead, release the accelerator and push in the clutch to let your vehicle slow down.
Question: What is a "pull-up?"
Answer: A. Pulling forward while backing a trailer to reposition it
Explanation: When backing a vehicle, especially a tractor-trailer, you may need to pull forward to straighten the vehicle or reposition it for a better angle. This corrective maneuver is called a pull-up. Note, however, that you should be able to back your vehicle successfully without too many such corrections. During your CDL skills test, your examiner may penalize you for too many pull-ups.
Question: What should the wheel bearing seals be checked for?
Answer: B. The hub oil level and possible leaks
Explanation: It can be unsafe to drive with a damaged wheel bearing. Therefore, inspect each wheel bearing for leaks that can allow grease to seep out or dirty water to seep in. The wheel bearing is located behind the wheel. Check for grease on the wheel and any other evidence of cracks or leaks in the wheel bearing.
Question: When you're driving in cold weather, your tires must
Answer: A. provide enough traction to steer and push the vehicle through snow.
Explanation: Snow-covered road surfaces provide much less traction than dry surfaces. Your tires must provide enough traction to maneuver your vehicle on snow safely. Under federal regulations, your front tires must have a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch, and all other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch. For best traction, however, make sure that the treads are even deeper before you try to drive on snow. [49 CFR 570.62]
Question: When you check the condition of visible parts during your pre-trip inspection, make sure that the ___________ are secured against snagging, rubbing, or wearing.
Answer: A. air lines and electrical cables
Explanation: During your pre-trip inspection, check the air lines and electrical cables for any signs of wear, snagging, or rubbing.
Question: What should you do before driving if you are sleepy?
Answer: B. Get some sleep.
Explanation: Caffeine pills or caffeinated drinks can increase awareness – for a few hours. But as with most other stimulants, after the caffeine wears off, you may "crash" (feel even more drowsy and tired than you did before the caffeine). The only real cure for sleepiness is sleep.
Question: What are two ways to know when to upshift?
Answer: A. Use engine speed (rpm) and road speed (mph).
Explanation: Before driving your vehicle, check the driver's manual to find out the recommended operating rpm range. As you're driving, keep your eye on your tachometer as your vehicle increases speed. Shift up when engine rpm gets to the top of the recommended range. Another way to know when to shift up is to learn in advance which gears are suited to which speeds. As you drive, watch your speedometer and shift accordingly.
Question: When should you downshift an automatic transmission?
Answer: B. When going down grades
Explanation: To use engine braking on a downgrade to control the speed of a CMV with an automatic transmission, select a low gear range that prevents the transmission from shifting up beyond the selected gear.
Question: When checking your vehicle's lights during your pre-trip inspection, you should
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: In Step 4 (Turn Off Engine and Check Lights) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, set the parking brake and turn off the engine. Turn on the low-beam headlights and four-way flashers. In Step 5 (Walk-Around Inspection), leave the cab, walk to the front of your vehicle, and make sure that these lights are working.
Question: What is the most important reason for being alert to hazards?
Answer: C. You will have time to plan your escape if the hazard becomes an emergency.
Explanation: The National Safety Council defines defensive driving as "driving to save lives, time, and money, in spite of the conditions around you and the actions of others." Defensive driving is about anticipating potentially dangerous situations in advance, including driving conditions and mistakes made by others, and planning how to deal with those situations. To be a defensive driver, you must constantly scan for hazards all around your vehicle. When you spot a hazard, think about the emergencies that might develop from it and formulate plans to deal with them.
Question: You are driving a truck with a manual transmission. While driving on an uphill grade, you have to stop the truck on the shoulder. Which of these is a good rule to follow when putting it back in motion up the grade?
Answer: C. Use the parking brake to hold the vehicle until the clutch engages.
Explanation: When you start your vehicle, avoid rolling backward or else you may hit someone behind you. Set the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling back. Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back. If you have a manual transmission vehicle, partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake. On a tractor-trailer equipped with a trailer brake hand valve, the hand valve can be applied to keep from rolling back.
Question: When driving at night, use your low beams when an oncoming vehicle is within
Answer: A. 500 feet.
Explanation: To prevent blinding other drivers at night, dim your headlights to low beams whenever you are within 500 feet of an oncoming vehicle or within 500 feet of a vehicle you are following.
Question: When you're driving at 55 mph under good driving conditions, your total stopping distance will be
Answer: C. at least 419 feet.
Explanation: At 55 mph under good driving conditions, your total stopping distance will be at least 419 feet: 142 feet of perception distance + 61 feet of reaction distance + 216 feet of braking distance. Under poor driving conditions, the total stopping distance will probably be even longer. (The length of a football field including the two end zones is 360 feet.)
Question: What will happen if your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is found to be more than zero but less than 0.04%?
Answer: B. You will be put out-of-service for 24 hours.
Explanation: There is no safe amount of alcohol with which to drive a CMV. Hence, if you are found to have any detectable BAC (even if it's under the legal limit of 0.04%), you will be placed out-of-service for 24 hours.
Question: When inspecting mirrors and windshields for cracks, dirt, illegal stickers, and other obstructions to your vision, you should
Answer: A. clean and adjust as necessary.
Explanation: Before driving, make sure your field of view is clear. Check that your windshield and mirrors are clean, free of obstructions, and free of cracks. Also adjust your mirrors for an optimum view.
Question: What three things related to cargo are the driver's responsibility?
Answer: C. Inspecting the cargo, recognizing overloads, and properly securing the cargo
Explanation: As a commercial truck driver, you are responsible for the cargo you carry. This includes making sure it is balanced, secured, and not overloaded. If the cargo contains hazardous materials, you must also inspect it for proper labels, shipping papers, and placards.
Question: When driving a commercial vehicle whose height is over 13 feet, you should
Answer: B. stop and make sure if you aren't certain that a clearance is high enough.
Explanation: Don't try to drive your CMV under a bridge or overpass unless you're sure you have enough vertical clearance. In Illinois, CMVs can legally be up to 13'6" (13 feet 6 inches) tall, and may be even taller with special permits. Always know the height of the vehicle you're driving, but be aware that once unloaded, the height of your vehicle may increase. [625 ILCS 5/15-103]
Question: Loads that are over-length, over-width, or overweight may require
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Over-length, over-width, or overweight loads require special transit permits. Such loads may also require pilot vehicles, a police escort, or special equipment such as flags, flashing lights, or "Wide Load" signs. Driving is usually limited to certain times. Each state may specify its own requirements and procedures to follow. You can learn about Illinois's detailed requirements by contacting the Illinois Department of Transportation or reviewing their webpage "Oversize/Overweight Permits" (http://idot.illinois.gov/doing-business/permits/Oversize-and-Overweight-Permits/index). [49 CFR 393.11], [49 CFR 393.87]
Question: Which of these can cause a fire?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Underinflated tires, dual tires that touch, and loose fuel connections are just some of the things that can start a fire.
Question: On which fires can you use an A:B:C fire extinguisher?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Be sure to use the right fire extinguisher to put out a fire. A Class A fire involves ordinary combustibles such as wood, paper, cloth, or rubber. A Class B fire involves flammable liquids such as gasoline, grease, or oil. A Class C fire involves electrical equipment. A Class D fire involves combustible metals such as magnesium or potassium. An A:B:C extinguisher can put out Class A, Class B, and Class C fires.
Question: Which of these is a good rule to follow when using a fire extinguisher?
Answer: A. Aim at the base of the fire.
Explanation: In a fire, your first priority is your safety and that of others. To use a fire extinguisher to put out a fire, stand upwind from the fire at a safe distance. Let the wind carry the extinguisher from you to the fire. Aim the extinguisher at the source or base of the fire, not up in the flames. Persist until the burning material has cooled to the point that the fire cannot restart.
Question: Serious traffic violations that can cause your CDL to be suspended include
Answer: C. all of the above.
Explanation: You will lose your CDL for at least 60 days if you commit two serious traffic violations in a CMV within a three-year period. Some examples of serious traffic violations are excessive speeding (15 mph or more above the posted speed limit), reckless driving, erratic lane changes, and following too closely (tailgating).
Question: At a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of ______, most people lose consciousness, and some die.
Answer: A. 0.40%
Explanation: Most people with a BAC of 0.40% will pass out and some will even die.
Question: You are driving a 40-foot vehicle at 50 mph. Driving conditions are ideal (dry pavement, good visibility). What is the least amount of space that you should keep in front of your vehicle to be safe?
Answer: C. 5 seconds
Explanation: The formula for following distance is one second per ten feet of vehicle, plus an extra second if you are traveling over 40 mph. Therefore, for a 40-foot vehicle traveling at 50 mph, you should leave a following distance of five seconds.
Question: Which of these is especially true about your tires in hot weather?
Answer: C. You should check tire mounting and air pressure before driving.
Explanation: In hot weather, check the tire mounting and tire pressure carefully. Heat causes the air in the tire to expand, increasing tire pressure. Driving will make the tires even hotter. If the tire temperature and pressure rise too high, the tire may blow out or even catch fire.
Question: You are checking your tires for a pre-trip inspection. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: A. Tires of mismatched sizes should not be used on the same vehicle.
Explanation: Tires should never be mismatched in size or type. Radial tires and bias-ply tires should not be used together on the same vehicle. Steering axle tires must have a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch. All other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch.
Question: Which of these is NOT something you should do if your headlights are not working properly?
Answer: B. Leave your high beams on.
Explanation: To avoid blinding other drivers, dim your headlights whenever you're within 500 feet of an oncoming vehicle or within 500 feet of a vehicle you are following.
Question: When getting in to start the engine and inspect inside the cab, you must
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: You perform these actions during Step 3 (Get In and Start Engine) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method. To check the engine, first make sure the parking brake is on. Shift into Neutral (for a manual transmission) or Park (for an automatic transmission). Then start the engine and listen for any unusual noises. There are many other actions you must perform in this step as well.
Question: When should you check your mirrors for a lane change?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: When changing lanes, check your mirrors at each of the following times: (1) before you change lanes, to make sure there is enough room; (2) after you have signaled, to check that no one has moved into your blind spot; (3) right after you start the lane change, to double-check that your path is clear; and (4) after you complete the lane change.
Question: Which of these statements about speed management are true?
Answer: C. Both of the above statements are true.
Explanation: On a slippery road surface, your vehicle's wheels will have less traction and the vehicle's braking distance will increase significantly. On wet roads, reduce your speed by about one-third. On snow, reduce your speed by about one-half. On ice, slow down to a crawl and stop driving altogether if possible. (On ice, your vehicle's braking distance may increase tremendously.)
Question: Which of these will help keep an engine cool in hot weather?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: To ensure that your vehicle's engine won't overheat, make sure that there is adequate coolant and engine oil, and check that the coolant hoses are in good condition and not leaking. (Both coolant and oil help an engine stay cool.) Also check that the V-belt is tight enough. (A loose belt may not turn the fan or water pump adequately, which can cause the engine to overheat.)
Question: You should check the following for looseness, sticking, damage, or improper settings
Answer: C. all of the above.
Explanation: During Step 3 of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, confirm that the steering wheel, clutch, gas pedal, brakes, transmission, horn, windshield wipers, lights, and turn signals are all in good condition and neither sticking nor too loose. There are other actions you must perform in this step as well.
Question: Whether or not you load or secure your cargo yourself, you are responsible for
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Regardless of who loads and secures the cargo, you, the driver, are responsible for its safety. As part of your pre-trip inspection, make sure that the cargo is balanced, secured, and not overloaded, and does not get in the way of emergency equipment. The cargo's safety could be compromised otherwise.
Question: Front-end header boards
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: A front-end header board is located behind the cab. The header board prevents cargo from moving forward (and possibly injuring you) in the event of a crash or sudden stop. Check to make sure that the header board is secure, upright, and undamaged (no dents, no corrosion, no missing rivets, etc.).
Question: Which of the following statements about backing are true?
Answer: C. Both of the above are true.
Explanation: Because of the limited visibility, avoid backing up whenever possible. If you must back your vehicle, back toward the driver's side. You'll be able to watch the rear of your vehicle from your driver's side window. Also use a helper if possible. The helper can stand near the rear of your vehicle and keep an eye on your blind spots. He or she can signal you to stop before an accident can occur.
Question: Which of these statements is FALSE?
Answer: B. A drinker can control how fast his or her body absorbs and gets rid of alcohol.
Explanation: When you drink alcohol, it goes directly from your stomach into the bloodstream. Your body breaks down alcohol at a predictable rate. Typically, this is one standard drink per hour, where one standard drink equals 1.5 ounces of hard liquor, 5 ounces of wine, or 12 ounces of beer. Neither coffee nor fresh air nor a cold shower can increase that rate. You need to wait until the alcohol has been broken down.
Question: When crossing or entering traffic with a heavy vehicle, you should remember which of the following?
Answer: B. Heavy vehicles need larger gaps in traffic than cars.
Explanation: Large, heavy vehicles accelerate more slowly than passenger cars, and they are also longer. When driving such a vehicle, you need a much bigger gap to enter traffic than you would if you were driving a car.
Question: When driving in work zones, you should
Answer: C. do both of the above.
Explanation: In a work zone, drive slowly and carefully. Use your brake lights and four-way flashers to warn drivers behind you.
Question: You are driving a vehicle that can be driven safely at 55 mph on an open road. Although the speed limit is 55 mph, traffic is heavy, moving at 35 mph. The safest speed for your vehicle in this situation is
Answer: B. 35 mph.
Explanation: It's usually safest to drive at the speed of traffic rather than constantly pass other vehicles or invite other drivers to pass you. However, if there are lower speed limits posted for CMVs, obey them.
Question: Which of these statements about drinking alcohol are true?
Answer: C. Both of the above are true.
Explanation: Alcohol first affects a driver's judgment and self-control, and then it affects coordination, vision, and muscle control. These are all essential driving skills. Impairment of these skills significantly increases the chance of an accident.
Question: Which of these items is NOT checked on a pre-trip inspection?
Answer: B. Cab air conditioning
Explanation: During Step 4 (Turn Off Engine and Check Lights) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, check your headlights and four-way flashers. During Step 5 (Walk-Around Inspection), check that your cargo is secure and its weight is evenly distributed. While it's nice to be comfortable during your trip, checking the performance of the cab air conditioner isn't part of the Seven-Step Inspection Method.
Question: What are some things you should do at an accident scene to prevent another accident?
Answer: C. Do both of the above.
Explanation: If you're stopping at an accident scene, pull your vehicle as far away from traffic and as close to the side of the road as possible. If you're stopping to help at an accident scene, park a short distance away to leave the immediate area clear for emergency vehicles.
Question: Which of these statements is true regarding the use of drugs while driving?
Answer: B. Prescription drugs are allowed as long as your doctor says the drugs will not affect safe driving ability.
Explanation: Some prescription drugs can impair your driving abilities. Take a prescription drug only if your doctor assures you that it won't impair your driving abilities.
Question: When you intend to turn, how should you use your turn signals?
Answer: C. Do both of the above.
Explanation: Three good rules for the use of turn signals are as follows: (1) Signal early to discourage other drivers from trying to pass you. (2) Signal continuously. Keep your hands on the steering wheel and keep the turn signal on as you start the turn. (3) Cancel the turn signal after you've turned (if it hasn't turned off by itself already).
Question: Why should you be in the proper gear before starting down a hill?
Answer: B. You may not be able to shift into a lower gear once you are going down a hill.
Explanation: When you're about to start down a steep downgrade, release the gas pedal, shift into a low gear, and use engine braking to slow your vehicle. Don't try to downshift after your speed has already built up. You will not be able to shift into a lower gear then. You may not even be able to get back into any gear, and all engine braking effect will be lost. If you try to downshift an automatic transmission after your speed has already built up, you may damage the transmission.
Question: Which of the following materials can be used in an A:B:C fire extinguisher to put out all three classes of fires?
Answer: A. Dry chemical agent
Explanation: When used properly, multipurpose dry chemical agents can safely extinguish Class A (wood, paper, and other combustibles) fires, Class B (flammable liquids and gases) fires, and Class C (electrical) fires. Carbon dioxide doesn't work well on Class A fires. Water should never be used on Class C fires because it's electrically conductive.
Question: Which of these statements about vehicle fires is true?
Answer: C. A burning tire should be cooled with water.
Explanation: If the cargo is on fire, opening the trailer's doors will let more oxygen into the trailer and feed the fire. If a tire is on fire, it should be cooled, preferably with a lot of water.
Question: Which of the following violations at railroad crossings can lead to loss of your CDL for at least 60 days?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: You will be disqualified from operating a CMV for at least 60 days if you are convicted of any of the following offenses at railroad crossings: (1) failing to slow down and check that the tracks are clear; (2) failing to stop if a train is approaching; (3) failing to stop before driving onto the crossing; (4) failing to ensure that there is sufficient space for you to drive completely through the crossing without stopping; (5) failing to obey a traffic control device or the directions of an enforcement official; (6) failing to negotiate the crossing because of insufficient undercarriage clearance. [49 CFR 383.51]
Question: Name some suspension system defects.
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Leaking shock absorbers and broken or missing leaves are two of the more common defects that may occur in a suspension system.
Question: You should have at least _______ of tread on your steering axle tires.
Answer: A. 4/32 inch
Explanation: Steering axle tires must have a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch. All other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch.
Question: Which of these can cause the vehicle to skid?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: If the force applied to the wheels overcomes the tires' grip of the road, the tires will lose traction, which may lead to a skid. Two ways that this can happen are the following: (1) a sharp turn when the front wheels have insufficient traction because of insufficient weight on those wheels; (2) overacceleration supplying too much power to the drive wheels.
Question: If you are involved in a collision but are not seriously injured, what must you do?
Answer: C. Do both of the above.
Explanation: If you've been involved in an accident, first try to prevent another accident. Move your vehicle to the side of the road, switch on your four-way flashers, and set out your warning devices. Next, notify the appropriate authorities and request emergency assistance. Until emergency personnel arrive, do what you can to help others. Don't move injured persons unless there is a danger of fire or explosion. Try to keep injured persons from becoming chilled or overheated. If you've been trained in first aid, help the injured. If someone is bleeding, apply pressure to the wound to stop it.
Question: The Illinois Commercial Driver's License Study Guide suggests several things to do when you pass a vehicle. Which of these is NOT one of them?
Answer: C. Constantly blow your horn while passing the vehicle.
Explanation: Allow for the possibility that the driver of the vehicle that you wish to pass doesn't know you're there. Make your presence known to the driver. In daytime, tap your horn very lightly; at night, briefly flash your headlights. However, sound a sharp blast on your horn only as a warning to others of danger.
Question: You must drive on a slippery road. Which of these is a good thing to do in such a situation?
Answer: C. Slow down gradually.
Explanation: Braking on a slippery surface can lock the wheels and cause a skid. Brake gently and slow down very gradually.
Question: Which of these is NOT required knowledge for drivers needing a HAZMAT endorsement?
Answer: C. Basic chemistry
Explanation: For a HazMat endorsement, you must learn which materials require placarding your vehicle and which materials cannot be loaded together. Your training will emphasize safe and responsible practices rather than scientific theory.
Question: Your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) depends on your
Answer: A. body weight.
Explanation: Your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is affected by how much alcohol you drink, how quickly you drink it, and how much you weigh. The larger your body, the larger the volume through which the alcohol has to spread.
Question: There are certain types of vehicle inspections, including
Answer: A. post-trip, pre-trip, and en-route.
Explanation: Before you drive your vehicle, perform a pre-trip inspection to make sure everything is in working order. Each time you stop during your trip, check critical items such as your brakes, tires, and cargo. After your trip, perform another inspection and report anything that may require maintenance.
Question: You are checking your wheels and rims for a pre-trip inspection. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: B. Rust around lug nuts may mean that they are loose.
Explanation: Lug nuts must all be present and checked for tightness. Rust is a sign that the lug nut is loose.
Question: Which of these statements about managing space to the sides is true?
Answer: B. You should avoid traveling alongside other vehicles whenever possible.
Explanation: Whenever another vehicle is traveling alongside yours, there's always a chance that the vehicle might try to move into your lane and accidentally hit your vehicle. Also, the vehicle is blocking you from changing lanes. It's safer to find an open spot where there are no vehicles on either side of you. (Of course, that may not be possible in heavy, congested traffic.)
Question: Cargo that is not loaded or secured properly can cause which of the following problems?
Answer: C. Both of the above are correct.
Explanation: Cargo that is not secured properly can fall off your vehicle, possibly creating road hazards or injuring other road users. Loose cargo can move or shift forward in a quick stop or crash, possibly injuring you or your passengers.
Question: Where or when should you test the stopping action of your service brakes?
Answer: B. When the vehicle is moving at about 5 mph
Explanation: To test the service brakes, do the following: Wait for normal air pressure, release the parking brake, move the vehicle forward at about 5 mph, and apply the brakes firmly. Check whether the brakes stop your vehicle promptly, and note any abnormal signs such as your vehicle pulling to one side.
Question: You are driving a 40-foot vehicle at 35 mph. The road is dry and visibility is good. What is the least amount of space you should keep in front of your vehicle to be safe?
Answer: C. 4 seconds
Explanation: The formula for following distance is one second per ten feet of vehicle, plus an extra second if you are traveling over 40 mph. Therefore, for a 40-foot vehicle traveling at 35 mph, you should leave a following distance of four seconds.
Question: Which of these tells you that cargo contains hazardous materials?
Answer: C. Both of these answers are correct.
Explanation: Federal regulations require shippers to warn drivers and others about the nature of the hazardous materials they are shipping. The shipper affixes US DOT-compliant HazMat labels to the packages and supplies the driver with the appropriate placards to attach to his or her vehicle. The shipper also notes the hazardous nature of the materials on the shipping papers. [49 CFR 172.400], [49 CFR 172.407]
Question: Even if you don't have a Hazardous Materials endorsement on your CDL, you can drive a vehicle carrying hazardous materials if
Answer: B. the vehicle does not require placards.
Explanation: You must have a hazardous materials endorsement on your CDL to drive a vehicle that is placarded for hazardous materials. However, not all packages of hazardous materials require placarding your vehicle. Federal regulation 49 CFR 172.500 exempts certain amounts and types of hazardous materials from placarding, but states may impose more stringent requirements. Check with the Illinois Department of Transportation.
Question: How can you avoid the effects that wet brakes can cause?
Answer: C. Both of the above answers are correct.
Explanation: If you must drive through water, slow down, shift into a low gear, and keep applying the brakes gently to prevent water, mud, or other contaminants from getting into the brakes.
Question: As part of your pre-trip inspection, you check your suspension and brakes. Which of these claims is accurate?
Answer: C. Both of the above should be true.
Explanation: During your pre-trip inspection, check that the brake pads and shoes are all present, free of debris and oil, and not cracked or broken.
Question: What are important reasons for performing a vehicle inspection?
Answer: C. Both of the above are important reasons.
Explanation: Federal and state laws require drivers to inspect their vehicles. It's really for their own safety and that of others. If you find a problem during a vehicle inspection and correct it before you drive, you may prevent a disaster later that could jeopardize lives.
Question: Which of these statements about managing space is true?
Answer: A. When the road is slippery, you should keep much more space in front of your vehicle.
Explanation: Large, heavy vehicles have long braking distances. On slippery roads, the braking distance will be even longer. Make sure you leave an adequate following distance behind the vehicle ahead of you. The formula for following distance under ideal conditions is one second per ten feet of vehicle, plus an extra second if you are traveling over 40 mph. On slippery roads, increase your following distance even more.
Question: What does "axle weight" mean?
Answer: B. The weight transmitted to the ground by one axle or one set of axles
Explanation: Axle weight is the weight transmitted from one axle or a set of axles to the ground.
Question: You do not have a Hazardous Materials endorsement on your CDL. You are asked to deliver hazardous materials in a placarded vehicle. You should
Answer: B. refuse to haul the load.
Explanation: You must have a hazardous materials endorsement on your CDL to drive a vehicle that is placarded for hazardous materials. However, not all packages of hazardous materials require placarding your vehicle. Federal regulations exempt certain amounts and types of hazardous materials from placarding, but states may impose more stringent requirements. Check with the Illinois Department of Transportation. [49 CFR 172.500]
Question: When steering to avoid a crash, you should
Answer: B. not turn any more than necessary to clear what is in your way.
Explanation: To avoid a crash or other hazard, keep both hands on the steering wheel so you can turn as quickly as possible. However, turn just enough to avoid the hazard. A too-sharp turn risks a skid or rollover. While turning quickly, avoid braking; this too could cause a skid.
Question: Which of these statements about backing large vehicles is true?
Answer: B. You should avoid backing whenever you can.
Explanation: Backing up a large vehicle is always dangerous, even with a helper. Try to avoid backing up as much as possible.
Question: Which of these is a good thing to do when driving at night?
Answer: B. Drive slowly enough to stop within the range of your headlights.
Explanation: In the dark, you have no way of knowing what lies beyond the reach of your headlights. At night, you should slow to a speed that allows you to stop safely within the range of your headlights. Otherwise, if there is a hazard just beyond the range of your headlights, you may not be able to take action in time to avoid it.
Question: Which of these statements about staying alert to drive is true?
Answer: B. Sleep is the only thing that can overcome fatigue.
Explanation: Caffeine and other stimulants can increase awareness – for a few hours. But once a stimulant wears off, you can "crash" (feel even more drowsy and tired than you did before the stimulant). The only real cure for fatigue is sleep.
Question: Which of the following provide extra gears on some trucks?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Multi-speed rear axles (which tend to be less common in today's CMVs) and auxiliary transmissions provide additional gears that you can select while you drive. You select the additional gears with a control switch on the gearshift lever.
Question: Your vehicle has hydraulic brakes. When traveling on a level road, you press the brake pedal and find that it goes to the floor. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: C. Pumping the brake may generate enough pressure to stop the vehicle.
Explanation: If you lose hydraulic pressure while driving, try pumping the brake pedal to build up enough hydraulic pressure to stop your vehicle. If this fails, downshift to use engine braking and apply the parking brake. Release the parking brake before you lock the wheels. If all else fails, look for an escape route. Head for an escape ramp or an open field and let your vehicle slow to a stop.
Question: Your truck is in a traffic emergency and may collide with another vehicle if you do not take action. Which of these is a good rule to remember at such a time?
Answer: C. To miss an obstacle, you can almost always turn more quickly than you can stop.
Explanation: CMVs can have long stopping distances. To avoid a collision or crash, it usually takes less time for you to steer around a hazard than to brake to a stop before reaching it.
Question: As part of your pre-trip inspection, you must check for
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Regardless of who loads and secures the cargo, you, the driver, are responsible for its safety. As part of your pre-trip inspection, make sure that the cargo is balanced, secured, and not overloaded, and does not get in the way of emergency equipment. The cargo's safety could be compromised otherwise.
Question: Which of the following statements about vehicle fires is true?
Answer: A. Poor trailer ventilation can cause flammable cargo to catch fire.
Explanation: Many things can cause fires, including underinflated tires, dual tires that touch, cargo that is improperly sealed or loaded, and cargo that is poorly ventilated.
Question: Which of these statements is true about warning other drivers of a stopped vehicle?
Answer: C. Move the rear reflective triangle back if the driver's vision is obscured to within 500 feet.
Explanation: Other drivers should be able to see your stopped vehicle or its warning devices from at least 500 feet away in either direction. If your vehicle is obscured by a hill or curve, set out a warning device up to 500 feet behind your vehicle.
Question: Which of these statements is true about brakes?
Answer: B. Brakes absorb more heat to stop heavier vehicles.
Explanation: Brakes use friction to convert the kinetic energy of your moving vehicle into heat. However, overuse of the brakes (which can happen if you don't use engine braking enough) can generate so much heat that brakes can fade (lose their effectiveness) or fail.
Question: Which of these statements is true about speed management?
Answer: C. On slippery roads, it takes longer to stop and it is harder to turn without skidding.
Explanation: Slippery roads provide less traction. Your vehicle's braking distance will increase (especially on a road covered in snow or ice) and turns will be more likely to cause skids. For safety, reduce your speed by about one-third on a wet road or about one-half on a snow-covered road. On an ice-covered road, slow down to a crawl and consider stopping altogether.
Question: You can see a sign on a vehicle ahead of you. The sign is a red triangle with an orange center. What does the sign tell you about the vehicle?
Answer: A. It is a slow-moving vehicle.
Explanation: This emblem on the rear of a vehicle identifies it as a slow-moving vehicle. The legal definition of "slow-moving vehicle" can vary slightly from one state to another, but it typically means a vehicle that doesn't normally travel faster than 25 mph. (However, Illinois law defines a slow-moving vehicle as an animal-drawn vehicle, farm tractor, implement of husbandry, or special mobile equipment for construction or maintenance, when operated on a roadway.) Slow-moving vehicles include roadway maintenance vehicles. Vehicles that travel this slowly represent hazards. Spotting one early can help prevent a crash. [625 ILCS 5/12-709]
Question: Which of these statements about engine belts in hot weather is FALSE?
Answer: C. Cracking is likely to occur but it is not a safety threat.
Explanation: Check the tightness of the engine belt by pressing on it. Also check the belt for cracks or excessive wear. A loose or broken belt won't turn the water pump or fan properly, which will cause the engine to overheat.
Question: An en-route inspection should include checking
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Whenever you stop during your trip, check whether the cargo has shifted. Also check whether the tires or brakes are overheating. Overheating could cause them to fail or even start a fire.
Question: Which of the following should you NOT do in the event of hydraulic brake failure?
Answer: A. Upshift.
Explanation: If your hydraulic brakes fail while you're driving, try pumping the brake pedal to build up enough hydraulic pressure to stop your vehicle. If this fails, downshift to use engine braking and apply the parking brake. Release the parking brake before you lock the wheels. If all else fails, look for an escape route. Head for an escape ramp or an open field and let your vehicle slow to a stop.
Question: You are driving on a straight, level highway at 50 mph. There are no vehicles in front of you. Suddenly a tire blows out. What should you do first?
Answer: B. Stay off the brakes until the vehicle slows down on its own.
Explanation: If a tire blows out, don't brake. Braking could cause you to lose control. Instead, let your vehicle slow itself down. Then brake very gently and pull over.
Question: Which of these is the most important thing to remember about emergency braking?
Answer: B. If the wheels are skidding, you cannot control the vehicle.
Explanation: In an emergency, avoid hard braking. Hard braking can lock the wheels, which may cause a skid and loss of control. Instead, use stab braking (unless your vehicle has antilock brakes) or controlled braking.
Question: Which of these describes how you should use the brake pedal on a steep downhill grade?
Answer: A. Release the brake when you are 5 mph below your safe speed and let your speed come back up to your safe speed. Then repeat braking to 5 mph below your safe speed.
Explanation: On a long or steep downgrade, don't keep applying your brakes continuously because this might cause them to fade (become less effective). Instead, apply your brakes only as a supplement to engine braking. Use the following technique: Select a "safe" speed. Let your vehicle reach this speed. Brake just hard enough until you are going 5 mph slower. Then let your speed increase back to the "safe" speed. Keep varying your speed up and down this way. This technique is known as snub braking or snubbing.
Question: Which of these statements about driving in bad weather is FALSE?
Answer: B. As rain continues, the road becomes more slippery than it was when the rain began.
Explanation: Roads are often at their slipperiest during the first 10 to 15 minutes of rain. This is because the rainwater loosens and mixes with dirt, oil, and other fluids that have built up on the pavement, creating a slick surface. This slippery condition will persist until more rain washes those substances away. Slight melting will make ice wet. Wet ice is much more slippery than ice that is not wet.
Question: Whenever you stop for a break during your trip, you should
Answer: A. check critical items such as the tires, brakes, and cargo tie-downs.
Explanation: Whenever you stop during your trip, check safety-critical items such as brakes, tires, lights, and coupling devices if any. Also make sure that your cargo is still secure.
Question: Which of these statements about cargo loading is true?
Answer: C. State laws dictate legal weight limits.
Explanation: You are always responsible for making sure your vehicle and its cargo meet all legal weight limits imposed by states. States impose limits on both vehicle weights and axle weights.
Question: Why should you signal continuously while turning?
Answer: C. For both of the above reasons
Explanation: Illinois law and the laws of most other states require you to signal continuously before starting a turn. As you approach the turn and perform the turn, keep both hands on the wheel for safety. [625 ILCS 5/11-804]
Question: Which of these statements about cold-weather driving is true?
Answer: B. Windshield washer antifreeze should be used.
Explanation: Prevent your windshield from freezing in cold weather. Fill your windshield washer reservoir with a windshield washer antifreeze that is rated for the cold temperatures in which you expect to be driving.
Question: Underloaded front axles can cause
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Cargo must be loaded to keep the weight of the vehicle properly balanced. If there's not enough weight over the front axle, the front tires won't have enough traction for the vehicle to be steered safely.
Question: The "load" means
Answer: B. the maximum weight that a tire can safely carry at a specified pressure.
Explanation: The tire load rating is the maximum weight that a tire can safely carry at a specified tire pressure. This figure is stated on the side of the tire.
Question: Which of these is not a danger when an automatic transmission is forced into a lower gear at a high speed?
Answer: A. Loss of steering control
Explanation: When you're about to start down a steep downgrade, release the gas pedal, shift into a low gear, and use engine braking to slow your vehicle. Don't try to downshift after your speed has already built up. You will not be able to shift into a lower gear then. You may not even be able to get back into any gear and all engine braking effect will be lost. If you try to downshift an automatic transmission after your speed has already built up, you may damage the transmission.
Question: Which of the following cannot be checked at the same time?
Answer: C. Brake lights, turn signals, and four-way flasher functions
Explanation: In Step 5 (Walk-Around Inspection) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, you walk to the front of your vehicle to check that the turn signals and four-way flashers are working. Obviously you can't check all your brake lights from that vantage point.
Question: Which of the following is NOT a type of retarder?
Answer: B. Robotic
Explanation: There are four basic types of retarders: electric, engine, exhaust, and hydraulic.
Question: You must park on the side of a level, straight, undivided two-lane road. Where should you place the reflective triangles?
Answer: B. One within 10 feet of the rear of the vehicle, one about 100 feet to the rear, and one about 100 feet in front of the vehicle
Explanation: This is required by federal regulation 49 CFR 392.22. This regulation also specifies where to place warning devices on other types of roadways such as curves, one-way roads, and divided roadways. These situations are also covered in the section on "Communicating Your Presence" in the Illinois Commercial Driver's License Study Guide.
Question: Which of the following statements is true?
Answer: A. Many heavy vehicle accidents occur between midnight and 6 a.m.
Explanation: Truck accidents are more likely to occur in the mid-afternoon or between midnight and 6 a.m., times when drivers are naturally drowsy.
Question: You are driving on a two-lane road. An oncoming vehicle drifts into your lane and is headed straight for you. Which of the following should you do?
Answer: B. Steer to the right.
Explanation: Hard braking can cause a skid. Instead, if an oncoming vehicle drifts into your lane, steer right toward the shoulder or curb. Do not steer left; the other driver may try to steer back into the proper lane. Prepare to drive entirely off the roadway to the right if necessary to avoid a head-on collision.
Question: Which of these will help keep an engine cool in hot weather?
Answer: A. Making sure the engine has the right amount of oil
Explanation: Both coolant and oil can carry off heat produced by the engine. To ensure that your vehicle's engine won't overheat in hot weather, make sure that there is adequate coolant and engine oil, and check that the coolant hoses are in good condition and not leaking.
Question: Which of these statements about downshifting for a long downhill grade is true?
Answer: C. Downshifting allows engine compression and friction to help the brakes slow the vehicle.
Explanation: When you're about to start down a long downgrade, release the gas pedal, shift into a low gear, and use engine braking to slow your vehicle. Don't try to downshift after your speed has already built up. You will not be able to shift into a lower gear then. You may not even be able to get back into any gear, and all engine braking effect will be lost. If you try to downshift an automatic transmission after your speed has already built up, you may damage the transmission.
Question: When caring for the injured at an accident scene, which of the following should you NOT do?
Answer: C. Allow injured persons to become chilled or overheated.
Explanation: If qualified medical personnel are at the accident scene, stay out of their way unless they ask for help. If they haven't arrived yet, try to keep injured persons warm (but neither chilled nor overheated). Don't move them unless there is a danger of fire or another accident from passing traffic.
Question: Which of these is NOT caused by rough acceleration?
Answer: A. Tire damage
Explanation: The sudden jerk from rough acceleration can cause mechanical damage. For example, it can damage the coupling if you're pulling a trailer.
Question: Which of the following is correct?
Answer: C. Brake shoes should not be worn dangerously thin.
Explanation: When you check your brakes during your pre-trip inspection, check that the brake shoes are all present and none are broken or worn dangerously thin.
Question: Which of these is NOT a proper use of vehicle lights?
Answer: B. Flashing your brake lights to stop someone from tailgating
Explanation: Use your headlights during times of lower visibility. Use your brake lights only to warn other drivers that you are preparing to slow down or stop, or there is a hazard ahead for which you'll have to slow down. If you're being tailgated, avoid such tricks as flashing your brake lights. Handle tailgaters in a different way: Keep right and increase your following distance.
Question: You should schedule your driving for
Answer: A. the hours that you are normally awake.
Explanation: To help prevent drowsiness while driving, schedule your trips for the hours during which you are normally awake, not the middle of the night. Get plenty of sleep (8–9 hours) before each trip.
Question: The purpose of retarders is to
Answer: B. help slow the vehicle while driving and reduce brake wear.
Explanation: Retarders can be used to help slow a vehicle, reducing the need for braking and thus reducing brake wear. However, retarders should not be used on slippery roads because the retarders can cause the drive wheels to skid.
Question: Why do dry bulk tanks require special care?
Answer: C. Both of the above answers are correct.
Explanation: It takes special skills to drive a tank truck. Dry bulk tanks have a high center of gravity and their loads can shift, making the vehicle more prone to rollovers. Use extreme caution on curves and when making sharp turns.
Question: Which of these statements is true about other drivers?
Answer: B. Rental truck drivers are often not used to the limited vision and pose a hazard.
Explanation: A car driver who has never driven a truck before will be unused to a rental truck's size and limited view toward its sides and rear. This lack of truck driving experience makes a rental truck a hazard on the road.
Question: Which of these statements is true about medicines used to treat the common cold?
Answer: C. They often make you sleepy. Therefore, they should not be used while driving.
Explanation: Some cold and allergy medications can cause drowsiness, sedation, or disturbed coordination, which makes them dangerous for CMV operators. If you are unsure about the effects of a particular medication, check the warning label or ask your pharmacist or doctor.
Question: Which of these statements about overhead clearance is true?
Answer: B. The weight of a vehicle changes its height.
Explanation: Your truck's height will vary depending on how much weight you're hauling. An empty or lightly loaded vehicle will ride higher than one that is weighed down with heavy cargo. Don't put all your trust in posted road clearance signs. The height of the roadway may have changed since the sign was posted.
Question: Which of these are proper uses of your brake lights?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Use your brake lights to warn other drivers that you are preparing to slow down or stop, or there is a hazard ahead for which you'll have to slow down.
Question: Overloading can have a bad effect on
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: Overloading can adversely affect steering, braking, and speed control. Also, most states impose maximum weight limits on CMVs to prevent excessive weight from damaging roadways or bridges.
Question: Which of these statements is true about drugs?
Answer: C. The use of alcohol or drugs can lead to a collision or an arrest.
Explanation: Some prescription drugs can impair your driving abilities. Some drugs can make you drowsy or impair your coordination. Stimulants can impair your concentration and affect your vision. And once the stimulant wears off, you may "crash" (feel even more drowsy and tired than you did before). Take a prescription drug only if your doctor assures you that the drug won't impair your driving abilities.
Question: What should you do when approaching a hazard in a work zone?
Answer: B. Use your four-way flashers or brake lights to warn others.
Explanation: When approaching a hazard in a work zone, warn the drivers behind you by flashing your brake lights or (if state law allows it) turning on your four-way flashers.
Question: When getting ready to cross a bridge you should
Answer: A. read the weight limit sign.
Explanation: The maximum weight will be posted in advance of a bridge. After going over a bridge, you may be asked to tell the examiner what the posted weight limit was.
Question: Which of these statements about certain types of cargo is true?
Answer: A. Unstable loads such as hanging meat or livestock require extra caution on curves.
Explanation: If you're carrying a cargo of livestock or hanging meat, slow down on curves and proceed with extreme caution. A cargo of hanging meat typically has a high center of gravity. Plus, hanging meat sways significantly when you're driving on a curve, making for a very unstable load. Livestock can move around or lean on curves, adversely affecting your vehicle's stability and making a rollover more likely.
Question: Which of these items is checked in a pre-trip inspection?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: There are many things you must check during your pre-trip inspection. During Step 1 (Vehicle Overview) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, check the condition of the windshield wipers. During Step 4 (Turn Off Engine and Check Lights) and Step 5 (Walk-Around Inspection), you'll check that the lights are working.
Question: You should use a helper to help back your vehicle
Answer: B. when possible.
Explanation: Large vehicles can have large blind spots. Whenever you back a CMV, have a helper stand near the rear of your vehicle and observe areas that you cannot. He or she can signal you to stop before an accident can occur.
Question: At night, with your low-beam headlights on, you can see
Answer: A. 250 feet ahead.
Explanation: Your low beams let you see about 250 feet ahead. Your high beams let you see about 350–500 feet ahead.
Question: You are testing the stopping action of service brakes on a hydraulic system. Which of these can mean there is a problem?
Answer: C. Both of the above are correct.
Explanation: When testing the service brakes, check the following: (1) whether the brake pedal holds up or sinks to the floor; (2) whether the vehicle seems to pull to one side; (3) whether it takes longer than it should to stop your vehicle; and (4) whether the brakes just "feel strange," based on your experience driving comparable CMVs. Any of these signs could indicate a problem with the brake system that should be corrected before you drive the vehicle.
Question: In a combination vehicle, wet brakes increase the risk of
Answer: C. jackknifing.
Explanation: Wet brakes can cause the brakes to become weak, apply unevenly, or grab. This can cause lack of braking power, wheel lockups, pulling to one side or the other, and jackknifing if you're pulling a trailer.
Question: Why is it important to shift gears properly?
Answer: A. To help maintain control of the vehicle
Explanation: Correct shifting of gears is important. If you can't get your vehicle into the right gear while driving, you will have less control.
Question: When backing, which of the following is FALSE?
Answer: D. Use the highest reverse gear.
Explanation: Always back as slowly as possible. Use the lowest reverse gear. That way you can more easily correct any steering errors. You can also stop quickly if necessary.
Question: Which of these statements is NOT true about backing a heavy vehicle?
Answer: A. You should back slowly until you slightly bump into the dock.
Explanation: To make backing up easier and safer, turn toward the driver's side so you can watch the rear of your vehicle through your window. Have a helper stand near the rear of your vehicle and observe areas that you cannot. He or she can signal you to stop before you hit something.
Question: Which of these is important to check before driving in the winter?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: To drive safely on snowy surfaces, your tires should be in the best possible shape. Consider exceeding the federal minimum requirements on tire tread depth (4/32 inch for front tires and 2/32 inch for the other tires). Make sure that your exhaust system has no leaks. An exhaust leak can allow dangerous fumes to enter your cab or sleeper berth. This can be especially dangerous in cold temperatures in which you will be more likely to keep the windows tightly shut. [49 CFR 570.62]
Question: Which of these will happen if a tire blows out at highway speeds?
Answer: B. A vibrating feeling
Explanation: The classic sign of a tire blowout is a loud "bang" sound. However, if you're driving a long vehicle and a rear tire blows out, you may not hear the sound. In this situation, a thumping or heavy vibration may be the first sign you get that a rear tire has failed.
Question: Which of these is NOT part of the basic method for shifting up?
Answer: B. Accelerating while pressing the clutch and turning toward the driver side.
Explanation: This is the basic method: 1) release the accelerator, push in the clutch and shift to neutral at the same time; 2) release the clutch; 3) let the engine and gears slow down to rpm required for the next gear; 4) push in the clutch and shift to the higher gear at the same time; 5) release the clutch and press the accelerator at the same time.
Question: Which of these is true about the radiator shutters and the winterfront?
Answer: C. You should remove ice from the radiator shutters.
Explanation: In extremely cold weather, very cold air flowing onto the radiator and through the engine compartment can prevent the engine from warming up (and also keep your heater from working well). Radiator shutters or a winterfront restrict this air flow to let the engine warm up. However, don't overdo it. Keep the winterfront partially open or keep the radiator shutters free from ice. If the shutters freeze shut or the winterfront is closed too tightly, the engine may overheat from lack of sufficient air.
Question: Which of these statements about using mirrors is true?
Answer: C. There are blind spots that your mirrors cannot show you.
Explanation: Mirrors can show a great deal around your vehicle, but there are still blind spots that you can't see. Keep an eye on all the vehicles around you that you can see, in case one of them starts to move into one of your blind spots. Also use a helper when backing.
Question: After you start the engine, which of the following will occur?
Answer: B. The coolant temperature gauge will rise to normal operating temperature.
Explanation: As part of your pre-trip inspection, start the engine and check the gauges. Oil pressure should rise to normal levels in seconds. Air pressure should build from 50 to 90 psi within 3 minutes. Coolant temperature should start rising gradually to the normal operating range. In diesel engines, manifold exhaust gas temperatures can easily reach hundreds of degrees Fahrenheit.
Question: Which piece of emergency equipment must be carried in a CMV?
Answer: B. Warning devices
Explanation: Federal regulations require every CMV to carry one of the following warning devices in case the driver must stop the CMV on the road: three reflective triangles, three liquid-burning flares, or six fusees. Federal regulations also require every CMV to carry a fire extinguisher. Your state may also require a first-aid kit or seat belt cutter be carried on certain types of CMVs such as school buses. [49 CFR 393.95]
Question: During an inspection of hydraulic brakes, you should pump the brake pedal three times, then apply firm pressure to the pedal for five seconds. If the brakes are working properly,
Answer: C. the pedal should not move.
Explanation: To test a vehicle equipped with hydraulic brakes for leaks in the brakes, first pump the brake pedal three times. Next, apply firm pressure to the brake pedal for five seconds. The pedal should not move. If it moves, the brakes may have a leak or some other problem.
Question: Which of the following statements about parking on the entrance and exit ramps is TRUE:
Answer: B. You may never park on the ramps.
Explanation: Freeway and turnpike exits can be particularly dangerous for commercial vehicles. Off ramps and on ramps often have speed limit signs posted - these speeds may be safe for cars, but not for larger vehicles or heavily loaded vehicles. Exits that go downhill and turn at the same time can be especially dangerous. The downgrade makes it difficult to reduce speed. Braking and turning at the same time can be a dangerous practice. Make sure you are going slowly enough before you get on the curved part of an off ramp or on ramp. Do not park on the ramps.
Question: Which of the following may be a sign of tire failure?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: The classic sign of a tire blowout is a loud "bang" sound. However, if you're driving a long vehicle and a rear tire blows out, you may not hear the sound. In this situation, a thumping or heavy vibration may be the first sign you get that a rear tire has failed. Also, your vehicle may start to fishtail. On the other hand, heavy steering probably indicates that a front tire has failed.
Question: You are driving in the right lane of a four-lane, undivided road. Traffic is heavy. You come around a curve and then you notice a hazard ahead in your lane. You don't have enough room to stop. What should you do?
Answer: B. Steer to the right.
Explanation: If you are approaching a hazard and are unable to stop in time, the safest maneuver is usually to bypass it on the right, even if it means moving onto the shoulder. If you steer to the left in heavy traffic, you could collide with another vehicle or force it into oncoming traffic.
Question: When making a left turn,
Answer: C. drive to the center of the intersection before you start turning.
Explanation: On a left turn, make sure you have reached the center of the intersection before you start the left turn. If you turn too soon, the left side of your vehicle may hit another vehicle because of off-tracking. If there are two turning lanes, always take the right turn lane. Don't start in the inside lane because you may have to swing right to make the turn. Drivers on your left can be more readily seen.
Question: If you must drive in fog,
Answer: A. use low-beam headlights and fog lights.
Explanation: If you must drive in fog, use low-beam headlights and fog lights for best visibility even in daytime, and be alert for other drivers who may have forgotten to turn on their lights.
Question: For combination vehicles, which of the following statements about drive-wheel braking skids is true?
Answer: B. The trailer can push the tractor sideways.
Explanation: The most common type of skid by far is the drive-wheel skid. Drive-wheel acceleration skids can occur on slippery roads. Drive-wheel braking skids occur when braking causes the drive wheels to lock. Because locked wheels have less traction than rolling wheels, the rear wheels usually slide sideways in an attempt to "catch up" with the front wheels. With combination vehicles, a drive-wheel skid can let the trailer push the tractor sideways, causing a sudden jackknife.
Question: You are starting your vehicle from a stop. As you apply power to the drive wheels, they start to spin. You should
Answer: A. take your foot off the accelerator.
Explanation: If so much power is applied to the drive wheels that it overcomes the tires' grip of the road, the wheels will spin. This is more likely to occur if the road surface is slippery. To stop the drive wheels from spinning, take your foot off the accelerator. Accelerate slowly and gently from now on.
Question: What is the minimum tread depth for front (steering) tires?
Answer: B. 4/32 inch
Explanation: Front steering tires require a tread depth of at least 4/32 inch. All other tires must have a tread depth of at least 2/32 inch.
Question: What should you do first when there's a fire?
Answer: A. Contain the fire
Explanation: Before trying to put out the fire, make sure that it doesn’t spread any further.
Question: Where should you keep the shipping papers?
Answer: B. In a pouch on the driver's door
Explanation: Your life, and the lives of others, may depend on quickly locating the hazardous materials shipping papers. For that reason, you must identify shipping papers related to hazardous materials or keep them on top of other shipping papers. You must also keep shipping papers: in a pouch on the driver's door; or in clear view within reach while driving; or on the driver's seat when out of the vehicle.
Question: Which of these statements about driving in areas with strong winds is true?
Answer: C. Wind is a big problem when your truck comes out of a tunnel.
Explanation: Inside a tunnel, you don't feel the effect of crosswinds pushing you sideways. But once you emerge from the tunnel into an open space, the crosswinds will hit you. If your vehicle is traveling alongside another vehicle, there is some chance that the crosswinds will push one of the vehicles against the other.
Question: Extra care may be needed to keep your vehicle centered in your lane, because commercial vehicles
Answer: B. are often wider than other vehicles.
Explanation: You need to keep your vehicle centered in the lane to keep safe clearance on either side. If your vehicle is wide, you have little room to spare. Large commercial vehicles are wide and take up most of a lane. Many tractor-trailers are 8½ feet wide.
Question: For a first offense of driving a commercial vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, you will lose your CDL for at least
Answer: C. 1 year.
Explanation: For a first offense of driving a commercial vehicle while under the influence of alcohol or drugs, you will lose your CDL for at least one year. In fact, you will also lose your CDL for a first offense of driving with a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of 0.04% or higher, even though 0.04% is below the legal limit for licensed adult car drivers.
Question: Which of these statements about tires and hot-weather driving is true?
Answer: C. When driving in very hot weather, you should inspect your tires every two hours or every 100 miles.
Explanation: Air pressure increases with temperature. In very hot temperatures, a tire may blow out or even catch fire. Check your tires every two hours or 100 miles. If any tires are too hot to touch, remain stopped until they cool off.
Question: Why are placards used?
Answer: B. To communicate the risk
Explanation: Hazardous materials placards are four regulated signs on the outside of the vehicle that identify the hazard class of the cargo for those who need to know, such as emergency service personnel or those who load and unload cargo.
Question: When you're starting off on dry, level pavement, it is usually necessary to do which of the following?
Answer: C. Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation: If you're starting off your vehicle on an incline, take several steps to keep from rolling back. If you have a manual transmission vehicle, partly engage the clutch before you take your right foot off the brake. Apply the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling back. Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back. On a combination vehicle equipped with a trailer brake hand valve, the hand valve can be applied to keep from rolling back.
Question: Which of the following can cause a skid?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: A skid occurs when the tires lose their grip of the road. This can happen in any of four ways: (1) Over-braking: Braking too hard and locking the wheels. Skids can also occur if you use the speed retarder on a slippery road. (2) Over-steering: Turning the wheels more sharply than the vehicle can turn. (3) Over-acceleration: Supplying too much power to the drive wheels, causing them to spin. (4) Driving too fast: Most serious skids result from driving too fast for road conditions.
Question: Which of these statements about engine overheating is true?
Answer: B. You should never remove the radiator cap on a pressurized system until the system has cooled.
Explanation: Never remove the radiator cap if the engine is overheated. Steam and boiling water could shoot out under high pressure and injure you. Wait until you can touch the radiator cap with your bare hand without it feeling excessively hot. Some vehicles have coolant overflow tanks or sight glasses that let you check the coolant level without removing the radiator cap.
Question: Which of these is a danger of crossing railroad tracks on dirt roads?
Answer: B. You could get hung up halfway across.
Explanation: Many drivers forget about the space under their vehicles. That space can be very small when a vehicle is heavily loaded. This is often a problem on dirt roads and in unpaved yards. Don't take a chance on getting hung up. Drainage channels across roads can cause the ends of some vehicles to drag. Cross such depressions carefully. Railroad tracks can also cause problems, particularly when pulling trailers with a low underneath clearance. Don’t take a chance on getting hung up halfway across.
Question: Which of these statements about double-clutching and shifting is true?
Answer: C. You can use the tachometer to tell you when to shift.
Explanation: One way to determine when to upshift is with your tachometer. Before driving your vehicle, check the driver's manual to find out the recommended operating rpm range. As you're driving, keep your eye on your tachometer as your vehicle increases speed. Shift up when engine rpm gets to the top of the recommended range.
Question: Which of these is not part of the pre-trip inspection of the engine compartment?
Answer: C. Valve clearance
Explanation: In Step 2 (Check Engine Compartment) of the Seven-Step Inspection Method, you'll check a number of things, such as the condition of the hoses and electrical wiring insulation. However, you won't remove the valve cover to check the valve clearance.
Question: Which of these statements about accelerating is true?
Answer: B. Rough acceleration can cause mechanical damage.
Explanation: From a stopped position, accelerate smoothly and gradually. Jerking forward or rough acceleration can cause mechanical damage (possibly including damage to the coupling if you're pulling a trailer).
Question: In which of the following situations should you use your horn?
Answer: D. To help you avoid a collision
Explanation: Your horn warns others of your presence. Sounding a sharp warning blast on your horn can help you avoid a collision. However, your horn is loud enough to startle others. It can be dangerous when used unnecessarily.
Question: What should you do in thick fog?
Answer: C. Pull off the road into a rest area or truck stop
Explanation: You should watch for foggy conditions and be ready to reduce your speed. Do not assume that the fog will thin out after you enter it. The best advice for driving in fog is: don’t. It is preferable that you pull off the road into a rest area or truck stop until visibility is better. Watch for vehicles on the side of the roadway. Seeing taillights or headlights in front of you may not be a true indication of where the road is ahead of you. The vehicle may not be on the road at all.
Question: You are driving in a rainstorm in the middle of the day. What following distance should you maintain behind the vehicle in front of you?
Answer: D. Much more than under normal driving conditions
Explanation: Wet roads can double your stopping distance. Slow down and greatly increase your usual following distance.
Question: If you must drive in fog, what should you do?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: The best advice for driving in fog is: don’t. It is preferable that you pull off the road into a rest area or truck stop until visibility is better. If you must drive, be sure to obey all fog-related warning signs and slow down before you enter fog. Turn on your 4-way flashers. This will give vehicles approaching you from behind a quicker opportunity to notice your vehicle. Use roadside highway reflectors as guides to determine how the road may curve ahead of you and listen for traffic you cannot see. Avoid passing other vehicles and don’t stop along the side of the road, unless absolutely necessary.
Question: Which of the following statements about night driving is true?
Answer: B. Many CMV accidents occur between midnight and 6:00 a.m.
Explanation: Driving through the night when you would normally be asleep increases your risk of an accident. Many CMV accidents occur between midnight and 6:00 a.m. If you've had less than 6 hours of sleep before you drive, your risk of an accident is tripled. And one study has found that going without sleep for more than 24 hours can impair your coordination and reaction time as much as being legally intoxicated.
Question: The amount of liquid to load into a tank depends on
Answer: C. both of the above.
Explanation: How much liquid you can load into a tank depends on the following: (1) Heat makes liquid expand, so you must allow enough room at the top of the tank for outage. (2) A dense liquid may weigh so much that loading too much liquid into the tank may cause your vehicle to exceed state weight limits.
Question: At dawn or dusk, or in rain or snow, it can be hard to see and be seen. You can let others know you are there by
Answer: A. turning on the low-beam headlights.
Explanation: In bad weather, when visibility is low, you can make your vehicle more visible by turning on its exterior lights. When it's raining or snowing, low beams are preferable to high beams because the bright light of high beams can reflect off precipitation, causing glare.
Question: Before transporting a sealed load, you must check which of the following?
Answer: A. Your vehicle does not exceed weight restrictions.
Explanation: You are not responsible for the state of sealed cargo, nor can you inspect it. You are responsible for the safety of your vehicle and its cargo. You are responsible for an overloaded vehicle, so make sure that you haven't exceeded gross weight or axle weight limits. Also make sure that your load is properly balanced in your vehicle.
Question: After you start the engine,
Answer: A. the coolant temperature gauge should begin a gradual rise to normal.
Explanation: Once you start the engine, check the dashboard gauges. Coolant temperature should begin a gradual rise to the normal operating range. Engine oil temperature should also rise gradually to the normal range. However, oil pressure should rise to the normal range within seconds. Don't run the engine for any length of time with low oil pressure.
Question: In the event of a rear tire failure, dual rear tires
Answer: C. will usually prevent fishtailing.
Explanation: Sometimes, failure of a rear tire will cause the vehicle to slide back and forth or "fishtail." However, dual rear tires usually prevent this. Hence, it may be harder for you to figure out which tire failed. To find out, stop your vehicle, exit the cab, and check each tire for a flat.
Question: Most serious skids result from
Answer: A. driving too fast for conditions.
Explanation: Over-braking and over-steering can cause skids. Both over-braking and over-steering are more likely when you're driving too fast.
Question: Which of these may be a sign of tire failure?
Answer: A. Vibration
Explanation: If the vehicle thumps or vibrates heavily, it may be a sign that one of the tires has gone flat. With a rear tire, that may be the only sign you get. A blowout is more likely to make a loud bang than a hiss.
Question: The road you are driving on becomes very slippery from glare ice. Which of the following should you do?
Answer: C. Stop driving as soon as you can safely do so.
Explanation: On glare ice, your vehicle's stopping distance can be ten times as long as on dry pavement. When driving on glare ice, slow down to a crawl, maintain a long following distance behind the vehicle in front of you, and stop driving as soon as you can do so safely.
Question: If the coolant container is part of the pressurized system, which of the following is true?
Answer: A. You may be able to check the coolant level even while the engine is hot.
Explanation: Many vehicles have sight glasses, see-through coolant overflow containers, or coolant recovery containers. These permit you to check the coolant level even while the engine is hot. However, if the container is part of the pressurized system, it's dangerous to open the cap to add coolant while the engine is hot. Wait until the engine has cooled first.
Question: Most skids
Answer: A. are caused by driving too fast or trying to stop too quickly.
Explanation: Over-braking and over-steering can cause skids. Both over-braking and over-steering are more likely when you're driving too fast.
Question: Which of these statements about accelerating in a tractor-trailer is true?
Answer: A. Rough acceleration can cause mechanical damage.
Explanation: When you start your vehicle, make sure you don't roll backward, or else you may hit something behind you. Put on the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling backward. Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back. On a tractor-trailer equipped with a trailer brake hand valve, the hand valve can be applied to keep from rolling back. Speed up smoothly and gradually so the vehicle does not jerk. Rough acceleration can cause mechanical damage.
Question: Should brake adjustments be checked often?
Answer: C. Yes, because brakes can get out of adjustment when they are used a lot.
Explanation: Check brake adjustment often. Brakes can get out of adjustment quickly, especially when they are hot. Out-of-adjustment brakes are the most common problem found in roadside inspections.
Question: Which of the following can be tested in a moving vehicle?
Answer: C. Both of the above
Explanation: Your service brakes are designed to bring your vehicle to a safe, controlled stop. To test this, first release the parking brake. Pull forward at 5 mph and then apply the service brake. Check that the service brakes work properly and your vehicle does not pull to one side. This test can be performed with either air brakes or hydraulic brakes.
Question: Tire chains
Answer: B. should always be carried when driving in winter weather.
Explanation: As winter approaches, prepare your vehicle for driving in winter weather. Among other things, carry the right number of chains and extra cross-links for the tires of your vehicle. The time may come when you won't be able to drive without putting chains on.
Question: Which of these statements about mirror adjustment in a tractor-trailer is true?
Answer: A. You should adjust your mirrors before starting your trip.
Explanation: Adjust your mirrors before you start your trip. If you're driving a tractor-trailer, you can check your mirrors accurately only when the trailer(s) are straight. You should check and adjust each mirror to show some part of the vehicle.
Question: What is the primary cause of fatal crashes?
Answer: B. Driving too fast
Explanation: More than half of truck driver deaths in crashes are the result of truck rollovers. Rollovers can happen when you turn too fast or drive through a curve too fast. If you drive through a curve too fast when poor weather has made the roadway slippery, your vehicle may slide off the road entirely, which can also result in a fatal accident.
Question: When the roads are slippery, you should
Answer: A. make turns as gently as possible.
Explanation: If you take a curve or a turn too fast on a slippery road, you risk a skid. Slow down beforehand. Braking in a curve can cause a skid.
Question: What does emergency braking mean?
Answer: A. Responding to a hazard by slowing your vehicle
Explanation: If a hazard appears in front of you, you may need to perform emergency braking to slow your vehicle. Depending on the situation, you may perform either controlled braking or (in a vehicle without ABS) stab braking. Note: Emergency braking does NOT mean pressing the brake pedal as hard as you can. That can lock the wheels and cause a skid.
Question: Which do NOT provide extra gears on some trucks?
Answer: A. Automatic transmissions
Explanation: Multi-speed rear axles (which tend to be less common in today's commercial vehicles) and auxiliary transmissions provide additional gears that you can select while you drive. You select the additional gears with a control switch on the gearshift lever.
Question: You're behind the wheel of a tractor-trailer. When starting to move up a hill from a stop, you should
Answer: A. release the parking brake as you apply engine power.
Explanation: When you start your vehicle, make sure you don't roll backward, or else you may hit something behind you. Put on the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling backward. (Note: this may not be necessary when you're on a level surface with good traction.) Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back.
Question: Which of these statements about engine overheating is true?
Answer: C. You should never remove the radiator cap on a pressurized system until the unit has cooled.
Explanation: Never remove the radiator cap or any part of the pressurized system until the system has cooled. Steam and boiling water can spray under pressure and cause severe burns. Antifreeze has both a relatively low freezing point and a relatively high boiling point, so it can keep your engine from overheating in warm weather.
Question: What happens to tar in road pavement during hot weather?
Answer: B. It bleeds.
Explanation: In hot weather, asphalt (tar) can rise to the pavement surface ("bleed") to form a shiny, black surface film. Watch for such spots, because this film can be quite slippery.
Question: Which of these is true about notifying authorities after an accident occurs?
Answer: A. If you have a CB radio, use it to notify the police before you exit your vehicle.
Explanation: If you have a cell phone or CB radio, the first thing you should do is call for assistance before you get out of your vehicle. If not, first protect the area by turning on your four-way flashers and placing reflective triangles to warn other traffic. Then ask someone to call the police for you.
Question: Which of these statements about your overhead clearance is true?
Answer: B. The weight of cargo can change the height of your vehicle.
Explanation: Warnings are often posted on low bridges or underpasses, but not always. And even when they are posted, the heights posted may no longer be correct. Repaving or packed snow may have reduced the clearances since the heights were posted. The weight of cargo can change the height of your vehicle. That is, your vehicle will tend to ride lower when fully loaded than when empty. You may be able to get under a low bridge or overpass when your vehicle is fully loaded, but not after the cargo is unloaded.
Question: Which of these statements about rear drive-wheel braking skids is true?
Answer: B. With a tractor-trailer, the trailer can push the tractor sideways.
Explanation: Rear wheel braking skids occur when the rear drive wheels lock. Because locked wheels have less traction than rolling wheels, the rear wheels usually slide sideways in an attempt to "catch up" with the front wheels. With a bus or straight truck, the vehicle will slide sideways in a "spin out." With vehicles towing trailers, a drive-wheel skid can let the trailer push the towing vehicle sideways, causing a sudden jackknife.
Question: If you're not sure what to use to put out a hazardous materials fire, what should you do?
Answer: A. Wait for qualified firefighters.
Explanation: If you don't know how to put out the fire, you could end up making things even worse. In this case, you're better off calling professional firefighters to deal with the situation.
Question: How does vehicle weight affect stopping distance?
Answer: A. Empty trucks can take longer to stop than loaded trucks, but this is not normally the case for buses.
Explanation: The brakes and suspension of a truck are designed to handle heavy cargo. Trucks that are empty or only lightly loaded take longer to stop because the stiff suspension springs and strong brakes give poor traction and make it easier to lock the wheels. This is not usually the case for buses, however.
Question: Which of these is a danger of crossing railroad tracks on dirt roads?
Answer: C. You could get hung up halfway across the tracks.
Explanation: There may not be much space under your vehicle when it is heavily loaded. This is often a problem on dirt roads and in unpaved yards. If you try to cross a railroad track on a dirt road, your vehicle could get hung up halfway across the tracks. Be very careful when driving low-slung vehicles with little ground clearance to begin with, such as lowboys, car carriers, or moving vans.
Question: The speed at which you drive should be determined by which of the following?
Answer: C. Your visibility
Explanation: Always drive at a speed that lets you stop safely within the distance that you can see ahead. Otherwise, by the time you notice a hazard ahead of you, you may not be able to stop in time to avoid it.
Question: Which of these statements about a pre-trip inspection is true?
Answer: A. If you need to tilt the cab, secure loose items first.
Explanation: Before you start to inspect your vehicle, take the ignition key with you to prevent anyone else from moving the vehicle while you're inspecting it. To inspect a cab forward (cab-over) vehicle, it may be necessary to tilt the cab to gain access to the engine compartment. Before doing this, secure any loose items inside the cab so they won't fall when you tilt the cab.
Question: If you have to complete a vehicle inspection report, you must sign it
Answer: A. when any defects are noted.
Explanation: You may have to complete a vehicle inspection report in writing each day. The motor carrier must repair any items in the report that affect safety, and certify on the report that repairs were made or were unnecessary. You must sign the report only if defects were noted and certified to be repaired or not needed to be repaired.
Question: When you are driving on a snow-packed road, you should reduce your speed by at least
Answer: B. one-half.
Explanation: On a slippery road surface, your vehicle's wheels will have less traction, and the vehicle's braking distance will increase significantly. On wet roads, reduce your speed by about one-third. On snow, reduce your speed by about one-half. On ice, slow down to a crawl and stop driving altogether if possible. (On ice, your vehicle's braking distance may increase tremendously.)
Question: If your brakes fail on a downgrade, what should you do?
Answer: C. Look outside your vehicle for another means of slowing down.
Explanation: If your brakes fail, first look for an escape ramp. If no escape ramp is readily available, take the least hazardous escape route you can – such as an open field or a side road that flattens out or turns uphill. Do this as soon as you discover that your brakes have failed. The longer you wait, the faster your vehicle will go, and the harder it will be to stop.
Question: If you must cross into the oncoming lane as you make a right turn, you should
Answer: A. watch for oncoming traffic.
Explanation: To make a right turn, turn slowly to give yourself and others more time to avoid problems. If you must cross into the oncoming lane to make a turn, watch out for vehicles coming toward you. Give them room to go by or to stop. Don't back up for them, however, because you might hit someone behind you.
Question: Which of these is the proper way to change lanes?
Answer: C. Signal before you change lanes, and change lanes slowly and smoothly.
Explanation: To change lanes, (1) make the necessary traffic checks first; (2) give the proper signals; and (3) smoothly change lanes when it is safe to do so.
Question: Medicines for the common cold
Answer: A. can make you sleepy and should not be used while you're driving.
Explanation: Unfortunately, some prescription and over-the-counter cold medications and allergy medications can cause drowsiness, sedation, or impaired coordination, which make them dangerous for commercial drivers. If you are unsure about the effects of a particular medication, check the warning label or ask your pharmacist or doctor.
Question: Which of these statements about emergency braking is FALSE?
Answer: A. How you brake in an emergency situation is not that important.
Explanation: In an emergency, you may have to brake to avoid a collision – but hard braking can cause a skid. Learn proper braking technique. Brake in a way that will keep your vehicle in a straight line and allow you to turn if it becomes necessary. You can use either the "controlled braking" method or the "stab braking" method, depending on the situation.
Question: If you wish to turn left and there are two left-turn lanes, which of the following should you NOT do?
Answer: A. Start in the inside lane and swing right as you turn.
Explanation: To make a left turn, don't start the turn until you have reached the center of the intersection. If you turn sooner, off-tracking may cause the left side of your vehicle to hit another vehicle. If there are two left-turn lanes, use the one on the right. If you use the lane on the left, you may be forced to swing right to make the turn, which can cause a collision with a vehicle to your right.
Question: Which of the following is true about drinking alcohol?
Answer: A. Alcohol first affects judgment and self-control.
Explanation: Alcohol first affects a driver's judgment and self-control, and then it affects coordination, vision, and muscle control. These are all essential driving skills. Impairment of these skills significantly increases the chance of an accident. Your liver burns alcohol at a set rate. There is nothing you can do to increase that rate.
Question: Which of these statements about hazardous materials is true?
Answer: C. All hazardous materials present a health and safety threat.
Explanation: Hazardous materials (HazMat) are products that pose a risk to health, safety, or property during transportation. However, not all amounts of all hazardous materials require you to placard your vehicle. Some classes of hazardous materials (such as Division 2.2: Non-Flammable Gases) require placards only if you are transporting at least 1,001 pounds including the package. Some jurisdictions may restrict the routes you may take to transport hazardous materials.
Question: You were forced to leave the road in an emergency, and you are forced to return to the road before stopping on the shoulder. What should you do?
Answer: B. Using mirrors and turn signals, turn sharply to get back onto the road.
Explanation: If you've left the road but you must return to the road before stopping on the shoulder, the recommended recovery procedure is as follows: 1. Hold the wheel tightly and turn sharply enough to get right back onto the road safely. 2. Don't try to edge gradually back onto the road. If you do, your tires might grab unexpectedly and you could lose control. 3. When both front tires are on the paved surface, countersteer immediately. The two turns should be made as a single "steer-countersteer" move.
Question: What should you do when you see a hazard in the roadway ahead of you?
Answer: C. Use your four-way flashers or brake lights to warn others.
Explanation: If you must slow down for a hazard ahead of you, warn the drivers behind you by tapping your brakes to flash your brake lights. If you must drive very slowly or stop, warn other drivers by activating your four-way emergency flashers.
Question: When starting a bus on a level surface with good traction, there is often no need for
Answer: B. the parking brake.
Explanation: When you start your vehicle, make sure you don't roll backward, or else you may hit something behind you. Put on the parking brake whenever necessary to keep from rolling backward. (Note: this may not be necessary when you're on a level surface with good traction.) Release the parking brake only when you have applied enough engine power to keep from rolling back.
Question: You can use water to extinguish which of the following fires?
Answer: C. Tire fires
Explanation: Water can extinguish wood fires, paper fires, and tire fires. A burning tire must be cooled with lots of water. However, water on an oil or gasoline fire can spread the flames even farther. And because water can conduct electricity, never use water on an electrical fire because that can result in an electric shock.
Question: Which of these is NOT a brake check you normally do during your walkaround inspection?
Answer: C. Brake adjustment
Explanation: If your pre-trip inspection reveals problems with the brakes, note these on your vehicle inspection report. Your employer (the motor carrier) must repair any items in the report that affect safety, and certify on the report that repairs were made or were unnecessary.
Question: When should you learn how a fire extinguisher works?
Answer: B. Before a fire happens
Explanation: If you don't know how to use a fire extinguisher to put out a fire, you could end up making things even worse. So be prepared. Before you drive, learn how your fire extinguisher works. Study the instructions printed on the fire extinguisher. Learn the procedures for using a fire extinguisher that are provided by your employer or are described in your CDL handbook.
Question: Which of these statements about shipping hazardous materials is true?
Answer: A. A four-inch, diamond-shaped hazardous materials label must be on the container.
Explanation: The shipper must affix appropriate US DOT-compliant HazMat labels to the packages and supply the driver with the appropriate placards to attach to the vehicle. Both the labels and the placards are diamond shaped. [49 CFR 172.400], [49 CFR 172.407]
Question: Which of these pieces of emergency equipment must always be carried in your vehicle?
Answer: B. Warning devices for stopped vehicles
Explanation: Federal regulations require every commercial motor vehicle (CMV) to carry one of the following types of warning devices in case the vehicle must be stopped on the road: three reflective triangles, three liquid-burning flares, or six fusees. Federal regulations also require every CMV to carry a fire extinguisher and spare fuses if the CMV uses fuses. (During your CDL skills test, if your CMV uses circuit breakers instead of fuses, point this out to your test examiner.) Your state may also require extra emergency equipment (such as a first-aid kit) on certain vehicles. [49 CFR 393.95]
Question: Sometimes you must leave the road to avoid a hazard or emergency. When you do so, you should keep in mind which of the following?
Answer: B. It is less dangerous to drive onto the shoulder than to risk a collision.
Explanation: If an oncoming driver has drifted into your lane, try to escape to the right, even if it means leaving the pavement and driving onto the shoulder. Most shoulders are strong enough to support the weight of a large vehicle. Never allow a head-on collision. Head-on collisions are often fatal.
Question: Which of these statements about speed management in freezing weather is true?
Answer: A. Slight melting will make icy surfaces more slippery.
Explanation: When the temperature drops, bridges will freeze before the road freezes, because road surfaces retain some heat from the ground underneath. Shady parts of the road will remain icy and slippery long after open areas have melted. However, slight melting will make ice wet. Wet ice is even more slippery than ice that is not wet.
Question: Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a front tire failure?
Answer: B. Vehicle fishtailing
Explanation: If a front tire fails, it can affect the steering. The steering will feel heavy, or the steering wheel may twist out of your hands. Failure of a rear tire can cause the rear of your vehicle to slide back and forth ("fishtail").
Question: Which of these is true about the radiator shutters and the winterfront during winter driving?
Answer: B. You should remove ice from the radiator shutters.
Explanation: In extremely cold weather, very cold air flowing onto the radiator and through the engine compartment can prevent the engine from warming up (and also keep your heater from working well). Radiator shutters or a winterfront restrict this air flow to let the engine warm up. However, don't overdo it. Keep the winterfront partially open or keep the radiator shutters free of ice. If the shutters freeze shut or the winterfront is closed too tightly, the engine may overheat from a lack of sufficient air.
Question: How or where is cargo blocking used?
Answer: A. In the front, back, or sides of the cargo
Explanation: Two ways to secure cargo are blocking and bracing. Blocking is used in the front, back, or sides of a piece of cargo to keep it from sliding. Blocking is shaped to fit snugly against cargo. It is secured to the cargo deck to prevent cargo movement. Bracing is another way to prevent movement of cargo. Bracing goes from the upper part of the cargo to the floor or walls of the cargo compartment.
Question: Before you drive in the mountains, what should you do?
Answer: C. Learn the escape ramp locations on your route.
Explanation: Before you drive in the mountains, you should know how to brake safely on grades, and you should learn the locations of escape ramps on your route. Escape ramps have been built on many steep mountain downgrades. Escape ramps are designed to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers and passengers.
Question: While you're driving at low speeds, what distance should you look ahead of your vehicle?
Answer: A. One block
Explanation: While driving, you should scan the road 12–15 seconds ahead. At typical speeds in urban areas, your vehicle will travel about one block in 12–15 seconds. At 60 mph, your vehicle will travel a quarter of a mile in 15 seconds.
Question: Perception distance is the distance that your vehicle travels
Answer: C. from the time that your eyes see something, to the time that your brain recognizes it.
Explanation: Perception distance is the distance that your vehicle travels from the time that your eyes see something, to the time that your brain recognizes it. For the average alert driver, this time is about 1¾ seconds. Reaction distance is the distance that your vehicle travels from the time that your brain decides to brake, to the time that you start to press the brake pedal. For the average driver, this time is about ¾ second to 1 second.
Question: In a moving vehicle, you should wear your seatbelt
Answer: A. at all times.
Explanation: Regardless of whether you're a passenger or the driver, you should wear your seatbelt at all times while the vehicle is moving. Seatbelts are proven to save lives and reduce injuries. Federal regulations require the driver and all passengers who are seated in a moving commercial motor vehicle (CMV) to wear seatbelts (unless, of course, the seats aren't equipped with them). [49 CFR 392.16]
Question: If you must use a hand-held cell phone while you're driving, what should you do?
Answer: C. Stop in a safe and legal location.
Explanation: Federal regulations prohibit using a hand-held mobile phone while driving a CMV unless the phone is used to communicate with emergency services. Texting is prohibited even on hands-free devices, unless the text messages are used to communicate with emergency services. [49 CFR § 392.80], [49 CFR § 392.82]
Question: When you drive on roads whose speed limits for CMVs are lower than for cars, you should
Answer: B. use extra caution when you change lanes or pass.
Explanation: In many states, speed limits are lower for trucks and buses than for cars. The difference can be as much as 15 mph. Use extra caution when you change lanes or pass on these roadways. Drive at the speed of the traffic but only if you can do so without driving at an illegal or unsafe speed. Keep a safe following distance.
Question: ABS uses computers and sensors to determine
Answer: C. when a wheel may lock up.
Explanation: Hard braking risks locking the wheels, resulting in a skid. An antilock braking system (ABS) is a computerized system that keeps your wheels from locking up during hard braking. A sensor at each wheel monitors how fast the wheel is turning and sends that information to a central electronic control unit (ECU), which acts like a little computer. As you're applying the brakes, if the ECU determines that one wheel is rotating much slower than the other wheels (indicating it may be about to lock up), it releases the brake on that wheel to let it turn freely. Then it reapplies the brake.
Question: How should you merge safely onto a freeway or expressway?
Answer: A. Wait for a large enough gap in traffic in the nearest lane before you merge.
Explanation: To enter a freeway or expressway, (1) check traffic, (2) use proper signals, (3) yield the right-of-way to highway traffic, and then (4) merge smoothly into the proper lane. Driving on the shoulder is dangerous and (in most states) illegal except in an emergency.
Question: If you must stop your vehicle beyond a curve that hides your vehicle from other drivers within 500 feet, place a reflective triangle
Answer: C. up to 500 feet behind the vehicle.
Explanation: According to federal regulation 49 CFR 392.22, if you must stop beyond a curve or the crest of a hill that obstructs the view of your vehicle, you must set out one warning device (such as a reflective triangle) 10 feet behind your vehicle, and another warning device 100–500 feet behind your vehicle. This regulation also specifies where to place warning devices on other types of roadways such as divided highways and undivided two-way roads. These situations are also covered in the section on "Communicating Your Presence" in your state CDL manual.
Question: If your truck is transporting cargo, you must check the securement of the cargo within the first ____ miles of the trip.
Answer: B. 50
Explanation: Drivers of trucks transporting cargo must inspect the securement of the cargo within the first 50 miles of a trip and every three hours or 150 miles (whichever comes first) from then on.
Question: You are driving a tractor-trailer at 55 mph on dry pavement. About how much total distance will you need to bring it to a stop?
Answer: A. The length of a football field
Explanation: For a tractor-trailer traveling at 55 mph on dry pavement, the typical perception distance is about 142 feet, the typical reaction distance is about 61 feet, and the typical braking distance is about 216 feet, for a total stopping distance of 419 feet. Air brake lag distance adds another 32 feet to this total. In comparison, the length of a football field (including the two end zones) is 360 feet.
Question: Which of these would probably NOT help if your windshield becomes covered with ice?
Answer: A. Brush
Explanation: In the wintertime, remove snow and ice from your windshield, windows, and mirrors before you drive. Your vehicle's defroster will help melt some ice and snow to the point that you can clear them more easily. Clear the ice with an ice scraper. A snow brush can clear snow but isn't designed to clear ice. However, some snow brushes come with an ice-scraper attachment at the other end.
Question: Which of these statements about tires is true?
Answer: B. In very hot weather, you should inspect your tires every two hours or every 100 miles.
Explanation: In very hot weather, inspect your tires every two hours or every 100 miles. Each time, check the tire mountings and tire pressures. Tire air pressure increases with temperature, because air expands when its temperature rises. Do not let air out of the tire, or the pressure will be too low when the tire cools off. If a tire is too hot to touch, remain stopped until the tire cools off. Otherwise the tire may blow out or catch fire.
Question: When you inspect your vehicle during cold weather, you should pay particular attention to
Answer: B. the exhaust system.
Explanation: In cold weather, carefully check your vehicle's exhaust system for loose parts and for sounds and signs of leaks. A leak in the exhaust system can allow dangerous carbon monoxide (CO) to seep into the cab. A buildup of CO is more likely in cold weather, when you may have the cab windows closed.
Question: Which of these vehicles is most likely to be affected by strong winds?
Answer: A. A tractor pulling empty doubles
Explanation: Strong winds make it difficult to stay in your lane. The problem is usually worse for lighter vehicles. And a double trailer presents a lot of surface area on which strong winds can act.
Question: When driving in work zones, you should
Answer: C. use your four-way flashers and brake lights to warn others.
Explanation: In a work zone, drive slowly and carefully. Use your brake lights and four-way flashers to warn drivers behind you.
Question: You can use your retarder
Answer: C. only where allowed by law.
Explanation: Retarders help slow a vehicle, reducing the need for using your brakes. However, these devices can be noisy, and some jurisdictions prohibit their use.
Question: In which of these situations can strong winds most affect your driving?
Answer: A. Exiting a tunnel
Explanation: Inside a tunnel, you don't feel the effect of crosswinds pushing you sideways. But once you emerge from the tunnel into an open space, the crosswinds will hit you. If your vehicle is traveling alongside another vehicle, there is some chance that the crosswinds will push one of the vehicles against the other.
Question: Which of these statements about controlling your vehicle's speed is true?
Answer: C. Choose a speed that lets you stop within the distance you can see ahead.
Explanation: Always drive at a speed that lets you stop within the distance that you can see ahead. Otherwise, by the time you notice a hazard, you won't have enough time to stop to avoid it. When you increase your speed, your braking distance increases as the square of the speed increase. For example, if you double your speed, your braking distance will be four times as great. Empty trucks require greater stopping distances than loaded trucks because an empty vehicle has less traction.
Question: Which of the following statements about hazardous materials placards is true?
Answer: C. They must be affixed to all four sides of a vehicle.
Explanation: You placard your vehicle to warn everyone around you that you are transporting hazardous materials. Therefore, you must have placards on all four sides of your vehicle. However, not all packages of hazardous materials require placarding your vehicle. For example, relatively small quantities of consumer-grade chemicals such as drain openers and bleaches may be exempt. Federal regulation 49 CFR 172.500 exempts certain amounts and types of hazardous materials from placarding, but states may impose more stringent requirements. Check with your state's department of transportation.
Question: The stopping distance of a tractor-trailer traveling at 45 mph on dry pavement is approximately
Answer: B. the length of a football field.
Explanation: For a tractor-trailer traveling at 45 mph on dry pavement, the typical perception distance is about 117 feet, the typical reaction distance is about 50 feet, the typical air brake lag distance is about 27 feet, and the typical braking distance is about 152 feet, for a total stopping distance of 346 feet. In comparison, the length of a football field (including the two end zones) is 360 feet.
Question: Which of these statements about marking a stopped vehicle is true?
Answer: B. If a hill or a curve keeps drivers behind you from seeing your vehicle within 500 feet, move the rear reflective triangle back down the road to give adequate warning.
Explanation: If you must stop on a road or the shoulder of any road, turn on your four-way emergency flashers (not your taillights) and set out your emergency warning devices within ten minutes. If you stop beyond any hill, curve, or other obstruction that prevents other drivers from seeing your vehicle within 500 feet, place a reflective triangle up to 500 feet behind your vehicle to warn approaching drivers.
Question: If you are confronted by an aggressive driver, what is the most important thing you should do?
Answer: A. Get out of the driver's way.
Explanation: First and foremost, make every attempt to get out of the driver's way. Don't let your pride or ego keep you from doing this. Don't challenge the aggressive driver by speeding up or attempting to hold your own in your travel lane.
Question: A load that is over-length, over-width, or overweight
Answer: B. requires a special transit permit.
Explanation: Over-length, over-width, or overweight loads require special transit permits. Such loads may also require pilot vehicles, a police escort, or special equipment such as flags, flashing lights, or "Wide Load" signs. Driving is usually limited to certain times. Each state may specify its own requirements and procedures to follow. [49 CFR 393.11], [49 CFR 393.87]
Question: Your vehicle has hydraulic brakes. If the brakes fail while you're driving, what should you try?
Answer: B. Pump the brake pedal.
Explanation: If your hydraulic brakes fail while you're driving, try pumping the brake pedal to build up enough hydraulic pressure to stop your vehicle. If this fails, downshift to use engine braking and apply the parking brake, but release the parking brake before you lock the wheels. If all else fails, look for an escape route. Head for an escape ramp or an open field and let your vehicle slow to a stop.
Question: Which of the following is true about escape ramps?
Answer: C. They can be used by any vehicle whose brakes have failed.
Explanation: Escape ramps are located on many steep mountain grades. Escape ramps are built to stop runaway vehicles safely without injuring drivers or passengers. Escape ramps use a long bed of loose, soft material such as gravel to slow a runaway vehicle, sometimes in combination with an upgrade. Regardless of the type of vehicle you're driving, always look for one of these escape ramps. They can save lives, equipment, and cargo.
Question: To estimate a person's blood alcohol concentration (BAC), you need to know how much alcohol the person consumed and
Answer: B. how much the person weighs.
Explanation: Your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is affected by how much alcohol you drink, how quickly you drink it, and how much you weigh. The larger your body, the larger the volume through which the alcohol has to spread.
Question: Which of these statements about shifting gears is true?
Answer: B. You can use the tachometer to tell you when to shift.
Explanation: You can use your tachometer to determine when to upshift. Before driving your vehicle, check the driver's manual to find out the recommended operating rpm range. As you're driving, keep your eye on your tachometer as your vehicle increases speed. Upshift when engine rpm gets high enough. Double-clutching is a technique used mostly for shifting gears in an unsynchronized manual transmission, such as those found on some trucks. This technique helps you manually match engine speed to the speed of the gear you'll shift into. (A synchronized manual transmission matches the speed for you.)
Question: Which of these statements about inspection of suspension components is true?
Answer: B. Axle mounts should be checked at each point where they are secured to the vehicle frame and axle.
Explanation: Suspension components should be checked on every axle (power unit and trailers, if so equipped). Look for broken or distorted coil springs. Damaged coil springs can cause "bottoming out" or poor handling. Spring mounts should be checked at each point where they are secured to the vehicle frame and axle. Loose, worn, or broken spring mount components may lead to loss of vehicle control or even a rollover.
Question: If you park at the side of the road, you should
Answer: A. turn on your four-way flashers.
Explanation: If you must stop on a road or the shoulder of any road, turn on your four-way emergency flashers (not your taillights) and set out your emergency warning devices (such as reflective triangles) within ten minutes.
Question: Why can tourists be hazards?
Answer: A. They may drive slowly and make sudden stops or lane changes.
Explanation: Confused drivers represent a hazard. They often change direction suddenly or stop without warning. Tourists unfamiliar with the area can be very hazardous. Clues to tourists include car-top luggage and out-of-state license plates. Use caution when driving near such vehicles.
Question: Which of the following is true about using engine braking on a downgrade?
Answer: C. The use of brakes adds to the braking effect of the engine.
Explanation: If you keep using your brakes to control your speed on a long, steep downgrade, the brakes may overheat and fade (become less effective). Instead, use engine braking, and use your brakes only as a supplement to the braking effect of the engine.
Question: You are starting your vehicle in motion from a stop. As you apply power to the drive wheels, they start to spin. What should you do?
Answer: C. Take your foot off the accelerator.
Explanation: If the force applied to the drive wheels exceeds the available traction of your tires on the road surface, the wheels may spin. This is more likely on snowy or icy surfaces, for which you have less traction. When traction is poor, accelerate very gradually. If the drive wheels start to spin, take your foot off the accelerator.
Question: You are driving a tractor-trailer. If the tractor has antilock brakes (ABS) but the trailer doesn't,
Answer: B. you will have more control over the vehicle than if the tractor lacked ABS.
Explanation: Having ABS on only the tractor, only the trailer, or even only one axle, still gives you more control over the vehicle during braking than you would have without ABS at all. Brake normally. If only the tractor has ABS, you should be able to maintain steering control, and there is less chance of jackknifing. But keep your eye on the trailer and let up on the brakes (if you can safely do so) if it starts to swing out.
Question: You are checking your brakes and suspension system during a pre-trip inspection. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: B. Brake shoes should not have oil, grease, or brake fluid on them.
Explanation: The suspension system holds up the vehicle and its load, and keeps the axles in place. Therefore, broken or missing suspension parts can be extremely dangerous. Examples of such dangerous defects are a cracked spring hanger, a missing leaf spring, and a damaged frame member. Brake linings must not be loose or soaked with oil or grease. A brake lining that is soaked with oil or grease may indicate a leaking wheel seal. Replace the lining and check the wheel seal for leaks.
Question: What is aggressive driving?
Answer: C. Driving in a selfish or pushy manner
Explanation: Aggressive driving is driving in a bold, selfish, or pushy manner, which is dangerous enough. Road rage is even worse: intentionally driving to harm someone or physically assaulting someone in his or her vehicle. Examples of aggressive driving include weaving from lane to lane without signaling, purposely blocking another vehicle from changing lanes, and honking the horn to express annoyance, anger, or frustration. Examples of road rage include deliberately ramming another vehicle and exiting one's vehicle to directly confront another driver. Distracted driving is driving while some distraction takes your attention away from the driving task.
Question: Which of the following statements about downshifting is true?
Answer: A. Downshift before you enter a curve.
Explanation: Before entering a curve, slow down to a safe speed and downshift to the right gear. This lets you use some power through the curve to help the vehicle be more stable while turning. It also allows you to speed up as soon as you are out of the curve. Taking a curve too fast or braking while in the curve risks a skid. When downshifting by double clutching, remember that engine speed should be higher in the lower gear that you're trying to shift into.
Question: Your tractor-trailer's brakes can get wet when you drive through heavy rain. What can this cause when you apply the brakes?
Answer: B. Trailer jackknife
Explanation: When you're driving in heavy rain or through deep standing water, your brakes will get wet. Water in the brakes can cause the brakes to be weak, to apply unevenly, or to grab. This can cause lack of braking power, wheel lockups, pulling to one side or the other, and even a jackknife if you're pulling a trailer.
Question: You are driving on a two-lane road. An oncoming driver drifts into your lane and is headed straight for you. Which of these is most often the best action to take?
Answer: C. Steer to the right.
Explanation: To avoid a head-on collision, steer right, toward the shoulder or edge of the roadway. Do not steer left; the other driver may try to steer back into the proper lane. Prepare to drive entirely off the roadway to the right if necessary to avoid a head-on collision. Head-on collisions are often fatal.
Question: Which of the following is true about using a heater while you're driving in winter weather?
Answer: C. Before you drive, make sure that the cab heater is working.
Explanation: Make sure your vehicle is ready before you drive it in winter weather. Among other things, check that the cab heater is working, and make sure you know how to operate it. However, don't overuse the heater. An excessively warm cab can make you drowsy while you're behind the wheel, which is dangerous. Keep cool to stay alert. If you expect to use other heaters also (e.g., mirror heaters, battery box heaters, or fuel tank heaters), check their operation as well before you drive.
Question: If you must care for the injured at an accident scene, you should NOT
Answer: B. allow injured persons to become chilled.
Explanation: If qualified medical personnel are at the accident scene, stay out of their way unless they ask for help. If they haven't arrived yet, try to keep injured persons warm (but neither chilled nor overheated). Don't move them unless there is a danger of fire or another accident from passing traffic.
Question: How should you react to an aggressive driver?
Answer: C. Give the driver the benefit of the doubt.
Explanation: To help reduce stress caused by the actions of other drivers, always give the other driver the benefit of the doubt. Try to imagine why he or she is driving that way. Whatever the reason, it has nothing to do with you. However, if you are confronted by an aggressive driver, get out of the driver's way and let the driver go by.
Question: Why will your vehicle's speed naturally increase on downgrades?
Answer: C. Gravity
Explanation: The force of gravity slows your vehicle down on an upgrade and speeds it up on a downgrade. When driving down a long, steep downgrade, you must select an appropriate safe speed, then use a low gear and proper braking techniques.
Question: You are driving at 50 mph on a straight, level highway. There are no vehicles in front of you. Suddenly a tire blows out in your vehicle. What should you do first?
Answer: A. Stay off the brake until your vehicle has slowed down.
Explanation: In the event of a blowout at high speed, DON'T BRAKE unless you must do so to prevent a collision. Braking can lock the wheels and cause loss of control. Instead, hold the steering wheel firmly and keep your vehicle on course until it slows down. Then brake very gently, pull off the road, and stop.
Question: Your vehicle has hydraulic brakes. While traveling on a level road, you press the brake pedal and find that it goes to the floor. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: B. Pumping the brake pedal may raise hydraulic pressure so you can stop the vehicle.
Explanation: If you lose hydraulic pressure, the brake pedal will feel spongy or go to the floor. Try pumping the brake pedal. This may generate enough hydraulic pressure that you can stop your vehicle. Also try shifting into a low gear to slow your vehicle. If these methods fail, try to apply the parking or emergency brake (but be prepared to release it before the wheels lock). The parking or emergency brake is separate from the hydraulic brake system, so it should still work.
Question: If you must take emergency action to deal with a hazard, you should remember which of the following?
Answer: B. To turn quickly, keep a firm grip on the steering wheel.
Explanation: In an emergency, stopping may not be the safest thing to do. The stopping distance of your vehicle at high speed can be longer than a football field. If you don't have enough room to stop, you may have to steer away from the hazard. Remember, you can almost always turn to miss an obstacle more quickly than you can stop. To turn quickly, you must have a firm grip on the steering wheel with both hands.
Question: In winter, which of these systems should receive extra attention during an inspection?
Answer: C. Exhaust
Explanation: If cab ventilation is poor, exhaust system leaks can allow poisonous carbon monoxide (CO) into the cab. A buildup of CO is more likely during the winter, when you may be keeping your vents and windows closed. Therefore, in the wintertime, check the exhaust system thoroughly for loose parts and for sounds and signs of leaks.
Question: Is it always dangerous to back up a CMV?
Answer: C. Yes.
Explanation: Because of the limited visibility, avoid backing up whenever possible. If you must back your vehicle, use a helper if possible. The helper can stand near the rear of your vehicle and keep an eye on your blind spots. He or she can signal you to stop before an accident can occur.
Question: Under which of the following situations must you stop at a railroad grade crossing?
Answer: C. The cargo you're carrying makes stopping mandatory under federal or state regulations.
Explanation: A full stop is required at railroad grade crossings whenever (a) the nature of the cargo makes a stop mandatory under state or federal regulations, or (b) such a stop is otherwise required by law. For example, federal regulations require any CMV that is placarded for carrying hazardous materials to stop at every railroad grade crossing.
Question: You will be placed out-of-service for 24 hours if your Blood Alcohol Concentration (BAC) is
Answer: B. any detectable amount.
Explanation: If your blood alcohol concentration (BAC) is found to be 0.04% or more, you can be charged with driving under the influence (DUI). (An average 180-pound man may reach a BAC above 0.04% after drinking just two cans of beer.) If you are found to have any detectable amount of alcohol in your system under 0.04%, you will be placed out-of-service for 24 hours.
Question: You may get hung up on railroad tracks if
Answer: B. the tracks have a steep approach.
Explanation: Raised railroad crossings with steep approaches can cause your vehicle to get hung up on the tracks. This is more likely if you're driving a vehicle with low ground clearance (such as a lowboy, car carrier, or moving van).
Question: Why should you keep some cans of spray paint in your CMV in case of an accident?
Answer: B. To mark significant points at the accident scene
Explanation:
Question: Your GPS device
Answer: B. should be designed for truck navigation.
Explanation:
Question: You should schedule your driving for
Answer: A. the hours that you are normally awake.
Explanation:
Question: If you need to leave the road in a traffic emergency, you should
Answer: B. avoid braking until your speed has decreased to about 20 mph.
Explanation:
Question: Name two causes of fires.
Answer: A. Underinflated tires and dual tires that touch
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following materials can be used in an A:B:C fire extinguisher to put out all three classes of fires?
Answer: A. Dry chemical agent
Explanation:
Question: You should take a break from driving
Answer: C. whenever you become drowsy.
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following cannot be checked at the same time?
Answer: B. Brake lights, turn signals, and four-way flasher functions
Explanation:
Question: In a motor vehicle, the components that transmit power from the engine are known as
Answer: A. the drivetrain.
Explanation:
Question: You're driving a loaded truck. How can you maintain your personal safety at truck stops?
Answer: D. Do all of the above.
Explanation:
Question: You'll be driving a tractor-trailer with tandem drive axles and tandem trailer axles. You're installing tire chains on the vehicle to cope with the bad winter weather. Which tires are legally required to be chained?
Answer: A. It depends on the state.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements is FALSE?
Answer: C. A drinker can control how fast his or her body absorbs and gets rid of alcohol.
Explanation:
Question: What kinds of things should you inspect during a trip?
Answer: C. Gauges, brakes, lights, tires, and cargo securement
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is a good thing to remember about using mirrors?
Answer: C. There are “blind spots” that your mirrors cannot show.
Explanation:
Question: When loading the cargo compartment of a vehicle, you should place heavy items on the bottom and the light items on top.
Answer: A. True
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is NOT part of the basic method for shifting up?
Answer: A. Accelerating while pressing the clutch and turning toward the driver side.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these vehicles is most likely to be affected by strong winds?
Answer: A. A tractor pulling empty doubles
Explanation:
Question: Why are placards used?
Answer: B. To communicate the risk
Explanation:
Question: If you smell exhaust fumes in the cab, what should you do?
Answer: D. Stop immediately.
Explanation:
Question: If you do not have a CB radio, what is the first thing you should do at an accident scene?
Answer: A. Protect the accident scene.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is true about the radiator shutters and the winterfront?
Answer: A. You should remove ice from the radiator shutters.
Explanation:
Question: You are checking your wheels and rims for a pre-trip inspection. Which of these statements is true?
Answer: B. Rust around lug nuts may mean that they are loose.
Explanation:
Question: You are driving a heavy vehicle on a highway, and you plan to exit onto an off-ramp that curves downhill. You should
Answer: A. slow down to a safe speed before taking the curve.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is NOT something you should do if your headlights are not working properly?
Answer: B. Leave your high beams on.
Explanation:
Question: Which of these is NOT required knowledge for drivers needing a HAZMAT endorsement?
Answer: C. Basic chemistry
Explanation:
Question: Which of these statements about mirror adjustment in a tractor-trailer is true?
Answer: B. You should adjust your mirrors before starting your trip.
Explanation:
Question: The braking effect of the engine is greatest when the engine is _____ the governed rpm and the transmission is in the ______ gears.
Answer: A. near; lower
Explanation:
Question: Which of the following is true about hours of service regulations?
Answer: C. On-duty time must be balanced with time for rest.
Explanation:
Question: If your vehicle catches fire, where should you pull over?
Answer: C. In an open area
Explanation:
Question: How should you care for conscious accident victims?
Answer: B. Keep them warm.
Explanation:
Question: Why might your brakes start to fade going downhill?
Answer: B. Because they are overheating
Explanation: As your brakes start to heat up, they may become spongy and less effective. This is why it is essential to take advantage of engine braking. If you rely solely on your brakes, you may soon find yourself with no brakes at all.
Question: Both federal and state law require __________ to inspect a commercial motor vehicle before a trip.
Answer: B. the driver
Explanation: The responsibility for the safety and roadworthiness of your vehicle is yours alone.
Question: How far into your trip should you make your first inspection of your cargo?
Answer: C. Within 50 miles
Explanation: Finding out that your load was poorly secured can prevent a major disaster. You must inspect the securement of your cargo within the first 50 miles and then every 150 miles or every three hours (whichever comes first) afterward. [2.1.6- Inspection During Trips; Section 2: Driving Safely; Illinois Commercial Drivers License Study Guide]
Question: You should downshift in advance before
Answer: B. entering a curve or downgrade.
Explanation: Downshifting before starting down a hill allows you to take advantage of engine braking. You should downshift to the gear required, which is usually lower than the gear required to climb the hill. Downshifting before a curve will slow you down and help you get the power you will need to accelerate out of the curve.
Question: A GPS device
Answer: A. should be designed for truck navigation.
Explanation: You should always use a GPS system that is designed for truck navigation. Such a truck-enabled GPS device contains information about truck-restricted roadways and designated routes and takes into account the size of your truck (length, weight, height, and load types) as it routes. A truck-enabled GPS device won't direct you onto roads that are unsuitable for your truck or on which trucks are prohibited.
Question: Which of the following should make you reject a vehicle until it is corrected?
Answer: A. Tires of different sizes
Explanation: Tires of different sizes can cause serious imbalances, steering problems, and braking difficulties.
Question: What is the safest way to control your speed on a downgrade?
Answer: B. Use engine braking.
Explanation: On very long downgrades, your brakes won't be able to do the job on their own. However, if you select the correct low gear, engine braking will slow your vehicle. This will allow you to preserve your brakes for particularly steep areas instead of using them all the time and having them fade.
Question: What is the most important reason to signal well before you turn?
Answer: B. To discourage other drivers from trying to pass you
Explanation: Warn the drivers behind you that you're about to turn. If you don't signal in time, they may try to pass you on the inside.
Question: Which of these substances can impair your ability to drive safely?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Some prescription medications and some over-the-counter cold medicines may cause drowsiness. Always check the label. If you're still unsure, ask your pharmacist or doctor before taking them.
Question: You should have at least one tie-down for every ____ feet of cargo.
Answer: C. 10
Explanation: The rule is one tie-down for every 10 feet of cargo. However, you must have a minimum of two tie-downs for any cargo, no matter how small.
Question: What are blocking and bracing?
Answer: C. A way to keep cargo secure
Explanation: Blocking is placing material tightly around your cargo to prevent movement. Bracing involves struts running from the top part of the cargo to the floor or walls of the cargo compartment, also to prevent movement.
Question: When you check your tires, which of the following should NOT cause you concern?
Answer: B. Tires from different manufacturers
Explanation: As long as the tires match in size, are properly inflated, and are in good shape, they don't have to be from the same manufacturer.
Question: If you start to become sleepy while driving, what should you do?
Answer: C. Stop and sleep.
Explanation: The only way to overcome sleep debt is to sleep. Don't take any chances and don't try to beat nature, especially not with drugs or pills.
Question: How often should you check your gauges (air pressure, temperature, etc.)?
Answer: B. As often as is practical
Explanation: After your senses, your gauges are the next best way to monitor the status of your vehicle. Check them regularly.
Question: When backing up, which side should you back toward?
Answer: C. The left side
Explanation: If given a choice, always back toward the left side because you can see more on that side.
Question: Why should you make sure to keep your vehicle in the middle of your lane?
Answer: C. To avoid drop-offs
Explanation: Many roads have drop-offs (sharp differences in elevation) at their edges. These can disrupt your steering or tilt your vehicle toward the side of the road so that it catches overhanging trees or wires. In fact, research has shown that a pavement drop-off of as little as 2 inches can cause loss of control when the driver attempts to return to the center of the lane. Leave a decent space from the edge of the road so you won't slip into a drop-off.
Question: When double clutching, what should you do if you have difficulty getting into the next gear?
Answer: A. Return to neutral, increase the engine speed to match road speed, and try again.
Explanation: If you have difficulty getting into the next gear, do NOT try to force it. Instead, return to neutral, release the clutch, increase the engine speed to match road speed, and try again.
Question: You should NOT use your low-beam headlights
Answer: B. when driving through tree shadows.
Explanation: Low beams can be helpful in conditions of dim light or poor visibility. You don't need them when driving through patches of shade. In fact, flicking them on and off might distract or confuse other drivers.
Question: As you approach a work crew on the highway, you should
Answer: D. slow down.
Explanation: Road workers may have their backs to you and may be operating heavy machinery that will keep them from hearing you. Slow down and be prepared if some of the workers present a hazard.
Question: What is the most important reason for your pre-trip inspection?
Answer: C. To make sure that the vehicle is safe
Explanation: The safety of the vehicle is always paramount.
Question: What is the minimum tread depth for tires that are not front tires?
Answer: B. 2/32 inch
Explanation: The minimum tread depth is 2/32 inch. If it's right on the limit, it will soon need to be changed.
Question: How should you care for conscious accident victims?
Answer: B. Keep them warm.
Explanation: Do not move accident victims unless there is a danger of fire or explosion or from passing traffic. Do not give them food, drinks, or drugs because that might worsen their symptoms or injuries. If someone is bleeding heavily, try to stanch it by applying pressure. Otherwise, just keep them warm until medical help arrives.
Question: When is it safe to remove the radiator cap?
Answer: D. When the cap is cool enough to touch with a bare hand
Explanation: Don't take any chances with the radiator cap. If you open it while it is still hot, you can receive a blast of steam that can cause serious injury.
Question: As you approach on- and off-ramps, you should remember
Answer: D. that the posted speed limit may be too high for your vehicle.
Explanation: Posted speed limits are a maximum, not a mandate. You should consider taking on- and off-ramps well below posted speed limits, especially if your vehicle or cargo have a relatively high center of gravity. (Tests have actually shown that tankers can roll over at the speed limits posted for curves.)
Question: How should you check for leaks in hydraulic brakes?
Answer: D. Pump the brake pedal 3 times, then hold it down for 5 seconds.
Explanation: Pumping the brake pedal should cause resistance. Then you should be able to hold the brake pedal for 5 seconds without feeling any weakness or give.
Question: When beginning a long downgrade, which of the following should NOT influence your choice of speed?
Answer: D. Your schedule
Explanation: You should handle the downgrade according to the conditions you are facing, not your schedule.
Question: What is the best way to know what another driver is doing?
Answer: D. Watch the driver's head and body movements.
Explanation: Drivers may forget to signal, but they rarely fail to look where they are going. If you're close enough to observe another driver's head and body movements, you may pick up valuable clues about the driver's next action.
Question: How many times should you shift gears while crossing railroad tracks?
Answer: A. None
Explanation: You must not shift gears as you cross railroad tracks because it would increase the likelihood of a stall. Make sure you're in the right gear before you start to cross.
Question: The aggregate working load limit of your cargo tiedowns must be at least ______ times the weight of the cargo.
Answer: A. one-half
Explanation: Federal Motor Carrier Safety Regulations Part 393.106, issued by the Federal Motor Carrier Safety Administration (FMCSA), requires the aggregate working load limit of any securement system used to secure an article or group of articles against movement to be at least one-half times the weight of the article or group of articles.
Question: Your hands should be at the _______ o'clock positions on the steering wheel.
Answer: C. 3 and 9
Explanation: Keeping your hands opposite each other on the steering wheel helps you stay in control if anything such as a pothole tries to wrench the wheel out of your hands.
Question: When you see a hazard ahead, what should you do?
Answer: A. Start planning what to do if the hazard becomes an emergency.
Explanation: A hazard is only a potential emergency. Don't act out of panic, but calmly plan what to do if matters get worse.
Question: If you smell exhaust fumes in the cab, what should you do?
Answer: A. Stop immediately.
Explanation: Exhaust fumes leaking into the cab can be fatal, either by poisoning you or making you drowsy and thus inviting an accident. Stop at once and don't continue until the problem has been found and corrected.
Question: Where can you find the maximum weight loading for a given tire pressure?
Answer: C. On the tire
Explanation: Every tire should have its maximum weight loadings for different tire pressures written on the tire wall.
Question: Before descending a hill, you must be in the right gear because
Answer: A. you won't be able to downshift after you start descending.
Explanation: Engine braking is essential when descending a hill, which means you have to be in a low gear before starting downhill. Once the wheels start to speed up, it may be difficult or impossible to shift gears.
Question: To pull away in snow or icy conditions, you should
Answer: C. accelerate very gradually and slowly.
Explanation: Excessive acceleration or braking can cause wheelspin and skids, especially in snow or ice. Careful, gradual, gentle acceleration can avoid this.
Question: When checking your vehicle's load, you must make sure it conforms to
Answer: D. all local, state, and federal regulations that apply to your journey.
Explanation: You are responsible for adhering to the regulations of every jurisdiction through which you drive. It is insufficient to adhere just to the regulations of your departure point or destination; you might stop in a state or city with different regulations.
Question: If you're driving a 30-foot vehicle below 40 miles per hour, how much following distance should you leave between you and the vehicle in front?
Answer: A. 3 seconds
Explanation: The formula for following distance is one second per ten feet of vehicle, plus an extra second if you are traveling over 40 mph. So for a 30-foot vehicle below 40 mph, this works out to 3 seconds. This is the minimum; other factors such as visibility and road conditions may require you to leave more room.
Question: When you first approach your vehicle, which of these should you look out for?
Answer: D. All of the above
Explanation: Before doing anything with your vehicle, you should check for all potential hazards in the vicinity.
Question: Which of these statements about a spare tire is FALSE?
Answer: A. It must come from the same manufacturer as the truck's tires.
Explanation: A spare tire must be the right size, in good condition, and at the right pressure. It does not need to come from the same manufacturer, however.
Question: In very hot weather, how often should you inspect your tires?
Answer: D. Every 2 hours or every 100 miles
Explanation: If your tires are too hot to touch with your bare hands, then they are too hot to drive safely with. Let them cool down, which will naturally bring them back to their correct pressure as well. Don't be tempted to let air out, because once the tires cool, the pressure will drop too low.
Question: If there are two left turn lanes for you to choose from, you should
Answer: C. use the one on the right.
Explanation: If there are two left turn lanes, use the one on the right. That will leave you more room to swing around the turn and make it easier for you to see traffic on your left.
Question: Who is responsible for making sure all lights and mirrors are clean?
Answer: D. The vehicle's driver
Explanation: Even if the mirrors and lights have been cleaned already, they may get dirty before you take the vehicle out or on your trip. Always have a clean rag or sponge handy to keep them in the best condition.
Question: If your vehicle catches fire, where should you pull over?
Answer: B. In an open area
Explanation: Keep a burning vehicle away from anything else that could catch fire. In particular, don't go near a service station; the truck fire could ignite gasoline.
Question: You should NOT use water on a _______ fire.
Answer: D. gasoline
Explanation: If you pour water on burning gasoline, you will just spread the burning gasoline over a wider area. Instead, use a fire extinguisher that is rated class B (flammable liquids) at least.
Question: What's the most important tool you have for monitoring the condition of your vehicle on the road?
Answer: B. Your senses (eyesight, hearing, smell, feel)
Explanation: Become thoroughly familiar with your vehicle so that you will be able to sense any changes immediately. Use your senses (look, listen, smell, feel) to detect problems.
Question: Your truck's stopping distance will be shortest when it is
Answer: B. fully loaded.
Explanation: It may not be obvious, but the stopping distance will be shortest when the truck is fully loaded. This is because everything about the truck was designed to work best with a full load. When you drive an empty or partially filled truck, be aware that your stopping distances may be longer.
Question: How do you calculate the distance between your vehicle and the one ahead of you?
Answer: B. Count the seconds from when the vehicle ahead of you passes some object to when you reach that same object.
Explanation: Count the seconds from when the vehicle ahead of you passes some object to when you reach that same object. This is the simplest and most accurate way to make this calculation.
Question: Which of the following will not prevent distracted driving?
Answer: B. Pre-loosening the lid of your coffee cup
Explanation: Before starting your trip, you should set up your cab just as you like it, but eating and drinking should be done at rest stops.
Question: Why do vehicles hauling hazardous materials need warning placards?
Answer: B. To let emergency services know what they are dealing with in case of an accident
Explanation: If you are injured in an accident, you may be unable to tell emergency services what kind of load you're carrying. That's why a vehicle carrying hazardous materials must be clearly marked as such. This will help emergency services to properly assess the situation.
Question: Before performing Step 2 (Check Engine Compartment) of the seven-step inspection, you must check that
Answer: A. the parking brakes are on and/or the wheels are chocked.
Explanation: Before doing anything physical with the vehicle, make sure that it can't move and endanger you or others.